CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 1 Question Paper PDF (57/1/1) is now available for download. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Biology examination on March 19, 2024, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The question paper consists of 33 questions carrying a total of 70 marks. Section A includes 16 MCQs for 1 mark each, Section B contains 5 very short-answer questions for 2 marks each, Section C comprises 7 short-answer questions for 3 marks each, Section D comprises 2 Case-based questions carries 4 marks each and Section E comprises 3 long-answer questions carries 5 marks each.
Candidates can use the link below to download the CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 1 Question Paper with detailed solutions.
CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper 2024 (Set 1- 57/1/1) with Answer Key
| CBSE Class 12 2024 Biology Question Paper with Answer Key | Check Solution |
CBSE Class 12 2024 Biology Questions with Solutions
SECTION A
Question 1:
In which of the following plants are both male and female flowers born on the same plant, and the mode of pollination can be geitonogamy or xenogamy?
View Solution
Solution: Plants in which both male and female flowers are borne on the same plant are called monoecious plants. Maize is a monoecious plant. Geitonogamy occurs when pollen grains are transferred between flowers on the same plant. Xenogamy occurs when pollen is transferred between flowers of different plants. Maize shows both these modes of pollination.
Question 2:
Which one of the following hormones is secreted by the human placenta that helps in the maintenance of pregnancy?
View Solution
Solution: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone secreted by the placenta. It supports pregnancy by maintaining the corpus luteum and the production of progesterone during early pregnancy. Relaxin is produced in the later stages of pregnancy to relax the pelvic muscles. Oxytocin is responsible for uterine contractions during labor. Human Placental Lactogen supports fetal growth and metabolism but does not directly maintain pregnancy.
Question 3:
The periodic abstinence by a couple for family planning should be from:
View Solution
Solution: Periodic abstinence involves avoiding sexual intercourse during the fertile period of the menstrual cycle to prevent pregnancy. The fertile period typically falls around ovulation, which occurs approximately on Day 14 in a 28-day cycle. To account for variations in ovulation, abstinence is advised from Day 10 to 17 when the chances of fertilization are highest.
Question 4:
Select the incorrect match from the following:
| Human Karyotype | Characters |
|---|---|
| 45 + XX | Broad palm with characteristic palm crease |
| 44 + XXY | Overall feminine development |
| 44 + XO | Sterile females as ovaries are rudimentary |
| 44 + XY | Normal male |
View Solution
Solution: (A) 45 + XX: Refers to Down Syndrome, characterized by physical features like broad palms and creased palms.
(B) 44 + XXY: Incorrect. This karyotype corresponds to Klinefelter Syndrome, where males exhibit partial masculine development, not feminine development.
(C) 44 + XO: Refers to Turner Syndrome, where females are sterile due to rudimentary ovaries.
(D) 44 + XY: Refers to normal males.
Question 5:
You know that there are twenty different types of naturally occurring amino acids and four different types of bases in the DNA. A combination of 3 such bases codes for a specific amino acid. If instead there are 96 different amino acids and 12 different bases in the DNA, then the minimum number of combination of bases required to form a codon is:
View Solution
Solution: To determine the minimum number of base combinations required to code for 96 different amino acids, we can use the formula for the number of possible combinations:
Number of combinations = (Number of bases)Number of bases per codon
For the given case: We know that there are 12 different types of bases in the DNA. We need to determine how many bases per codon are required to create at least 96 different amino acids.
Let n be the number of bases required per codon. The number of possible codons will be 12n, and we want this to be at least 96.
12n > 96
Now we calculate the powers of 12:
121 = 12
122 = 144
Thus, 122 = 144 is greater than 96, so the minimum number of bases per codon required is 2.
Question 6:
The type of bond represented by the dotted line in a schematic polynucleotide chain is:

View Solution
Solution: In a polynucleotide chain, the dotted line represents the bond between the nitrogenous base (B) and the sugar (S). This bond is known as an N-glycosidic linkage. It connects the 1' carbon of the pentose sugar to the nitrogen atom of the nitrogenous base.
Other bonds in the polynucleotide structure:
• Phosphodiester bond: Links the sugar molecules of adjacent nucleotides.
• Hydrogen bond: Occurs between complementary nitrogenous bases in double-stranded DNA.
• Peptide bond: Found in proteins, not in polynucleotides.
