CBSE conducted the Class 12 Home Science Board Exam on April 04, 2025, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Home Science theory exam carries a total of 100 marks, divided into 70 marks for the written exam and 30 marks allocated for internal assessment.

The question paper consists of different types of questions, including MCQ carrying 1 mark each,short-answer questions valued at 2 or 3 marks each and long-answer questions carrying 4 or 6 marks each.

CBSE Class 12 Home Science 2025 Question Paper and Detailed Solutions PDF is available for download here.

CBSE Class 12 2025 Home Science Question Paper with Answer Key

CBSE Class 12 2025 Home Science​ Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
CBSE Board Class 12 2025 Home Science Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Which of the following option is most suitable for a career in the field of clinical nutrition?

  • (A) Quality control manager
  • (B) Specialist in HACCP
  • (C) Diet consultant
  • (D) Sensory evaluator
Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 2:

Select the traditional handicraft of Odisha.

  • (A) Channapatna dolls
  • (B) Shola craft
  • (C) Bamboo craft
  • (D) Warli painting
Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 3:

Identify the Danger Zone temperature range at which bacteria grow on foodstuffs.

  • (A) 5 – 60\textdegree C
  • (B) 5 – 60\textdegree F
  • (C) 15 – 100\textdegree C
  • (D) 15 – 100\textdegree F
Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 4:

Where was the Sustainable Access in Rural India (SARI) project started?

  • (A) Assam
  • (B) Gujarat
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Haryana
Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 5:

Annapurna scheme is under which nutrition programme operating in India?

  • (A) Nutrient Deficiency Control Programmes
  • (B) Food Supplementation Programmes
  • (C) ICDS
  • (D) Food Security Programmes
Correct Answer: (D) Food Security Programmes
View Solution

Question 6:

Which nutrient deficiency is targeted by National Prophylaxis Programme for Prevention of Blindness?

  • (A) Vitamin A
  • (B) Iron
  • (C) Iodine
  • (D) Protein
Correct Answer: (A) Vitamin A
View Solution

Question 7:

In the interest of consumers, ‘Consumer Voice’ magazine is a publication of which country?

  • (A) Australia
  • (B) India
  • (C) United States of America
  • (D) Nepal
Correct Answer: (B) India
View Solution

Question 8:

Section 48 of which of the following Act states that creches should be maintained if more than thirty women are employed in an industry or factory?

  • (A) The Plantations Labour Act
  • (B) The Maternity Benefit Act
  • (C) The Factories Act
  • (D) The Mines Act
Correct Answer: (C) The Factories Act
View Solution

Question 9:

Choose the correct pair of food hazard with its example:

  • (A) Visible biological hazard : Bacteria
  • (B) Invisible microbiological hazard : Worms
  • (C) Chemical hazard : Bone fragments
  • (D) Physical hazard : Hair
Correct Answer: (D) Physical hazard : Hair
View Solution

Question 10:

All India Institutes of Medical Sciences provide which level of health care services in India?

  • (A) Primary
  • (B) Tertiary
  • (C) Secondary
  • (D) Intermediary
Correct Answer: (B) Tertiary
View Solution

Question 11:

Which method of washing is used in a front loading washing machine for clothes?

  • (A) Tumbling
  • (B) Agitation
  • (C) Spinning
  • (D) Pulsation
Correct Answer: (A) Tumbling
View Solution

Question 12:

Match the organisation of food safety and quality given in List-I with its description in List-II.

i. CAC & 2. Publishes ‘Food Code’ document

ii. ISO & 1. Worldwide non-governmental federation

iii. WTO & 4. Established in 1995 for administering trade agreements in the world

iv. BIS & 3. Voluntary Product Certification of India

 

  • (A) i – 4, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 1
  • (B) i – 3, ii – 4, iii – 1, iv – 2
  • (C) i – 2, ii – 1, iii – 4, iv – 3
  • (D) i – 3, ii – 2, iii – 4, iv – 1
Correct Answer: (C) i – 2, ii – 1, iii – 4, iv – 3
View Solution

Question 13:

Match the Method of Development Communication given in List-I with its example in List-II.

i. Campaign & 3. Jago Grahak Jago

ii. Community radio & 4. Banasthali Vidyapith

iii. Information and Communication Technology & 1. Tele-centre

iv. Print media & 2. Hindustan Times – Project Village Chhatera

 

  • (A) i – 4, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 1
  • (B) i – 3, ii – 1, iii – 4, iv – 2
  • (C) i – 2, ii – 3, iii – 1, iv – 4
  • (D) i – 3, ii – 4, iii – 1, iv – 2
Correct Answer: (D) i – 3, ii – 4, iii – 1, iv – 2
View Solution

