CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 PDF Set 3 64-5-3 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Geography exam on February 24, 2025, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 70. The question paper contains 20% MCQ-based questions, 40% competency-based questions, and 40% short and long answer-type questions. Candidates can download the official CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF using the link below. 

CBSE Class 12  2025 Geography 64-5-3 Question Paper with Solution PDF 

CBSE Board Class 12 Geography Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solutions
cbse class 12 geography Question paper with Solution


Question 1:

Which one of the following is the main polluter of Yamuna water in Delhi?

  • (A) Flood water spreading
  • (B) Dumping of domestic waste
  • (C) Use of pesticides
  • (D) Use of fertilizers
Correct Answer: (B) Dumping of domestic waste
View Solution

Question 2:

Read the following statements related to 'gathering' carefully and choose the correct option.
[I.] It is market-oriented and has become commercial.
[II.] Hunting is an unsustainable activity.
[III.] People collect valuable plants and after simple processing sell them.
[IV.] People selected and domesticated animals found in the regions.

  • (A) II, III and IV are correct
  • (B) I, II and III are correct
  • (C) I, III and IV are correct
  • (D) I, II and IV are correct
Correct Answer: (C) I, III and IV are correct
View Solution



Gathering involves the collection of natural products such as fruits, medicinal plants, barks, and resins, often for commercial sale. It is increasingly market-oriented and sometimes involves basic processing before sale. People living in forested or less developed areas may engage in such practices. Additionally, historically, they also selected and domesticated useful animals in these regions.

Statement II, however, relates to hunting, which is a different activity and not a characteristic of gathering. Thus, Statements I, III, and IV are correct. Quick Tip: Gathering is a primitive yet commercially evolving activity where natural resources are collected, sometimes processed, and sold.


Question 3:

Choose the correct statement related to wholesale trading.

  • (A) Wholesale trading is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  • (B) Wholesale trading is done through street peddling, door-to-door and automatic vending machines.
  • (C) Wholesale trading constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply houses.
  • (D) In wholesale trading, most of the sellers operate on the capital of retailers.
Correct Answer: (C) Wholesale trading constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply houses.
View Solution



Wholesale trading refers to the buying and selling of goods in large quantities, typically between producers and retailers or between merchants. It is not directly concerned with individual consumers. Instead, it involves intermediary merchants and supply houses that manage bulk distribution.


Option (C) correctly describes this nature of wholesale trading. The other options confuse wholesale with retail or informal trade (like street vending), which are different concepts. Quick Tip: Wholesale trading deals with large-scale transactions between producers and retailers, not with end consumers.


Question 4:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.
Reason (R): It helps in getting the needed items from other countries.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Question 5:

The ports which are linked to the sea through a canal are called:

  • (A) Inland Ports
  • (B) Commercial Ports
  • (C) Out Ports
  • (D) Industrial Ports
Correct Answer: (A) Inland Ports
View Solution



Inland ports are located away from the coastline and are connected to the sea via canals or rivers. These ports facilitate trade and transport by providing access to inland regions. Unlike commercial or industrial ports which are situated directly on the coast, inland ports serve as transit points between inland waterways and the sea. Quick Tip: Inland ports are connected to the sea through canals or rivers, allowing access to interior regions.


Question 6:

Arrange the following states in sequence (highest to lowest) according to their production of Bauxite and choose the correct option.
I. Chhattisgarh
II. Gujarat
III. Jharkhand
IV. Odisha

  • (A) IV, III, II, I
  • (B) II, I, III, IV
  • (C) III, IV, I, II
  • (D) I, IV, II, III
Correct Answer: (A) IV, III, II, I
View Solution



Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite in India due to its rich deposits, followed by Jharkhand, Gujarat, and Chhattisgarh. Odisha's mines in Koraput and Kalahandi districts contribute significantly to its output. Jharkhand and Gujarat also have substantial bauxite reserves, whereas Chhattisgarh has comparatively lesser production. Quick Tip: Odisha leads India in bauxite production, followed by Jharkhand, Gujarat, and Chhattisgarh.


