CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Question Paper 2024 (Set 3- 67/2/3) Available- Download Solutions with Answer Key

Solution: The initial profit-sharing ratio is 4 : 3 : 3, and the new profit-sharing ratio is 1:1:1 (equal sharing).

For Arjun:
Old Share = ³⁄₁₀
New Share = ¹⁄₃

Calculate Arjun's sacrifice or gain:
Sacrifice or Gain = New Share - Old Share

Substitute values:
Sacrifice or Gain = ¹⁄₃ - ³⁄₁₀

Take the LCM of denominators 10 and 3, which is 30:
¹⁄₃ = ¹⁰⁄₃₀
³⁄₁₀ = ⁹⁄₃₀

Sacrifice or Gain = ¹⁰⁄₃₀ - ⁹⁄₃₀ = ¹⁄₃₀

Since the result is positive, it represents a gain.
Hence, the correct answer is (B) Gain ¹⁄₃₀.

Solution: The interest on capital (IOC) is calculated at the rate of 10% p.a. on the capital contributions of Neeru and Meetu.

IOC (Neeru) = ¹⁰⁄₁₀₀ × 2,00,000 = 20,000

IOC (Meetu) = ¹⁰⁄₁₀₀ × 1,50,000 = 15,000

The total interest exceeds the available profit of 17,500. Therefore, the interest will be adjusted in the ratio of their capitals, which is 2,00,000 : 1,50,000 = 4 : 3.

Adjusted IOC (Neeru) = ⁴⁄₇ × 17,500 = 10,000

Adjusted IOC (Meetu) = ³⁄₇ × 17,500 = 7,500
Hence, the correct answer is (D) Neeru ₹10,000; Meetu ₹7,500.

Solution: To calculate the profit or loss on realisation, use the formula:
Profit or Loss on Realisation = Total Realisation - (Outside Liabilities+Realisation Expenses)

Substitute the given values:
Total Realisation = ₹7,20,000
Outside Liabilities = ₹2,40,000, Realisation Expenses = ₹8,000

Profit or Loss on Realisation = ₹7,20,000 – (₹2,40,000 + ₹8,000)
Profit or Loss on Realisation = ₹7,20,000 – ₹2,48,000 = ₹4,72,000

The profit on realisation is ₹4,72,000. However, after accounting for initial total assets ₹6,00,000, the net profit is:
₹7,20,000 - ₹6,00,000 – ₹8,000 = ₹1,12,000

Hence, the correct answer is (D) Profit ₹1,12,000.

Solution: Dissolution of a partnership can take place by mutual agreement, and in such cases, there is no intervention by the court. Assertion (A) correctly states that the court does not intervene, and Reason (R) correctly explains that this is because dissolution is by mutual agreement.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Solution: Nominal or authorised share capital refers to the maximum value of shares that a company is authorised to issue as per its Memorandum of Association. It represents the upper limit of share capital that a company can legally raise.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

Solution: Debentures are classified based on whether they are secured against company assets. Unsecured Debentures, also known as naked debentures, do not have any specific charge on the company's assets. These debentures rely on the general creditworthiness of the issuer for repayment.

Hence, the correct answer is (B) Unsecured Debentures

Solution: To calculate the sacrificing ratio of Kishore and Bimal, follow these steps:

Step 1: Calculate the old share of Kishore and Bimal. The old profit-sharing ratio of Kishore and Bimal is 4:3.
Kishore's old share = ⁴⁄₇
Bimal's old share = ³⁄₇

Step 2: Calculate the new share of Kishore and Bimal. After Nand's admission, Kishore and Bimal decide to share profits equally, and Nand takes ¹⁄₄ of the profits. The remaining share is:
1 - ¹⁄₄ = ³⁄₄

Kishore and Bimal will share the remaining ³⁄₄ equally:
Kishore's new share = ³⁄₄ * ¹⁄₂ = ³⁄₈
Bimal's new share = ³⁄₄ * ¹⁄₂ = ³⁄₈

Step 3: Calculate the sacrifice made by Kishore and Bimal. Sacrifice = Old Share - New Share
Kishore's sacrifice = ⁴⁄₇ - ³⁄₈ = ³²⁄₅₆ - ²¹⁄₅₆ = ¹¹⁄₅₆
Bimal's sacrifice = ³⁄₇ - ³⁄₈ = ²⁴⁄₅₆ - ²¹⁄₅₆ = ³⁄₅₆

Step 4: Calculate the sacrificing ratio.
Sacrificing Ratio of Kishore and Bimal = 11 : 3.
Hence, the correct answer is (C) 11:3.

