CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 1 Question Paper PDF 57-6-1 is available for download. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Biology examination on March 25, 2025. The question paper consists of 33 questions carrying a total of 70 marks. Section A includes 16 MCQs for 1 mark each, Section B contains 5 very short-answer questions for 2 marks each, Section C comprises 7 short-answer questions for 3 marks each, Section D comprises 2 Case-based questions carrying 4 marks each, and Section E comprises 3 long-answer questions carrying 5 marks each. 

CBSE Class 12 2025 Biology Question Paper 57-6-1 with Answer Key

CBSE Class 12 2025 Biology​ Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
CBSE Board Class 12 2025 Biology Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

The process of splicing in eukaryotes represents the dominance of the:

  • (A) DNA world
  • (B) RNA world
  • (C) Protein world
  • (D) Lipid world
Correct Answer: (B) RNA world
View Solution

Question 2:

Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as:

  • (A) Inducible regulation
  • (B) Repressible regulation
  • (C) Negative regulation
  • (D) Positive regulation
Correct Answer: (C) Negative regulation
View Solution

Question 3:

SNPs in Human Genome Project refers to:

  • (A) Polymorphism in repetitive sequences.
  • (B) Single-base DNA differences.
  • (C) Single changes in nucleotide of mRNA.
  • (D) Loss or gain of a gene function.
Correct Answer: (B) Single-base DNA differences
View Solution

Question 4:

If a natural population with 50 individuals is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene with two alleles A and a, with the gene frequency of allele A of 0.6, the genotype frequency of Aa will be:

  • (A) 0.16
  • (B) 0.36
  • (C) 0.24
  • (D) 0.48
Correct Answer: (B) 0.36
View Solution

Question 5:

Given below are a few statements with respect to spermatogenesis in a human male.

(i) Sperms are released from the seminiferous tubules by the process of spermiation.

(ii) Spermiogenesis involves the maturation of spermatids into sperms.

(iii) Spermatogonia produce spermatids by the process of spermiogenesis.

(iv) Meiosis II in secondary spermatocytes results in the formation of four equal haploid spermatids.

(v) Primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division forming two equal, diploid cells called secondary spermatocytes.

Choose the option with all true statements from the given options:

  • (A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
  • (B) (ii), (iii) and (v)
  • (C) (ii), (iv) and (v)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
View Solution

Question 6:

Study the pedigree chart of a family sharing the inheritance of sickle cell anemia.



The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is:

  • (A) Dominant X-linked
  • (B) Autosomal dominant
  • (C) Recessive X-linked
  • (D) Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: (D) Autosomal recessive
View Solution

Question 7:

Select the statements that are true for the seed of angiosperm from the given options:

(i) Non-albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm.

(ii) Residual, persistent nucellus in wheat is known as perisperm.

(iii) Integuments of ovules harden as tough protective seed coat.

(iv) Metabolic activity of the embryo slows down in dormancy.

Choose the correct option:

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (ii), (iv) and (v)
  • (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
View Solution

Question 8:

Which of the following do not follow the law of independent assortment?

  • (A) Genes on non-homologous chromosomes and absence of linkage
  • (B) Two or more genes on homologous chromosomes
  • (C) Linked genes located on the same chromosomes
  • (D) Two or more distant genes present on the same chromosome
Correct Answer: (C) Linked genes located on the same chromosomes
View Solution

Question 9:

A characteristic property that distinguishes a malignant tumor from a benign tumor is:

  • (A) Metamorphosis
  • (B) Metastasis
  • (C) Metabolism
  • (D) Metagenesis
Correct Answer: (B) Metastasis
View Solution

Question 10:

The cloning site present in the tetracycline resistance gene of E. coli cloning vector pBR322 is:

  • (A) EcoR I
  • (B) Pvu II
  • (C) Sal I
  • (D) Pst I
Correct Answer: (C) Sal I
View Solution

Question 11:

Bottled fruit juices are clearer as compared to those made at home, as they are clarified by the use of:

  • (A) Lipases and pectinases
  • (B) Pectinases and proteases
  • (C) Proteases and cellulases
  • (D) Nucleases and lipases
Correct Answer: (B) Pectinases and proteases
View Solution

Question 12:

In his observations of small black birds in the Galapagos Islands, Darwin found that all the finches arose from the original ancestor:

  • (A) Insect-eating finches
  • (B) Seed-eating finches
  • (C) Cactus-eating finches
  • (D) Fruit-eating finches
Correct Answer: (B) Seed-eating finches
View Solution

Question 13:

Assertion (A): In dihybrid crosses involving sex-linked genes in \textit{Drosophila generation of non-parental gene combinations are observed.

Reason (R): Two genes present on different chromosomes show linkage and recombination in \textit{Drosophila.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
View Solution

Question 14:

Assertion (A): Male contraceptive ‘Nirodh’ works on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting.

Reason (R): It is made of thin rubber/latex sheath and is used to cover the penis before coitus.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Question 15:

Assertion (A): Isolated single cells can be fused to produce somatic hybrids.

Reason (R): Cells selected for somatic hybridisation have desirable characters.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Question 16:

Assertion (A): In humans, filariasis is characterized by inflammation in the lower limbs.

Reason (R): Filarial worm usually lives in the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Question 17:

Student to attempt either option (A) or (B):

(A) How is the interaction between Ophrys and its specific bee pollinator one of the best examples of co-evolution? Explain.
OR
(B) Arrange the given important steps of decomposition in their correct order of occurrence in the breakdown of complex organic matter and explain the fourth step in the process.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 18:

Study the given flow diagram and answer the questions that follow:

Q18
(a) What is the technical term used for Step 4 in the above process?

(b) Which of the given two combinations of restriction enzyme should be used in Step 1? Justify your answer.

(i) EcoR I to cut the plasmid and Hind III to cut the alien DNA.

(ii) EcoR I to cut both the plasmid and alien DNA.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 19:

Student to attempt either option (A) or (B):

(A)(i) Explain why the milk produced by the mother during the initial days of lactation is considered to be very essential for the newborn infant.

(ii) What is the term used for the milk produced during the initial days of lactation?

OR
(B) Many children in the metro cities are suffering from a very common exaggerated response of the immune system to certain weak antigens in air.
(i) What is the term used for the above mentioned disease?
(ii) Name the main type of antibody produced by the immune system in response to this disease.
(iii) Which two main inflammation-causing chemicals are produced by the mast cells in such an immune response?

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 20:

Study the given molecular structure of double-stranded polynucleotide chain of DNA and answer the questions that follow.




(a) How many phosphodiester bonds are present in the given double-stranded polynucleotide chain?

(b) How many base pairs are there in each helical turn of double helix structure of DNA? Also write the distance between a base pair in a helix.

(c) In addition to H-bonds, what confers additional stability to the helical structure of DNA?

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 21:

Student to attempt either option (A) or (B):

(A) Why are restrictions imposed on MTP in India? Up to how many weeks or trimesters is MTP considered relatively safe for a female, if necessary to perform, by a medical practitioner?
OR
(B) Expand PID. Name any two common viral infections transmitted through sexual contact in human females.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 22:

Flowering plants with hermaphrodite flowers have developed many reproductive strategies to ensure cross-pollination. Study the given outbreeding devices adopted by certain flowering plants and answer the questions that follow.




[(a)] Name and define the outbreeding device described in the above table.
[(b)] Explain what would have been the disadvantage to the plant in the absence of the given strategy.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 23:

(a) Alien species are highly invasive and are a threat to indigenous species. Substantiate this statement with the help of any two examples.

(b) State any two criteria for determining biodiversity hotspots.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 24:

Answer the following questions with respect to the sex determining mechanism observed in honey bee.

[(a)] Name the type of sex determination system observed in honey bee.
[(b)] Fill in the blanks (i), (ii) and (iii) in the given question.