Question 7:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material are located close to the sources of raw material.
Reason (R): It is followed to reduce the cost of products.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Question 8:

The objective of National Highway Authority of India is:

  • (A) To develop and maintain roads of important towns.
  • (B) To construct roads for connecting capitals of states.
  • (C) To construct roads for connecting state's towns to the capital.
  • (D) To construct and maintain all the roads of the country.
Correct Answer: (B) To construct roads for connecting capitals of states.
View Solution



The National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) is responsible for the development, maintenance, and management of the National Highways network. A key objective of NHAI is to ensure smooth and efficient movement of goods and passengers by constructing roads that connect state capitals, major cities, ports, and border areas, thereby improving connectivity and supporting economic development. Quick Tip: NHAI focuses on building national highways that link state capitals and major cities to promote better interstate connectivity.


Question 9:

Choose the correct group of states utilizing their groundwater resource moderately.

  • (A) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan
  • (B) Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Punjab
  • (C) Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
  • (D) Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
Correct Answer: (C) Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
View Solution

Question 10:

Read the following factors of population migration in India from rural to urban areas carefully and choose the correct option of push factors.

I. Unemployment
II. Job opportunities
III. Economic backwardness
IV. Lack of medical facilities

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
View Solution

Question 11:

The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability, but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land. In the context of this statement, read the following reasons carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Soil erosion and waterlogging.
II. Salinisation and alkalinisation of soil.
III. Rich land fertility and multiple cropping.
IV. Decline in land productivity.

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
View Solution

Question 12:

Choose the correct example of a trans-continental railway route:

  • (A) Between Yokohama and Vancouver
  • (B) Between Auckland and Honolulu
  • (C) Between San Francisco and New York
  • (D) Between London and Aden
Correct Answer: (C) Between San Francisco and New York
View Solution



The trans-continental railway in the USA connects the east coast (New York) with the west coast (San Francisco), covering thousands of kilometers across the country. It was the first such railway line to connect two ends of a continent, making it a classic example of a trans-continental railway. Quick Tip: Trans-continental railways connect distant ends of a continent, like the U.S. railway from San Francisco to New York.


Question 13:

Choose an objective of the ‘Namami Gange Programme’ from the following:

  • (A) To monitor industrial effluents
  • (B) To develop the network of canals
  • (C) To construct dams for water management
  • (D) To develop ‘Ganga Grams’ in Assam
Correct Answer: (A) To monitor industrial effluents
View Solution

Question 14:

Identify the correct set of water-borne diseases.

  • (A) Asthma, Headache and Diarrhoea
  • (B) Hepatitis, Asthma and Blood pressure
  • (C) Intestinal worms, Headache and Blood pressure
  • (D) Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms
Correct Answer: (D) Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms
View Solution

Question 15:

The maximum number of countries given in the table belong to which one of the following continents?

  • (A) North America
  • (B) South America
  • (C) Europe
  • (D) Asia
Correct Answer: (C) Europe
View Solution



Looking at the table, the countries that belong to Europe are:

- Switzerland
- Austria
- Germany

Thus, the maximum number of countries in the table belong to Europe, which is three countries.


Thus, the correct answer is (C) Europe.
Quick Tip: When studying data from countries across continents, check the geographical regions of each country to determine the highest count from a given set of continents.


Question 16:

Arrange the following countries from low to high order of Human Development Index value and choose the correct option.
I. Singapore
II. Germany
III. Mexico
IV. Israel

  • (A) III, IV, II, I
  • (B) III, IV, I, II
  • (C) IV, III, I, II
  • (D) IV, III, II, I
Correct Answer: (B) III, IV, I, II
View Solution



The Human Development Index (HDI) values of the countries from the table are:

- Singapore: 0.939 (highest)

- Germany: 0.942

- Israel: 0.919

- Mexico: 0.758 (lowest)


Thus, the correct order from low to high HDI value is: Mexico (III), Israel (IV), Singapore (I), and Germany (II).


Thus, the correct answer is (B) III, IV, I, II.
Quick Tip: When arranging countries based on HDI values, always refer to the given HDI values and place countries accordingly, from the lowest to the highest.


Question 17:

Choose the correctly matched pair.

  • (A) Austria - Europe
  • (B) Cuba - Africa
  • (C) Chile - Asia
  • (D) Mexico - South America
Correct Answer: (A) Austria - Europe
View Solution



- Austria is located in Europe. Hence, option (A) is the correct match.