Question 14:

Identify the desirable qualities in a caretaker working in an Anganwadi.
(i) Interest in children and their development
(ii) Unwilling to answer children’s queries
(iii) Inability to understand individual differences
(iv) Enthusiastic and energetic

  • (A) (i) and (iv)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (i) and (iii)
  • (D) (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (A) (i) and (iv)
View Solution

Question 15:

Which processes are used in minimally processed foods to retain the quality of fresh foods?
(i) Shelling
(ii) Storage at low refrigeration temperature
(iii) Hydrogenation
(iv) Baking at high temperature

  • (A) (i) and (iii)
  • (B) (i) and (ii)
  • (C) (iii) and (iv)
  • (D) (ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer: (B) (i) and (ii)
View Solution

Question 16:

Which factors have increased the demand of readymade foods in India?
(i) Deficit in agriculture
(ii) To decrease the nutritive value of diet
(iii) Catering to the needs of working women
(iv) Changes in lifestyle

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (iii) and (iv)
  • (D) (i) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (C) (iii) and (iv)
View Solution

Question 17:

In the context of institutes/programmes for vulnerable groups, choose the correct pair:

  • (A) CARA : Organising rallies
  • (B) Promotion of Adventure : Child Rights Convention
  • (C) Observation Home : A kind of home for Children
  • (D) Promotion of National Integration : Family-based care
Correct Answer: (C) Observation Home : A kind of home for Children
View Solution



Observation Home is a type of shelter/home for children who are either in conflict with the law or need protection. These homes provide care and rehabilitation services to children separated from their families.

Explanation of other options:

(A) CARA: Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is responsible for regulating and monitoring adoption in India, not for organising rallies.
(B) Promotion of Adventure: Not directly related to the Child Rights Convention.
(D) Promotion of National Integration: This is a social goal, but it is not synonymous with family-based care. Quick Tip: Observation Homes provide temporary shelter and rehabilitation for vulnerable children separated from families.


Question 18:

Match the initiatives for children, youth and elderly given in List-I with their related year in List-II:

i. SOS Children’s Villages & 1. 2000, 2015

ii. National Youth Policy & 2. 1999

iii. National Policy for Older Persons & 3. 2003, 2014

iv. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act & 4. 1964

Choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) i – 4, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 1
  • (B) i – 3, ii – 4, iii – 1, iv – 2
  • (C) i – 2, ii – 1, iii – 4, iv – 3
  • (D) i – 3, ii – 1, iii – 2, iv – 4
Correct Answer: (A) i – 4, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 1
View Solution




SOS Children’s Villages was established in 1964 as a global organisation for orphaned and abandoned children, providing family-like care.
National Youth Policy was adopted in 2003 and revised in 2014 to address the needs and development of youth.
National Policy for Older Persons was formulated in 1999 to focus on welfare and protection of elderly persons.
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was enacted in 2000 and later amended in 2015 to safeguard the rights of children in conflict with law and children in need of care. Quick Tip: Match initiatives with their years to understand the evolution of social welfare laws and policies.


Question 19:

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Within the broad category ‘Youth’, there are some groups who are especially vulnerable.
Reason (R): Rural and tribal youth are vulnerable groups.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



The term “Youth” broadly includes all young people typically between the ages of 15 and 29. However, not all youth face the same challenges; some groups within this category are particularly vulnerable due to economic, social, and geographic factors. These vulnerable groups often lack adequate access to education, healthcare, employment opportunities, and social security.

Rural and tribal youth are identified as vulnerable because:


They generally live in underdeveloped or remote areas with poor infrastructure.
Access to quality education and vocational training is limited.
Healthcare facilities and awareness are often inadequate.
Employment opportunities are scarce, leading to higher rates of unemployment and underemployment.
Social marginalization and poverty contribute further to their vulnerability.


Therefore, the reason (R) correctly identifies rural and tribal youth as vulnerable groups, which explains the assertion (A) that some groups within the broad youth category are especially vulnerable. This makes option (A) the correct choice. Quick Tip: \textbf{Quick Tip:} Vulnerable youth groups often include rural and tribal populations due to socio-economic disadvantages.


Question 20:

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): It is necessary to provide for the economic and health needs of the elderly to create a conducive social milieu.
Reason (R): In India, Senior Citizens constitute persons in the age group of 50 years and above.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
View Solution



It is indeed necessary to provide for the economic and health needs of the elderly to ensure they live with dignity and comfort, which contributes to a supportive and conducive social environment. This makes Assertion (A) true.