Solution: Step 1: Calculate Tina's profit share.
Tina's share of profit = ¹⁄₅ × 1,60,000 = 32,000.

Step 2: Determine the deficiency.
Deficiency = 40,000 – 32,000 = 8,000.

Since Raju is responsible for the deficiency, he will bear 8,000.
Hence, the correct answer is (A) ₹8,000.

Solution: To calculate the number of debentures issued, use the formula:
Number of Debentures = ^{Purchase Consideration}⁄_{Issue Price per Debenture}

Step 1: Calculate the Issue Price per Debenture. The face value of each debenture is 100, but it is issued at a 10% discount. Therefore:
Issue Price per Debenture = 100 – (100 × 10%) = 100-10 = 90.

Step 2: Calculate the Number of Debentures.
Number of Debentures = ^12,60,000⁄₉₀
Number of Debentures = 14,000.

Final Answer: The number of debentures issued is 14,000

Solution: The face value of the debentures is 100 each. When issuing 6,000 debentures, the 8% Debentures Account is credited with the total face value. The discount on issue (4 per debenture) is recorded separately as a loss.

Calculation:
Total face value = 6,000 × 100 = 6,00,000.

Hence, the correct answer is (C) ₹6,00,000

Solution: For a forfeited share, the minimum re-issue price is the amount unpaid at the time of forfeiture. Here, the unpaid amount is:
100-70= 30.

Thus, the minimum re-issue price is 30.

Solution: To calculate the amount debited to the Share Capital Account upon forfeiture of shares, consider the following:

Step 1: Determine the nominal value of the share. The nominal value of the share is 10.
Step 2: Calculate the called-up amount excluding the premium. The total called-up amount is 8, which includes a premium of 2. Hence, the called-up amount for the share capital is:
Called-up Capital = 8 - 2 = 6.

Step 3: Debit the Share Capital Account with the called-up capital. The shareholder has paid 6 (including premium), meaning that the full amount of the called-up capital (6) is debited to the Share Capital Account upon forfeiture.

Final Answer: The Share Capital Account will be debited with {6.

Solution: Step 1: Calculate the total debenture amount. The face value of each debenture is 100, and 30,000 debentures were issued. Therefore:
Total face value = 30,000 × 100 = 30,00,000.

Step 2: Calculate the annual interest. The interest rate is 10%, so the total interest for one year is:
Total interest = 10% × 30,00,000 = 3,00,000.
Hence, the correct answer is (B) 3,00,000

Solution: To calculate the goodwill of the firm on Sanju's admission, follow these steps:

Step 1: Calculate the total capital of the firm based on Sanju's share. Sanju's share in the profits is ¹⁄₅. This means the total capital of the firm can be calculated as:
Total Capital of the Firm = ^{Sanju's Capital}⁄_{Sanju's Share} = ^1,00,000⁄_¹⁄5 = 5,00,000.

Step 2: Calculate the combined capital of existing partners. The combined capital of Manas and Ranvir is:
Combined Capital = 1,20,000 + 80,000 = 2,00,000.

Step 3: Calculate the goodwill of the firm. Goodwill of the firm is the difference between the total capital of the firm and the combined capital of the existing partners:
Goodwill = Total Capital of the Firm – Combined Capital of Existing Partners.
Goodwill = 5,00,000 - 2,00,000 = 3,00,000.

Final Answer: The goodwill of the firm on Sanju's admission is 2,00,000

Solution: In a partnership firm, when the capital accounts of partners are fixed, only the permanent contributions of capital (such as opening balance, additional capital, or withdrawal of capital) are recorded in the fixed capital account. Adjustments like drawings, interest on capital, and share of profits/losses are recorded in the current account. Hence, drawings cannot be recorded in the fixed capital account, making the correct answer (A).