- Cuba is located in North America, not Africa.

- Chile is located in South America, not Asia.

- Mexico is located in North America, not South America.


Thus, the correct answer is (A) Austria - Europe.
Quick Tip: To match countries with continents, refer to their geographical locations on the world map.


Question 18:

18.1 Mention the names of the terminal stations of the given railway line.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The given railway line connects Kamloops in the West to Sydney in the East. Kamloops is located in British Columbia, while Sydney is located in the Nova Scotia province, on the eastern coast of Canada. The line covers a wide expanse of the country, providing an essential link between the Pacific and Atlantic coasts.


The map provided clearly shows Kamloops as the starting point in the West and Sydney as the ending point in the East.
Quick Tip: To identify terminal stations on a map, look for the first and last stops along the railway line. Terminal stations mark the boundaries of the railway network.


Question 18:

18.2 Mention the names of the oceans lying in the East and West directions of this railway line.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



- In the East direction, the railway line lies close to the Atlantic Ocean. The line passes through several cities on the eastern side of Canada, where the Atlantic Ocean is a key feature along the coast. The Atlantic Ocean is also connected to international trade routes, making the eastern terminal economically significant.


- In the West direction, the railway line is adjacent to the Pacific Ocean. The western terminal, Kamloops, is situated near the Pacific coast, which is essential for trade with countries across the Pacific, particularly Asia and the United States.


This geographical positioning makes the railway line strategically important for facilitating international trade.
Quick Tip: Oceans on both sides of a railway line indicate the connection of the railway to major international trade routes. The East is linked to the Atlantic Ocean, and the West is connected to the Pacific Ocean.


Question 18:

18.3 Explain the economic importance of this railway line.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The railway line shown on the map connects significant urban centers across Canada, linking the Pacific and Atlantic coasts. This rail network is critical for several reasons:


1. Facilitating Trade: The railway line plays a crucial role in the movement of goods across Canada. It connects major ports on the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, which are key for importing and exporting goods. The line thus supports Canada's international trade, particularly with countries in Europe, Asia, and the United States.


2. Supporting Economic Development: By linking rural, industrial, and urban areas, the railway promotes regional economic development. Remote areas that would otherwise have limited access to global markets benefit from the railway’s connectivity.


3. Boosting the Mining and Forestry Industries: The railway line serves as an important transportation route for raw materials, such as minerals and lumber, which are vital to Canada’s economy. These industries rely heavily on the efficient transportation provided by the railway.


4. Job Creation and Infrastructure Development: The railway line also supports employment in sectors like transportation, logistics, manufacturing, and infrastructure development. The presence of this transportation network enhances Canada's industrial capabilities and competitiveness in the global market.


In summary, this railway line is not just a physical infrastructure but a backbone of Canada's economy, connecting vital trade routes, supporting industries, and facilitating the movement of goods and services across the country.
Quick Tip: Railway lines are essential for economic integration, enabling efficient movement of goods, supporting industries, and connecting remote areas to global markets.


Question 19:

19.1 How can a person avail services of a professional?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A person can avail the services of a professional by paying a fee for the specialized services provided. These professionals have the required expertise, practical training, and theoretical knowledge in their field, such as healthcare, law, education, or governance. Quick Tip: Professionals offer specialized services in exchange for a fee. These services are typically linked to health, education, law, and other sectors requiring specific expertise.


Question 19:

19.2 Explain any one difference between secondary and tertiary sectors.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The main difference between secondary and tertiary sectors is that the secondary sector involves the manufacturing and production of goods from raw materials (e.g., industries), while the tertiary sector involves the provision of services, such as education, healthcare, and law. In other words, the secondary sector transforms resources into products, and the tertiary sector focuses on offering professional services. Quick Tip: Secondary sector deals with the manufacturing of goods, while the tertiary sector focuses on providing services.


Question 19:

19.3 Describe any one example of the relationship between primary and secondary sectors.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An example of the relationship between the primary and secondary sectors is in the agriculture industry. The primary sector involves farming, where raw materials such as crops are produced. These materials are then taken by the secondary sector to be processed into finished goods, such as food products, which are further distributed or consumed. Quick Tip: The primary sector provides raw materials (e.g., crops) to the secondary sector, which processes them into finished goods (e.g., food products).