Question 7:
In which of the following conditions/diseases is there a substantial increase in the activity of mast cells observed in the human body?
View Solution
Solution: Mast cells play a key role in allergic reactions. They release histamine and other chemicals during allergic responses, leading to symptoms like itching, swelling, and redness. Diseases like typhoid, ascariasis, or AIDS are not related to mast cell activation.
Question 8:
Lactobacillus that sets milk into curd is categorised as:
View Solution
Solution: Lactobacillus is a heterotrophic bacterium as it relies on organic substances (milk) for energy. It converts lactose in milk to lactic acid, setting the milk into curd.
Question 9:
Which one of the following transgenic animals is being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine?
View Solution
Solution: Transgenic mice are genetically modified to express human genes. They are widely used for testing the safety and efficacy of vaccines, including the polio vaccine.
Question 10:
Restriction Endonuclease – Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of:
View Solution
Solution: Hind II recognizes specific palindromic sequences in DNA consisting of 6 base pairs and cleaves precisely at this point.
Question 11:
The improved trait found in the genetically modified transgenic crop – Golden rice is:
View Solution
Solution: Golden rice is genetically modified to biosynthesize beta-carotene, a precursor of vitamin A, in the endosperm, addressing vitamin A deficiency.
Question 12:
The rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers, and the biomass available for consumption of herbivores as well as decomposers, are referred to as:
View Solution
Solution:
• Gross primary productivity (GPP): Total energy captured by autotrophs.
• Secondary productivity: Biomass formed by consumers from the organic matter consumed.
Question 13:
Assertion (A): The laws of our country permit legal adoption, and it is as yet, one of the best methods for childless couples looking for parenthood.
Reason (R): Emotional, religious, and social factors are no deterrents to the legal adoption of orphaned and destitute children in India.
View Solution
Solution: The laws of India permit legal adoption, making it one of the best options for childless couples. However, emotional, religious, and social factors often act as deterrents to the adoption of children, especially in conservative settings.
Question 14:
Assertion (A): Linked genes do not show dihybrid F2 ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
Reason (R): Linked genes do not undergo independent assortment.
View Solution
Solution: Linked genes are inherited together because they are located on the same chromosome. They do not follow Mendel's law of independent assortment, which is why the dihybrid F2 ratio 9:3:3:1 is not observed.
Question 15:
Assertion (A): Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of several monocot plants.
Reason (R): It is able to deliver a piece of DNA known as ‘T-DNA' to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
View Solution
Solution: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is primarily a pathogen of dicot plants, not monocots. However, it does deliver T-DNA into the host plant genome, causing the formation of crown gall tumors.
Question 16:
Assertion (A): Indian Government has set up an organisation known as GEAC to decide the validity of GM research.
Reason (R): Genetic modification of organisms has no effect when such organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.
View Solution
Solution: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) evaluates and monitors genetically modified organisms (GMOs) for research and release. However, genetic modification can significantly affect ecosystems when GMOs are introduced due to possible crossbreeding or ecological imbalance.
SECTION B
Question 17:
Identify A, B, C, and D in the table given below:
| Terms | Part of the plant it represents |
|---|---|
| Pericarp | A |
| B | Cotyledon in seed of grass family |
| Embryonal axis | C |
| D | Remains of nucellus in a seed |
A: Fruit wall
B: Scutellum
C: Plumule and radicle
D: Perisperm
View Solution
Solution:
• Pericarp (A): The fruit wall derived from the ovary wall.
• Scutellum (B): A specialized cotyledon found in monocot seeds (grasses).
• Embryonal axis (C): Includes the plumule (shoot) and radicle (root).
• Remains of nucellus (D): Called the perisperm in mature seeds.
Question 18:
Observe the picture given below.

Name the naturalist and write the explanation given by him that evolution of life forms had occurred on the basis of this example.
View Solution
Solution:
Naturalist: Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
Solution: Lamarck explained evolution through the theory of Use and Disuse and Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics. He suggested that giraffes evolved long necks by stretching to reach tall trees for food. This acquired trait was passed on to subsequent generations.
Question 19:
Write the basic steps followed in the Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) programme to help childless couples. Why is it also known as test tube baby programme?