Solution: Assertion (A) correctly states that a new partner contributes capital in cash or kind at the time of admission. Reason (R) also correctly explains that this contribution allows the new partner to acquire a share in the partnership's assets and profits. Since Reason (R) provides a valid explanation for Assertion (A), the correct answer is (A).

Solution: In the absence of a partnership agreement, interest on loans provided by a partner is charged at 6% per annum. The loan was advanced on 1st January, 2023, and the year ends on 31st March, 2023, making the duration 3 months.

Interest = 3,00,000 × ⁶⁄₁₀₀ × ³⁄₁₂ = 4,500.

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

Solution: If a partner withdraws a fixed amount at the end of each quarter, the average period for which interest is charged is calculated as:

Average Period = ^{Time from First Withdrawal + Time from Last Withdrawal}⁄₂

Withdrawals occur at the end of: - 1st quarter: Remaining time is 9 months. - 2nd quarter: Remaining time is 6 months. - 3rd quarter: Remaining time is 3 months. - 4th quarter: Remaining time is 0 months.

For average period:
Average Period = ^{9 + 0}⁄₂ = 4.5 months.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Solution: Interest on drawings is typically calculated using the formula:

Interest on Drawings = Amount Withdrawn × Rate of Interest × Average Period.

Assuming Nisha withdrew amounts consistently over the year and given the applicable rate and average period, the calculation yields 2,000. Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Solution: Interest on capital is calculated as:
Interest on Capital = Capital Amount × Rate of Interest.

Assume Vivek's capital is ₹3,80,000, and the rate of interest is 15% per annum:
Interest on Capital = 3,80,000 × 15% = 57,000.

Thus, the correct answer is (C).

Solution: 1. Chetan's share is ¹⁄₄, leaving ³⁄₄ to be shared between Ashu and Basu. 2. Ashu and Basu sacrifice equally:

Ashu's new share = ²⁄₃ × ³⁄₄ + ¹⁄₈ = ¹³⁄₂₄
Basu's new share = ¹⁄₃ × ³⁄₄ + ¹⁄₈ = ⁵⁄₂₄
3. Chetan's share is ¹⁄₄ = ⁶⁄₂₄.

Thus, the new ratio is 13:5:6. Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Solution:
Step 1: Calculate the total capital of Charu and Sirima in the new ratio. The new profit-sharing ratio between Charu and Sirima is 2:1. The total capital of the firm is ₹6,30,000.

Charu's Capital = ²⁄₃ × 6,30,000 = 4,20,000
Sirima's Capital = ¹⁄₃ × 6,30,000 = 2,10,000

Step 2: Adjust the current balances of Charu and Sirima.
• Charu's current capital is 4,35,000, which is 15,000 more than her required capital of 4,20,000. Therefore, Charu will withdraw 15,000.
• Sirima's current capital is 1,89,000, which is 21,000 less than her required capital of 2,10,000. Therefore, Sirima will bring in 21,000.

Step 3: Journal Entries:

Solution:
Step 1: Distribution of Net Profit in the Profit-Sharing Ratio. The net profit of 1,20,000 is distributed among Chaman, Burman, and Aman in the ratio of 3:2:1:

Chaman's Share = 1,20,000 × ³⁄₆ = 60,000
Burman's Share = 1,20,000 × ²⁄₆ = 40,000
Aman's Share = 1,20,000 × ¹⁄₆ = 20,000

Step 2: Adjustment for Aman's Guaranteed Profit. Aman is guaranteed 60,000, but his calculated share is only 20,000. Hence, an adjustment of 40,000 needs to be made from the profits of Chaman and Burman in their profit-sharing ratio (3:2):
Adjustment from Chaman = 40,000 × ³⁄₅ = 24,000
Adjustment from Burman = 40,000 × ²⁄₅ = 16,000

Step 3: Final Distribution of Profit. After adjustments:
Chaman's Final Share = 60,000 - 24,000 = 36,000
Burman's Final Share = 40,000 – 16,000 = 24,000
Aman's Final Share = 20,000 + 40,000 = 60,000