Question 19:

Why does 'solar thermal energy' have greater advantage over 'non-renewable energy' in India? Explain.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 20:

"The speed at which the electronic network has spread is unprecedented in human history." Analyse the statement.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 21:

(a) Examine the concept of naturalisation of humans.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 22:

(b) Examine the humanistic approach of human geography.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 23:

23.1 Mention the increase in number of towns/UAs in 1991 in comparison to 1941.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The number of towns/UAs in 1991 was 4,689, while in 1941 it was 2,250. Therefore, the increase in number of towns/UAs in 1991 compared to 1941 is: \[ 4,689 - 2,250 = 2,439. \]
Thus, there was an increase of 2,439 towns/UAs from 1941 to 1991. Quick Tip: To find the increase, subtract the earlier year value from the later year value.


Question 23:

23.2 In which decade is the minimum increase in the percentage of urban population recorded?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



By observing the table, the minimum increase in the percentage of urban population is recorded in the decade between 1981 and 1991, where the increase is from 23.34% to 25.71%, which is a 2.37% increase.


Thus, the decade from 1981 to 1991 shows the minimum increase in urban population percentage. Quick Tip: To find the minimum increase, compare the difference in percentage values for each decade.


Question 23:

23.3 Describe the decennial growth of urbanisation.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The decennial growth in urbanisation shows significant changes in India. The growth rate has fluctuated over the decades:

- The highest growth rate was recorded between 1981 and 1991, with a decennial growth rate of 46.14%.

- The lowest growth rate occurred between 1991 and 2001, with a decennial growth rate of 31.13%.


Overall, there has been a consistent increase in the urban population, reflecting the increasing trend of urbanisation in India, although the rate of increase has slowed down in the last decade. Quick Tip: Decennial growth helps in understanding the pace at which urban population is increasing. It's calculated by comparing the urban population of one decade to the next.


Question 24:

How is migration an important component of population change? Distinguish between push and pull factors of migration.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 25:

(a) How does personal communication system enable the user to establish direct contact with the world of knowledge and information? Analyse.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Personal communication systems, such as mobile phones, the internet, and email services, allow individuals to establish direct and instant contact with the world of knowledge and information. This system plays a key role in the digital age by offering the following advantages:


Instant Access to Information: The internet provides vast knowledge through websites, e-books, online courses, and news portals.
Global Connectivity: Users can communicate with individuals, institutions, and experts around the world using phones, video calls, or messaging apps.
Educational Empowerment: Students can access digital libraries, attend virtual classrooms, and participate in online discussions.
Participation in Governance and Economy: Citizens can engage in e-governance, e-banking, and digital marketplaces, contributing to informed decision-making and economic inclusion.


Thus, personal communication systems bridge geographical distances and promote global knowledge sharing. Quick Tip: Personal communication systems like mobiles and the internet enable users to connect globally and access information instantly.


Question 26:

(b) Analyse the changing pattern of imports in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



India’s import pattern has undergone significant changes over time, reflecting the country’s evolving economic needs and development priorities. The key changes are:


Increase in Energy Imports: There has been a significant rise in the import of crude oil, petroleum products, and natural gas to meet the growing energy demands of industry and transportation.
Technology and Machinery: With industrialisation and digitalisation, India now imports more electronic goods, telecommunication equipment, and capital goods.
Decline in Foodgrain Imports: Earlier, India imported foodgrains. However, with self-sufficiency in food production, such imports have declined.
Increase in Gold and Precious Metals: Due to rising domestic demand, imports of gold, silver, and gems have grown significantly.


These changes indicate India's transition from an agrarian economy to an industrial and consumer-driven economy. Quick Tip: India’s imports have shifted from foodgrains to energy, electronics, and gold, reflecting industrialisation and rising consumer demand.


Question 27:

(a) Define the concept of 'Common Property Resource'. Explain any four characteristics of common property resources in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Common Property Resources (CPRs) refer to natural resources which are accessible to all members of a community and are not owned privately. These resources are used collectively and managed by the community. Examples include community forests, pastures, water bodies, and grazing lands.