Q31

[(c)] What will be the sex and chromosome number of the progeny formed from the unfertilised eggs of honey bee?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 25:

Explain how the addition of lactose in the medium regulates the switching on of the lac operon in bacteria.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 26:

(a) Name and explain the role of inner and middle walls of the human female uterus.

(b) Write the location and function of fimbriae in human female.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 27:

(a) What do you mean by activated sludge in an STP?

(b) Explain the biological treatment of the major part of the sludge transferred from the large aeration tank into the anaerobic sludge digesters before its final release into the natural water bodies.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 28:

Explain the beneficial role of the following, produced as a result of the processes of biotechnology, to mankind:

(a) Cow named Rosie

(b) -1-antitrypsin

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 29:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

According to evolutionary theory, every evolutionary change involves the substitution of a new gene for the old one and the new allele arises from the old one. Continuous accumulation of changes in the DNA coding for proteins leads to evolutionary differences. The chemical composition of DNA is basically the same in all living beings, except for differences in the sequence of nitrogenous bases. Given below are percentage relative similarities between human DNA and DNA of other vertebrates:

Q29
What is the term used for the substitution of a new gene for the old one and the new allele arising from the old one during evolutionary process?

Which one of the following holds true for the data provided in the above table?

[(A)] Greater the evolutionary distance, greater are the differences in the nitrogenous bases.
[(B)] Lesser the evolutionary distance, greater are the differences in the nitrogenous bases.
[(C)] Greater the evolutionary distance, lesser are the differences in the nitrogenous bases.
[(D)] Lesser the evolutionary distance, lesser are the differences in the nitrogenous bases.

[(i)] To which category of evolution (divergent or convergent) does the following relationship belong? Justify your answer.

Human and Rhesus Monkey
OR
[(ii)] Differentiate between Convergent and Divergent evolution.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 30:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Prevention is the frontline response to drug use. Effective interventions address the underlying conditions contributing to drug use, such as a lack of connection to family or community, instability, insecurity, trauma, mental health issues, etc. When addressed, these factors can effectively prevent the initiation of drug use and the progression to drug use disorders. Study the few key figures of drug use given below and answer the questions that follow.

People with drug use disorders, 2022 (in millions)




What do you infer from the figures in Table No. 1 about the people with drug use disorders, 2022 (in million)? State any two of your observations.

How are Hepatitis C and HIV related to drug use disorders by people, as shown in Table No. 2? State the correlation between the two.

[(i)] Give the scientific name of (p) shown in Table No. 1.
OR
[(ii)] Give the scientific name of (q) shown in Table No. 1.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 31:

Answer the following questions:

[(i)] Explain how some strains of \textit{Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill certain insects such as \textit{lepidopterans but do not kill the \textit{Bacillus.
[(ii)] How is the above mechanism exploited for the production of Bt cotton plant by biotechnologists?
OR
[(i)] Explain how the amplification of gene of interest is done using PCR.
[(ii)] State two applications of the desired amplified fragment of DNA.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 32:

Answer the following questions:

[(i)] Explain the structure of a mature embryo sac of a typical flowering plant.
[(ii)] How is triple fusion achieved in these plants?
OR
[(i)] Describe the changes in the ovary and the uterus as induced by the changes in the level of pituitary and ovarian hormones during menstrual cycle in a human female.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 33:

Answer the following questions:
[(i)] Describe the Species-Area relationship as observed by Alexander von Humboldt, for a wide variety of taxa in nature.
[(ii)] Draw the graph showing Species-Area relationship for \( S = CA^Z \). What is the significance of ‘\( Z \)’ in Species-Area relationship?

OR
[(i)] Describe the logistic population growth curve with the help of a suitable graphical representation.
[(ii)] Write the equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth curve and explain what ‘\( K \)’ and ‘\( r \)’ suggest in the given equation.

Correct Answer:View Solution