View Solution
Solution:
Basic Steps in ART Programme:
1. Retrieval of eggs from the female and collection of sperm from the male.
2. Fertilization of the egg and sperm outside the body in a laboratory dish (in vitro fertilization).
3. Development of the fertilized egg (embryo) in a controlled environment.
4. Transfer of the embryo into the uterus for implantation and pregnancy.
Reason for Test Tube Baby Programme: The term “test tube baby" refers to the process of fertilization occurring outside the human body, typically in a laboratory setup, rather than a test tube.
Question 20(a):
A farmer while working on his farm was bitten by a poisonous snake. He was rushed to a nearby health centre where the doctor gave him an injection to save his life.
(i) What did the doctor inject and why?
(ii) Name the kind of immunity provided by this injection.
View Solution
Solution:
(i) The doctor injected anti-venom serum. This contains pre-formed antibodies that neutralize the snake venom, providing immediate relief and preventing further damage.
(ii) The immunity provided by this injection is passive immunity, as the antibodies are directly administered rather than being produced by the body.
Question 20(b):
Why do organic farmers not recommend complete eradication of insect pests? Explain giving reason.
View Solution
Solution: Organic farmers discourage complete eradication of insect pests because:
1. Ecological Balance: Insects play a role in the food chain and biodiversity. Their complete eradication can disrupt the balance.
2. Natural Pest Control: Some pests attract their predators, which naturally control pest populations, reducing the need for chemical interventions.
Question 21:
Study the diagram of a pyramid of biomass given below.

Name the two standing crops that could be occupying level 'A' and level ‘B' in it. Name this type of pyramid and the ecosystem in which it is found.
View Solution
Solution:
• Level A: Zooplankton (Primary Consumers)
• Level B: Phytoplankton (Primary Producers)
Type of Pyramid: Inverted Pyramid of Biomass.
Ecosystem: Found in an aquatic ecosystem.
In such ecosystems, the biomass of primary producers (phytoplankton) is lower than that of primary consumers (zooplankton) at any given time. This is because phytoplankton reproduce rapidly and are consumed quickly by zooplankton.
SECTION C
Question 22:
Explain the mode of action of contraceptive pills taken by human females. Mention the schedule to be followed for an effective outcome.
View Solution
Solution:
Mode of Action:
1. Contraceptive pills contain synthetic hormones (estrogen and progesterone) that prevent ovulation by inhibiting the secretion of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland.
2. They thicken cervical mucus, making it difficult for sperm to enter the uterus.
3. They alter the endometrial lining, preventing implantation of a fertilized egg.
Schedule for Effective Outcome:
• Pills should be taken daily for 21 days starting from the 5th day of the menstrual cycle, followed by a 7-day gap during which withdrawal bleeding occurs.
Question 23(a):
Name and write two characteristics of the type of DNA that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting technique.
View Solution
Solution:
• Type of DNA: Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) or Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs).
• Characteristics:
1. They are non-coding, repetitive sequences of DNA.
2. They show high polymorphism, making them unique to each individual (except identical twins).
Question 23(b):
Mention any two applications of this technique.
View Solution
Solution:
1. Forensic Science: Used for identification in criminal investigations.
2. Paternity Testing: Determines biological relationships.
Question 24(a):
Explain the significance of the experiment carried out by S.L. Miller. Name the scientists whose hypothesis prompted him to carry out this experiment.
View Solution
Solution:
Significance of Miller's Experiment:
• Demonstrated that organic molecules like amino acids could be synthesized abiotically under conditions resembling early Earth's atmosphere.
• Supported the theory that life originated from simple organic compounds.
• Scientists: The experiment was based on the hypothesis of Alexander Oparin and J.B.S. Haldane.
Question 24(b):
How does meteorite analysis favour this hypothesis?
View Solution
Solution: Meteorite analysis revealed the presence of simple organic compounds, such as amino acids, on extraterrestrial objects. This suggests that organic molecules can form naturally, supporting the idea of abiotic synthesis.
Question 25:
Identify A, B, C, D, E, and F in the table given below:
| Name of Human Disease | Causative Organism | Symptoms |
|---|---|---|
| Pneumonia | Streptococcus | A |
| Typhoid | B | High fever, weakness, headache, stomach pain |
| Common Cold | Rhino virus | C |
| Ringworm | D | Dry scaly lesions on body parts, redness, itching |
| Ascariasis | Ascaris | E |
| F | Entamoeba histolytica | Constipation, cramps, stools with mucous and blood clots |
A: Breathing difficulty, cough, and chest pain
B: Salmonella typhi
C: Nasal congestion, sore throat, cough
D: Trichophyton
E: Internal bleeding, muscular pain, anemia
F: Amoebiasis
View Solution
Solution:
• Pneumonia symptoms: A include breathing difficulty, cough, and chest pain.