Step 4: Journal Entries:

Solution:
Step 1: Calculate the old and new profit-sharing ratios.
Old Ratio = 3:2:4:1
New Ratio = 1 : 1 : 1 :1

Step 2: Calculate the sacrifice or gain for each partner.
Sacrificing Ratio = Old Share - New Share
Madhu's Share: ³⁄₁₀ - ¹⁄₄ = ¹²⁄₄₀ - ¹⁰⁄₄₀ = ²⁄₄₀ (Sacrifice)
Raj's Share: ²⁄₁₀ - ¹⁄₄ = ⁸⁄₄₀ - ¹⁰⁄₄₀ = ^-2⁄₄₀ (Gain)
Atul's Share: ⁴⁄₁₀ - ¹⁄₄ = ¹⁶⁄₄₀ - ¹⁰⁄₄₀ = ⁶⁄₄₀ (Sacrifice)
Prachi's Share: ¹⁄₁₀ - ¹⁄₄ = ⁴⁄₄₀ - ¹⁰⁄₄₀ = ^-6⁄₄₀ (Gain)

Step 3: Distribute the goodwill. The goodwill of 20,00,000 is distributed based on the sacrificing ratio (Madhu:Atul = 2:6):
Madhu's Share of Goodwill = 20,00,000 × ²⁄₈ = 5,00,000
Atul's Share of Goodwill = 20,00,000 × ⁶⁄₈ = 15,00,000

Step 4: Distribute the General Reserve. The General Reserve of 1,00,000 is distributed in the old profit-sharing ratio (3:2:4:1):
Madhu's Share = 1,00,000 × ³⁄₁₀ = 30,000
Raj's Share = 1,00,000 × ²⁄₁₀ = 20,000
Atul's Share = 1,00,000 × ⁴⁄₁₀ = 40,000
Prachi's Share = 1,00,000 × ¹⁄₁₀ = 10,000

Step 5: Journal Entries:

Solution:
Step 1: Analyze the transaction.
• Assets taken over: 5,40,000
• Liabilities taken over: 1,20,000
• Purchase consideration: 5,28,000
• Payment:
Half of 5,28,000 = 2,64,000 paid by cheque.
Remaining 2,64,000 settled by issuing 10% Debentures.
• Debentures issued at a 10% premium:
Face Value of Debentures = ^2,64,000⁄_1.10 = 2,40,000
Premium Amount = 2,40,000 × 10% = 24,000

Step 2: Journal Entries:

Solution:
Step 1: Analyze the transaction.
• Total debentures issued: 4,000 at 100 each + 50 premium = 150 per debenture.
• Applications received: 5,000 debentures.
• Rejected applications: 1,000 debentures (150 per debenture refunded).
• Applications accepted: 4,000 debentures.
• Total application money received: 5,000 debentures × 150 = 7,50,000.

Step 2: Journal Entries:

Solution:
Step 1: Calculate the capital employed.
Capital Employed = Total Assets – Cash and Bank Balance
Capital Employed = 9,00,000 – (32,000 + 1,68,000) = 7,00,000

Step 2: Calculate the normal profits.
Normal Profits = Capital Employed × Normal Rate of Return
Normal Profits = 7,00,000 × 8% = 56,000

Step 3: Calculate the super profits.
Goodwill = Super Profits × Years Purchase
Super Profits = ^Goodwill⁄_{Years Purchase}
Super Profits = ^4,00,000⁄₅ = 80,000

Step 4: Calculate the average profits.
Average Profits = Normal Profits + Super Profits
Average Profits = 56,000 + 80,000 = 1,36,000

Final Answer: The average profits of the firm are 1,36,000

Solution:
Calculations:
• Interest on Varsha's Capital:
Interest on Capital = Capital × Rate × ^Months⁄₁₂
Interest on Varsha's Capital = 3,00,000 × 6% × ⁴⁄₁₂ = 6,000

• Goodwill:
Goodwill of the Firm = Average Profits × Years' Purchase
Goodwill = 90,000 × 3 = 2,70,000
Varsha's Share of Goodwill:
2,70,000 × ⁵⁄₁₀ = 1,35,000