However, the Reason (R) is incorrect because in India, the term "Senior Citizens" or elderly generally refers to persons aged 60 years and above, not 50 years and above. The definition of senior citizens as those aged 60+ is used in government policies and social welfare schemes.


Therefore, while the need to provide for elderly welfare (Assertion) is true, the age group mentioned in the Reason is incorrect, making option (C) the correct choice. Quick Tip: \textbf{Quick Tip:} In India, senior citizens are officially recognized as people aged 60 years and above for welfare schemes and policies.


Question 21:

(a) ‘Poshan Abhiyaan monitors and reviews the implementation of strategies to address the nutritional problems’. Justify this statement by giving any two short term interventions.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 22:

(b) A doctor has diagnosed a fall in haemoglobin levels of an adolescent girl. Which nutritional deficiency disorder does it indicate? List any two other symptoms which may be seen in her in this disorder.

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 23:

Few children of a village have become victims of a natural calamity and are without home. Besides these, which other four types of vulnerable children need care and protection?

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 24:

What is meant by food fortification? Give its two examples.

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Question 25:

By using different types of lines in various combinations on fabrics, name four basic groups of shapes which can be formed?

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Question 26:

How is ironing different from hot pressing of clothes? Give any two differences.

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Question 27:

A student is curious to learn about the major developments in food processing and technology that occurred before the 20th century. In this context, name two researchers who made a significant contribution in those times. Also name the process developed by each one of them.

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Question 28:

(a) Differentiate between underweight and wasting.

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Question 29:

(b) Write the full form of PEM and describe it briefly.

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Question 30:

(a) Sumera lived in a remote village and was never sent to school. Now her parents want to admit her in a residential school. Suggest the name of the scheme by the Government of India meant for such girls. Explain any two other features of this scheme.

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Question 31:

(b) Jacob wants to set up a suitable workplace for his employees in his own manufacturing company. Advise him to use ergonomics in designing workplaces by giving the definition of ergonomics and its two benefits.

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Question 32:

Provide six reasons how a pre-school environment is beneficial for young children’s development.

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Question 33:

(a) Why is it important for DCJ professionals to be well versed in computer skills?

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Question 34:

(b) In which two areas can a Development Journalist work?

Correct Answer:View Solution

Question 35:

(c) Name the umbrella term that includes computer hardware and software, digital broadcast, etc.

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Question 36:

(a) Enlist six features of Hospital laundry.

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Question 37:

(b) Mention six work operations which are performed by an automatic washing machine.

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Question 38:

(a) Which type of diet should be given to a person who has dentures? Give any two examples of this diet.

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Question 39:

(b) Describe any two ways of feeding a patient.

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Question 40:

(a) By which four ways can a fruit and vegetable vendor deceive his customers using defective weights and measures?

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Question 41:

(b) As an alert consumer, what are her two responsibilities in this context?

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Question 42:

(a)
(i) "Food safety challenges have changed globally as well as in India, and Food Quality and Food Safety have gained tremendous importance." In this context, highlight two significant reasons of importance of Food Quality and Safety.

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Question 43:

(ii) Identify two common food-borne pathogens that can spread infection in healthy individuals.

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Question 44:

(b)(i) What is the full name of the comprehensive law that consolidated various old food laws in India? When was it enacted?

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Question 45:

(b)(ii) A food manufacturing company is establishing a Food Safety Management System. Describe two systems the company can use to ensure food safety and quality.

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Question 46:

(a) A fashion design team has been tasked with creating a new apparel collection inspired by the Golden Mean. Describe any three ways how they would integrate the principles of proportion into their design process, with a focus on Golden Mean.

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Question 47:

(b) They have been asked to use colour value 0 and 10 from a Grey Scale. What do these equivalent values represent?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 48:

(a) Kartik’s family has reserved a 3-night stay at a resort for their vacation. As the Front Office Manager, list down the actions to be taken during each stage of ‘Guest cycle’ to ensure good hospitality services for Kartik’s family. Which two staff members/personnel would assist the Front Office Manager in this work?

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Question 49:

(b) ‘Fresh Cake and Cafe’, a new bakery and coffee shop is opened in your city. Its Food and Beverage Department has the responsibility for the sale of food and beverages. Name any two service departments related to it. Describe four functions/roles of any one of these service departments.

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Question 50:

(a) Blazer jackets, hot pants, polo shirts and baggy pants are displayed in a fashion store for sale. Classify and differentiate them as per fashion terms used in the fashion industry.

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Question 51:

(b) Which three career opportunities will be available to fashion design professionals in this fashion store? Mention any one role for each of them.

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