CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper 2024 PDF (Set 2- 58/5/2) is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Economics exam on March 18, 2024 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 80. The question paper will contain 20% MCQ-based questions, 40% competency-based questions, and 40% short and long answer type questions. Candidates can use the link below to download the CBSE Class 12 Economics Set 2 Question Paper with detailed solutions.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper 2024 (Set 2- 58/5/2) with Answer Key

CBSE Class 12 2024 Economics Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

CBSE Class 12 2024 Economics Questions with Solutions

SECTION A
Macro Economics

Question 1:

“Mr. Sahotra borrowed funds from bank for purchasing a new house." From the above statement, identify the indicated function of money:

  1. Medium of exchange
  2. Store of value
  3. Unit of account
  4. Standard of deferred payments
Correct Answer: (4) Standard of deferred payments
View Solution

Solution: The function of money in this context is the Standard of deferred payments, as Mr. Sahotra is borrowing funds for a future purchase. Money is being used as a means to make payments over time rather than immediately, which is the essence of deferred payments.

Conclusion: In this case, money serves the function of deferred payments, allowing Mr. Sahotra to repay the loan over time for his house.


Question 2:

If in an economy the initial deposits are Rs.4,000 crore and Reserve Ratio (RR) is 10 percent. The value of total deposit created would be Rs. _____ crore.

  1. 4,000
  2. 40,000
  3. 2,000
  4. 20,000
Correct Answer: (2) 40,000
View Solution

Solution: The total deposit created in the banking system is given by the formula:
Total Deposits = Initial DepositsReserve Ratio

Substituting the given values:
Total Deposits = 40000.10 = 40,000

Conclusion: The total deposit created would be Rs.40,000 crore due to the 10 percent reserve ratio.


Question 3:

Identify which of the following is not considered as ‘Normal Resident' of India?

  1. An Indian citizen working in U.S.A. embassy located at New Delhi.
  2. An Indian official working in the Indian embassy in China.
  3. An Indian diplomat visiting Canada for a summit.
  4. An Indian working in an American Company located in New York for a period of more than 1 year.
Correct Answer: (4) An Indian working in an American Company located in New York for a period of more than 1 year.
View Solution

Solution: - Normal Resident:
A normal resident of India is defined as someone who resides in India for at least 182 days during the last financial year.
- Option (D): An Indian citizen working abroad for more than 1 year is not considered a normal resident of India, as they are considered a non-resident for tax and other economic purposes.

Conclusion: Option (D) is the correct answer as it represents someone working abroad for an extended period, thus not a "normal resident” of India.


Question 4:

Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Ex-post savings and Ex-post investments are equal at all levels of income.
Statement 2: Under the effective demand principle, the equilibrium output is equal to ex-ante Aggregate Demand (AD).
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:

  1. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  2. Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  3. Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
  4. Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
View Solution

Solution:
- Statement 1 is true: Ex-post savings and investments are equal because savings always equal investment in an economy when accounting for all income. The total savings will be used for investments.
- Statement 2 is true: Under the effective demand principle, the equilibrium output is determined when ex-ante Aggregate Demand (AD) equals actual output, i.e., the economy is at full employment.

Conclusion: Both statements are correct: Ex-post savings and investment are equal, and the equilibrium output is determined by ex-ante Aggregate Demand.


Question 5:

In a hypothetical economy, if entire additional income is consumed, the value of investment multiplier would be _____
(Fill up the blank with the correct alternative.)

  1. One (1)
  2. Zero (0)
  3. Between zero (0) and one (1)
  4. Infinity
Correct Answer: (4) Infinity
View Solution

Solution: - The investment multiplier is calculated as 11-MPC, where MPC is the marginal propensity to consume.
- If the entire income is consumed, the MPC = 1, leading to an infinite multiplier because 11-1 = ∞.
- Hence, the value of the investment multiplier in this case is infinity.

Conclusion: When all additional income is consumed, the investment multiplier becomes infinite because every increase in income leads to an equivalent increase in consumption, stimulating constant economic growth.


Question 6:

From the given table, identify that level of income, where Average Propensity to Save (APS) becomes zero:

Income (Rs. crore) Consumption (Rs. crore)
0 50
50 75
100 100
200 150
300 200
400 250
  1. 50
  2. 100
  3. 200
  4. 0
Correct Answer: (2) 100
View Solution

Solution: The Average Propensity to Save (APS) is calculated as:
APS = SavingsIncome = Income – ConsumptionIncome
At Income = 100 crore, consumption is also 100 crore. Hence, savings will be zero:
Savings = Income – Consumption = 100 - 100 = 0
Thus, APS = 0 when income is 100 crore.

Conclusion: The APS becomes zero at 100 crore income because savings equal zero when consumption is equal to income.


Question 7:

Identify, what does the shaded area (change in EFG), in the given figure indicate?

Change in EFG

I. Consumption > Income
II. Saving = Zero (0)
III. Consumption < Income
IV. Saving < Zero (0)

  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. III and IV
  4. I and IV
Correct Answer: (2) II and III or (3) III and IV
View Solution

Solution: The shaded area (EFG) typically represents a situation where savings are zero or negative, and consumption is either greater than or less than income:
- II: Saving = Zero (0): At the equilibrium point where consumption equals income, savings are zero.
- III: Consumption < Income: When the shaded area shows consumption below income, it indicates that savings are positive (but might be in a negative savings area in other sections).
Therefore, the correct options are (B) II and III or (C) III and IV.