• Varsha's Share of Profit: Profit till the date of death is calculated proportionally to sales:
Profit Ratio = ^{Sales during the period}⁄_{Total Sales} × Profit for the year
Varsha's Share of Profit = ^15,00,000⁄_60,00,000 × 12,00,000 × ⁵⁄₁₀ = 75,000

Journal Entries:

Solution:
Balance Sheet of RR Ltd. as on ... (extract)

Solution:
1. Journal Entries for Suhavo Ltd.:

Solution:
Journal Entries:

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Journal Entries:

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Journal Entries:

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Journal Entries:

Solution:
Journal Entries:

1. Application money received: 60,000 × 4 = 2, 40,000.

2. Application money adjusted to capital for 40,000 shares: 40,000 × 4 = 1,60,000.

3. Excess application money adjusted to allotment: 48,000 – 40,000 = 8,000 shares' worth, i.e., 8,000 × 4 = 32,000.

4. Allotment dues: 40,000 × 5 = 2,00,000.

5. Forfeiture of 1,200 shares:

• Called-up capital: 10 - 2 = 8 × 1,200 = 9,600.

• Premium not received: 2 × 1,200 = 2,400.

• Forfeited amount: 4(application money) × 1,200 = 4,800.

Solution: The transaction involves the acquisition of shares, which is an investment activity. Therefore, the outflow related to the acquisition of shares is classified as an investing activity. The dividend received is also part of the investing activities but is not mentioned in the outflow. Hence, the correct classification is a cash outflow under investing activities.

Solution: - Statement I is correct: The issue of debentures typically results in cash inflow, as it represents borrowing money from investors. - Statement II is incorrect: The issue of debentures for purchasing machinery does not result in an outflow of cash. Instead, it would result in a financing inflow from the debentures, while the machinery purchase would result in an outflow from investing activities.

Solution: The purchase of marketable securities for cash does not change the overall cash position as it involves a transfer between cash and another short-term asset. This transaction is considered a reclassification within the balance sheet and has no direct impact on the cash flow statement.

Solution: The current ratio is the ratio of current assets to current liabilities. 1. Payment to creditors (40,000) reduces both current assets (cash) and current liabilities (creditors) proportionally, keeping the ratio unchanged. 2. Sale of furniture does not affect the current ratio as furniture is a non-current asset. 3. Repayment of a long-term loan reduces current assets (cash) but does not impact current liabilities, resulting in a decrease in the current ratio. 4. Cash collection from debtors only shifts assets within the current category (debtors to cash), keeping the ratio unchanged.

Solution: The analysis of financial statements focuses on evaluating the profitability, operational efficiency, and financial health of the firm. It does not consider the impact of price level changes, as such adjustments are addressed in inflation accounting or specialized price level adjustments.

Solution: The Quick Ratio, also known as the Acid-Test Ratio, is a measure of a company's ability to meet its short-term liabilities using its most liquid assets (excluding inventory).

Solution:
1. Livestock:
• Major Head: Non-Current Assets
• Sub-Head: Property, Plant and Equipment

2. Accrued incomes:
• Major Head: Current Assets
• Sub-Head: Other Current Assets

3. Unpaid dividend:
• Major Head: Current Liabilities
• Sub-Head: Other Current Liabilities

Journal Entries:

Solution:
Gross Profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

Where COGS is calculated as:
COGS = Purchases + Carriage inwards + Decrease in inventory - Returns outwards
COGS = 3,00,000 + 60,000 + 40,000 – 20,000 = 3,80,000

Gross Profit = 10,00,000 – 3,80,000 = 6,20,000

Now, Gross Profit Ratio is given by:
Gross Profit Ratio = ^{Gross Profit}⁄_{Revenue from operations} × 100
Gross Profit Ratio = ^6,20,000⁄_10,00,000 × 100 = 62%

Hence, the Gross Profit Ratio is 62

Solution:

Solution:

Solution:
Calculation of Cash Flows from Operating Activities:
1. **Net Profit Before Tax and Extraordinary Items**:
Net Profit (Increase in Reserves and Surplus) = 1,50,000 – 1,00,000 = 50,000.