Four characteristics of CPRs in India are:


Accessibility: These resources are open to all members of a local community, without individual ownership.
Collective Management: They are managed by traditional community institutions or local governing bodies.
Sustainability Concern: Overuse or unregulated use can lead to depletion, making sustainable management essential.
Socio-economic Dependence: Rural and tribal communities depend heavily on CPRs for fuel, fodder, water, and food. Quick Tip: Common Property Resources are shared natural assets managed collectively and used by communities, especially in rural India.


Question 27:

(b) Distinguish between 'irrigated' and 'rainfed agriculture' in India with examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Irrigated Agriculture:

Depends on artificial means of water supply such as canals, wells, and tube wells.
Practised in regions with better infrastructure like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
Ensures stable crop production and supports high-yield crops like wheat, rice, and sugarcane.


Rainfed Agriculture:

Depends solely on rainfall for water.
Practised in drier and hilly areas such as parts of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
Suitable for crops like millets, pulses, and oilseeds which require less water. Quick Tip: Irrigated farming relies on artificial water sources, while rainfed agriculture depends entirely on monsoon rainfall.


Question 28:

(a) “Rearing of animals in ranches is organized on the scientific basis.” Examine the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The rearing of animals in ranches is indeed organized on a scientific basis. This approach is commonly referred to as "ranching," which involves the large-scale breeding and management of livestock, such as cattle, sheep, and horses, primarily for meat, wool, or other products. The scientific aspect of ranching includes the use of modern techniques in breeding, feeding, health management, and pasture management.


- Breeding Techniques:

Ranches apply genetic selection to improve the quality and quantity of livestock, ensuring healthier and more productive animals.

- Feeding and Nutrition:

Ranchers use scientifically formulated diets to optimize the growth and health of the animals, ensuring they are provided with balanced nutrients.

- Animal Health Management:

Vaccinations, medications, and disease control methods are implemented to maintain the health of the animals.

- Pasture Management:

Grazing patterns are managed to avoid overgrazing and to maintain the fertility of the land. This scientific method ensures the sustainable production of livestock while maintaining the health of the land.


In conclusion, ranching is based on scientific principles that ensure maximum productivity, sustainability, and the well-being of both the animals and the environment.
Quick Tip: Ranching relies on scientific methods for breeding, nutrition, and health management to ensure high productivity and sustainable practices.


Question 28:

(b) “Mixed economies have public, private and joint sector industries.” Examine the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A mixed economy refers to an economic system that combines elements of both capitalism and socialism. In a mixed economy, industries are categorized into three main sectors: public, private, and joint. These sectors play an essential role in the functioning of the economy by balancing government control and private enterprise.


- Public Sector:

The public sector consists of industries and enterprises owned and operated by the government. The government controls industries related to defense, infrastructure, education, healthcare, and natural resources to ensure equitable distribution and public welfare. Examples include public utilities, railways, and postal services.

- Private Sector:

The private sector is made up of industries and businesses owned and operated by private individuals or corporations. These industries focus on profit-making and competition in the market. Examples include retail businesses, technology companies, and manufacturing firms.

- Joint Sector:

The joint sector refers to industries where both the government and private individuals or organizations share ownership and management. This sector combines the benefits of both public and private sectors, where the government provides resources and regulatory oversight, while private businesses contribute entrepreneurial expertise. Examples include joint ventures in areas like energy, telecommunications, and infrastructure.


In a mixed economy, the balance between these sectors allows for the efficient allocation of resources while addressing social needs and promoting economic growth.
Quick Tip: In a mixed economy, the combination of public, private, and joint sectors ensures both social welfare and economic development.


Question 29:

(a) "The distribution of rural population is not uniform throughout the country." Evaluate the statement with suitable examples.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 29:

(b) "There is widely spatial variation in different sectors of work participation in India." Evaluate the statement with suitable examples.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 30:

On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. An area of nomadic herding
B. A major sea port
C. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
D. A major airport
E. An inland waterway
F. A major airport
G. A terminal station of a trans-continental railway

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 30:

OR On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :
(30.1) The state leading in the production of rice
(30.2) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
(30.3) The sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal
(30.4) Important bauxite mines located in southern Odisha
(30.5) The international airport in Assam
(30.6) Important iron ore mines located in southern Chhattisgarh
(30.7) Important copper mines located in southern Rajasthan

Correct Answer:View Solution