• Typhoid causative organism: B is Salmonella typhi.
• Common cold symptoms: C include nasal congestion, sore throat, and cough.
• Ringworm causative organism: D is Trichophyton.
• Ascariasis symptoms: E include internal bleeding, muscular pain, and anemia.
• F: Disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica is Amoebiasis.
Question 26:
In a family, the father, the daughter, and the son are colour blind, whereas the mother has normal vision. Do you think the son and daughter have inherited the disease from their father? Work out a cross to justify your answer.
View Solution
Solution: Colour blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. Males inherit the X chromosome from their mother, while females inherit one X chromosome from each parent. The daughter inherits the Xc chromosome from her father and XC (normal) from her mother, making her a carrier. The son cannot inherit Xc from the father as he receives only the Y chromosome from him.
Cross:
Father (XcY) × Mother (XCXC)
Gametes: Xc, Y (Father) and XC, XC (Mother)
Offspring:
Daughter (XCXc) (Carrier)
Son (XCY) (Normal).
Hence, the son and daughter cannot inherit colour blindness from the father as it is X-linked.
Question 27(a)(i):
What are transgenic animals?
View Solution
Solution: Transgenic animals are those that have had foreign genes deliberately inserted into their genome. These genes are introduced to study gene functions, improve livestock traits, or produce biologically important substances.
Question 27(a)(ii):
Name the first transgenic cow and state its importance.
View Solution
Solution: The first transgenic cow is Rosie. Importance: Rosie produced milk enriched with the human protein alpha-lactalbumin, making it nutritionally more balanced for infants.
Question 27(b):
(i) Explain the convention for naming EcoRI.
(ii) With the help of an illustration only, show the action of EcoRI on a DNA Polynucleotide.
View Solution
Solution: (i) EcoRI:
1. "E" = Genus (Escherichia).
2. "co" = Species (coli).
3. "R" = Strain (RY13).
4. "I" = First identified enzyme from this strain.
(ii)
Question 28(a):
Explain how it is ensured that the orchid Ophrys is pollinated by a specific species of bee.
View Solution
Solution: The orchid Ophrys ensures pollination by mimicking the appearance and scent of a female bee. Male bees, attracted to the orchid, attempt to mate with it (pseudocopulation) and inadvertently carry pollen to other flowers.
Question 28(b):
Describe co-evolution with the help of this example.
View Solution
Solution: Co-evolution is the process where two or more species influence each other's evolution. In the case of Ophrys and its specific bee species, the orchid evolved to mimic the female bee, while the bee adapted to the orchid's mimicry.
SECTION E
Questions No. 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question has 3 sub-questions with internal choice in one sub-question. 29. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Question 29:
Isn't it incredible that India's land area is only 2.4 percent of the world's total land area whereas its share of the global species diversity is an impressive 8-1 percent! However, in these estimates of species, prokaryotes do not figure anywhere. Biologists are always keen on collecting data with respect to species diversity observed in different regions of the world. The data collected based on the survey conducted for species richness of groups of mammals in three different regions of the world is shown in the bar graph below.
(a) Why is the species richness maximum in Region III in the bar graph?
View Solution
Solution: Region III has maximum species richness due to: 1. Favourable climatic conditions such as tropical climate with high rainfall and temperature. 2. High resource availability and ecological niches supporting a large number of species.
(b) Why is the species richness minimum in Region I in the bar graph?
View Solution
Solution: Region I has minimum species richness because: 1. It likely represents a cold or arid climate, which is less suitable for supporting diverse life forms. 2. Limited resource availability and harsh environmental conditions restrict the number of species.
(c) Plants and animals do not have uniform diversity in the world but show rather uneven distribution. Mention what this kind of diversity is referred to as.
View Solution
Solution: This uneven distribution of species diversity is referred to as Beta Diversity. It reflects the variation in species composition between different ecosystems or regions.
(d) Why is it that prokaryotes do not have an estimated number of their species diversity as seen in plants and animals? Explain.