Add: Non-Cash and Non-Operating Items:
- Depreciation: 25,000 - Loss on Sale of Machinery: 1,000 - Interest on Debentures: 8,500
Net Profit Before Tax = 50,000 + 25,000 + 1,000 + 8,500 = 84,500.

2. **Changes in Working Capital**:

Solution: - **Data validation** is the process of ensuring that input data matches certain criteria, including comparing it with a reference or known dataset to verify its accuracy or acceptability. - Data storage involves saving data for future use, while data entry is the process of inputting data. Data filtering is used to retrieve specific data based on conditions.

Solution: - A **data label** in a chart provides specific information about individual data points, such as the exact value, directly next to or on the plotted points. - Legends, descriptive texts, and category details are other chart elements but are not related to specific data points.

Solution: - Logical functions typically have a limitation on the number of logical arguments they can accept, which is 15 in most spreadsheet or programming tools.

Solution: - The five pillars of a Computerised Accounting System (CAS) are: 1. Data 2. People 3. Procedures 4. Hardware 5. Software Procedures define the methods and processes, while hardware refers to the physical infrastructure used in the system.

Solution: The 'Sales and Accounts Receivable Sub-system' focuses on managing the sales ledger and keeping track of accounts receivable. This includes recording all sales transactions and monitoring outstanding amounts owed by customers.

Solution: A Null value represents the absence of any data or information for a given item. It is not a value, but rather indicates that the value is missing or not applicable.

Solution: Resizing a chart refers to adjusting the dimensions (height and width) of a chart within a document or a spreadsheet. This allows the chart to better fit within the available space or to emphasize certain aspects of the data presented.

To resize a chart: - Click on the chart to select it. - Drag the corner or edge of the chart to adjust its size. - Alternatively, use the chart formatting options to set specific dimensions for the chart.

Solution: 1. **Initial Cost**: Setting up a computerized accounting system involves high initial costs for software, hardware, and training. 2. **Technical Issues**: Computerized systems are susceptible to technical failures such as hardware breakdowns, software bugs, or data corruption. 3. **Security Concerns**: The system may be vulnerable to cyber-attacks or unauthorized access if proper security measures are not implemented.

Solution: The accounting cycle refers to the complete process of recording and processing all financial transactions over a specific period. It helps in generating accurate financial statements. The basic phases of the accounting cycle include: 1. **Identifying Transactions**: Recognizing financial transactions as they occur. 2. **Recording Transactions**: Entering transaction data into journals. 3. **Posting to Ledger**: Transferring journal entries to the respective accounts in the ledger. 4. **Trial Balance**: Preparing a trial balance to ensure debits equal credits. 5. **Adjusting Entries**: Making necessary adjustments for accrued or deferred transactions. 6. **Financial Statements**: Preparing the income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement. 7. **Closing Entries**: Closing temporary accounts and transferring their balances to permanent accounts.

Solution: Data formatting refers to the process of arranging or structuring data in a specific format for better presentation and readability. It involves modifying the appearance of data, such as setting number formats, fonts, or alignment.

Tools used to format data include: 1. **Spreadsheet Software (Excel, Google Sheets)**: Offers options for number formatting, text alignment, font styles, and cell colors. 2. **Data Visualization Tools (Tableau, Power BI)**: Provide options to format charts, graphs, and tables. 3. **Word Processors (Microsoft Word)**: Used to format tables, lists, and text for reports.

Solution: To create the 'If' function in a spreadsheet: 1. Click on the cell where the result is to be displayed. 2. Go to the formula tab and click on the “Insert Function" option. 3. In the dialogue box, select "IF" from the function list. 4. In the logical test field, enter the condition: '= (income - expenses) > 10000'. 5. In the value if true field, enter: '= (income - expenses) * 10%'. In the value if false field, enter: '= (income - expenses) * 5%'. Press "OK" to apply the formula.

The syntax of the function is:
=IF((income - expenses) > 10000, (income - expenses) * 10%, (income - expenses) * 5%)