View Solution
Solution:
1. Prokaryotes lack morphological diversity, making species identification challenging.
2. Many prokaryotic species cannot be cultured in laboratories, limiting data collection.
3. Molecular techniques like DNA sequencing are required to identify them, which is time-consuming and resource-intensive.
Question 30:
Study the diagram given below that shows the steps involved in the procedure of selecting transformed bacteria and answer the questions that follow:

(a) Identify the colony that has got transformed. Justify your answer.
View Solution
Solution: The transformed colony is the one that grows on Plate M (with ampicillin) but does not grow on Plate N (with both ampicillin and tetracycline). Justification: The recombinant DNA disrupts the tetracycline resistance gene, making the bacteria sensitive to tetracycline, but retains ampicillin resistance, allowing growth on Plate M.
(b) What are the sites in a plasmid called where ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes are inserted? State their role in genetic engineering.
View Solution
Solution: The sites are called selectable marker sites. Role: These genes help in identifying and selecting transformed cells: Ampicillin resistance gene ensures growth on ampicillin-containing media. Tetracycline resistance gene helps distinguish recombinant bacteria (tetracycline-sensitive) from non-recombinant ones.
(c) Name two enzymes playing an important role in genetic engineering.
View Solution
Solution:
1. Restriction endonucleases: Cut DNA at specific sequences.
2. DNA ligase: Joins DNA fragments to form recombinant DNA.
OR
(c) State the role of β-galactosidase in insertional inactivation.
View Solution
Solution: Insertional inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene prevents the production of the enzyme, resulting in white colonies (instead of blue) on media with X-gal. This helps identify recombinant bacteria.
SECTION F
Question 31(a)(i):
Explain the development of male gametophyte in an angiosperm.
View Solution
Solution: The male gametophyte in angiosperms develops within the pollen grain:
1. Microspore Formation: Each microspore undergoes mitotic division to form a small generative cell and a larger vegetative cell.
2. Mature Pollen Grain: The generative cell divides mitotically to produce two male gametes, resulting in a three-celled structure (two male gametes + one vegetative cell).
Question 31(a)(ii):
Draw a labelled diagram of a three-celled male gametophyte. (Diagram skipped as requested.)
View Solution
Solution:


Question 31(b)(i) OR
Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of the ovary of a human female and label the following:
- Blood vessels
- Primary follicle
- Tertiary follicle
- Ovum
View Solution
Solution:


Question 31(b)(ii):
At which stage of life are primary follicles formed in a human female?
View Solution
Solution: Primary follicles are formed during the fetal stage of development in a female.
Question 31(b)(iii):
Explain the events (both hormonal and structural) that occur at the time of ovulation till the onset of the next menstrual cycle.
View Solution
Solution:
1. At Ovulation: Surge in LH (Luteinizing Hormone) leads to the rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of the ovum.
2. Post-Ovulation: The ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for implantation.
3. If Fertilization Does Not Occur: The corpus luteum degenerates, leading to a drop in progesterone levels. The endometrium breaks down, resulting in menstruation.
Question 32(a):
Stability, as one of the properties of genetic material, was very evident in one of the very early experiments in genetics. Name the scientist and describe his experiment. State the conclusion he arrived at.
View Solution
Solution:
• Scientist: Frederick Griffith
• Experiment:
1. He worked on Streptococcus pneumoniae (S strain = virulent, R strain = non-virulent).
2. Heat-killed S strain mixed with live R strain transformed R into a virulent S strain.
• Conclusion: A "transforming principle" (later identified as DNA) is responsible for genetic stability and transfer of traits.
Question 32(b) OR
A tall pea plant bearing violet flowers with unknown genotype is given. Find the genotype by working out different crosses by selfing the plants. Write the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of each cross shown by you.
View Solution
Solution:
1. Case 1: Homozygous (TTVV)
• Cross: TTVV × TTVV
• Genotypic ratio: 100% TTVV
• Phenotypic ratio: 100% Tall Violet
2. Case 2: Heterozygous (TtVv)
• Cross: TtVv × TtVv
• Genotypic ratio: 1:2:1 (TT:Tt:tt) for height, 1:2:1 (VV:Vv:vv) for color.
• Phenotypic ratio: 9:3:3:1 (Tall violet: Tall white: Dwarf violet: Dwarf white).
Question 33(a)(i):
Name and explain the property present in normal cells but lost in cancer cells.
View Solution
Solution: The property present in normal cells but lost in cancer cells is contact inhibition. Contact inhibition refers to the process where normal cells stop dividing when they come into contact with neighboring cells. This mechanism ensures that cells grow in an organized manner and maintain proper tissue structure. It prevents overgrowth and helps to regulate tissue size. In cancer cells, this property is lost, and they continue to divide uncontrollably, even when they come into contact with other cells. This uncontrolled division results in tumor formation and cancer progression.
Question 33(a)(ii):
All normal human cells have genes that may become cancerous under certain conditions. Name them and explain how.
View Solution
Solution: The genes that may become cancerous under certain conditions are oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes.
1. Oncogenes: Oncogenes are mutated forms of normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes normally promote cell growth and division. However, when mutated or overexpressed, they become oncogenes, leading to uncontrolled cell division and potentially causing cancer. Example: The Ras gene, when mutated, continuously signals the cell to divide, even when not needed, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation.
2. Tumor Suppressor Genes: Tumor suppressor genes are responsible for inhibiting cell growth and promoting the repair of damaged DNA or apoptosis (programmed cell death). If these genes are mutated or inactivated, cells can bypass growth control mechanisms and continue to divide. Example: The p53 gene is a critical tumor suppressor gene. When it is mutated, it fails to prevent the division of cells with damaged DNA, which can lead to cancer development.
Question 33(a)(iii):
State the role of the following techniques in the detection and diagnosis of cancer:
1. Biopsy and Histopathology
2. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
View Solution
Solution:
1. Biopsy and Histopathology: A biopsy involves removing a small sample of tissue from a suspected tumor or abnormal growth. The tissue is then examined under a microscope through histopathology. The role of biopsy and histopathology is essential for diagnosing cancer. They help identify the presence of cancerous cells, determine the type of cancer, and assess its stage and grade. This also provides critical information on the malignancy of the tumor and helps plan appropriate treatment options.
2. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): MRI is a non-invasive imaging technique that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of the inside of the body. It is especially useful in detecting soft tissue abnormalities such as brain, spinal cord, and breast cancers. The role of MRI in cancer diagnosis includes identifying and locating tumors, determining their size, and assessing whether cancer has spread to other parts of the body (metastasis). It is also used to monitor treatment progress and plan surgeries or radiation therapy.
Question 33(b) OR
Large quantities of sewage are generated every day in cities as well as in towns and are treated in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs) to make them less polluting. Given below is the flow diagram of stages of STP.
Study the flow diagram and answer the questions that follow:

(i) 1. Why is primary effluent passed into large aeration tanks?
View Solution
Solution: Primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks to increase the oxygen supply to the effluent. This helps in the growth of aerobic microorganisms that break down the organic matter in the sewage, converting it into simpler substances. The process of aeration encourages the growth of these microorganisms, which helps in reducing the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of the water, making it less polluting.
2. What is the ‘sediment’ formed referred to? Mention its significance.
View Solution
Solution: The sediment formed is called sludge. It consists of organic and inorganic matter that settles at the bottom of the settling tank. The significance of sludge is that it contains a high concentration of organic matter, which can be further processed to extract biogas or treated for use as fertilizer. Proper disposal of sludge is crucial for preventing environmental pollution.
3. Explain the final step in the settling tank before the treated effluent is released into water bodies.
View Solution
Solution: The final step involves the treatment of the effluent in the settling tank, where the remaining suspended particles, including microorganisms, are allowed to settle down. This is followed by the removal of the clear water (supernatant), which is relatively free from pollutants. This treated water is then released into water bodies. Further treatment may be performed, depending on the quality of the effluent.
(ii) Name any two organisms commonly used as biofertilizers, belonging to different kingdoms. Write how each one acts as a biofertilizer.
View Solution
Solution:
• Rhizobium (Kingdom: Bacteria): Rhizobium is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms a symbiotic relationship with leguminous plants. It helps in fixing atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the plants can use for growth, thereby acting as a natural fertilizer.
• Azotobacter (Kingdom: Bacteria): Azotobacter is a free-living nitrogen-fixing bacterium found in soil. It helps in fixing nitrogen from the atmosphere and making it available to plants, improving soil fertility. Unlike Rhizobium, Azotobacter does not form symbiotic relationships with plants but independently fixes nitrogen.







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