Conclusion: The shaded area indicates either zero savings or a situation where consumption is less than income, leading to a negative savings situation.


Question 8:

The measurement of Balance of Payments deficit is based on —transactions.

  1. Autonomous
  2. Accommodating
  3. Current account
  4. Capital account
Correct Answer: (1) Autonomous
View Solution

Solution: The Balance of Payments (BOP) deficit is primarily measured based on autonomous transactions, which are transactions conducted due to economic motives and not influenced by the country's monetary policies. Autonomous transactions include trade in goods and services, income payments, and capital movements.

Conclusion: The correct answer is (A), as BOP deficit is based on autonomous transactions.


Question 9:

From the following, identify the correct reasons that may affect the supply of foreign exchange in an economy:
I. Purchase of land in England by an Indian II. Foreign tourists visiting Taj Mahal III. Donation of 500 million dollars from Microsoft IV. Indian students going to Australia for studies

  1. I and II
  2. II and IV
  3. II and III
  4. I and IV
Correct Answer: (3) II and III
View Solution

Solution:
- Reason II (Foreign tourists visiting Taj Mahal) will bring foreign exchange into India as they spend money during their visit.
- Reason III (Donation of 500 million dollars from Microsoft) will also increase foreign exchange supply as it is an inflow of funds into the economy.

Conclusion: The correct answer is (C), as foreign tourists and donations will directly impact the supply of foreign exchange.


Question 10:

If in an economy the Balance of Trade is showing a deficit of Rs.200 crore and the value of import is Rs.900 crore, then the value of exports would be Rs.—-crore.
(Fill up the blank with the correct alternative.)

  1. 200
  2. 1100
  3. 700
  4. 900
Correct Answer: (3) 700
View Solution

Solution:
- The Balance of Trade (BOT) is calculated as Exports - Imports.
- Given that BOT = Rs.-200 crore and Imports = Rs.900 crore, we can use the formula:
Exports - Imports = BOT
Substituting the values:
Exports - 900 = -200
Solving for Exports:
Exports = 700

Conclusion: The value of exports required to maintain a balance of trade deficit of Rs.200 crore is Rs.700 crore.


Question 11(a):

Calculate Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) from the following data:

S.No. Particulars Amount (in Rs. lakh)
(i) Fixed capital goods (expected life span - 5 years) 15
(ii) Domestic Sales 200
(iii) Change in stock (-) 10
(iv) Exports 10
(v) Single use producer goods 120
(vi) Net indirect taxes 20
View Solution

Solution:

Depreciation on fixed capital goods = 155 = 3

Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC):

NVAFC = (ii) + (iii) + (iv) – (v) – Depreciation – (vi)

NVAFC = 200 + (-10) + 10 - 120 - 3 - 20 = Rs. 57 lakh


Question 11(b):

From the following data, estimate the value of Net Indirect Taxes (NIT):

S.No. Particulars Amount (in Rs. crore)
(i) Net National Product at Market Price (NNPMP) 1,400
(ii) Net Factor Income from abroad (-)20
(iii) Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNPFC) 1,300
(iv) Consumption of Fixed Capital 100
View Solution

Solution:

Net Indirect Taxes = (i) + (iv) – (iii)

Net Indirect Taxes = 1,400 + 100 – 1,300 = Rs. 200 crore


Question 12:

Define with suitable examples, autonomous transactions and accommodating transactions in the Balance of Payments of an economy.

View Solution

Solution:
In the Balance of Payments (BoP) of an economy, transactions are categorized into two types: autonomous transactions and accommodating transactions.

1. Autonomous Transactions:
• These are transactions that are undertaken for economic reasons such as profit maximization or trade promotion, independent of the BoP situation of a country.
• They are often called "above the line” transactions and are influenced by market forces.

Examples:
• Exports and imports of goods and services.
• Foreign investments by multinational corporations (FDI).
• Remittances received from overseas workers.

2. Accommodating Transactions:
• These transactions are undertaken to correct imbalances in the BoP, specifically to finance deficits or manage surpluses.
• They are often called "below the line” transactions and are driven by the BoP position rather than economic motives.

Examples:
• Borrowing from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to finance a BoP deficit.
• Use of foreign exchange reserves to stabilize the currency.
• Short-term government borrowings from foreign institutions.

Conclusion: While autonomous transactions represent the normal economic dealings of a country, accommodating transactions act as corrective measures to maintain equilibrium in the BoP.


Question 13(a)(i):

"With an objective to reduce inflation, government may reduce public Expenditure.” Discuss the rationale behind such a step which may be taken by the Government.

View Solution

Solution:
When inflation rises, the government may reduce public expenditure to control inflationary pressures in the economy.
- Government spending, particularly on public services and welfare programs, contributes to higher aggregate demand (AD).
- By reducing expenditure, the government can lower AD, which in turn reduces pressure on prices, thereby curbing inflation.
- This step is especially important when inflation is demand-driven, i.e., when too much money is chasing too few goods.
- A reduction in public expenditure can also lead to lower consumption and investment, slowing down the economy, and stabilizing price levels.
Conclusion: Reducing public expenditure is a contractionary fiscal policy aimed at reducing demand-pull inflation, by decreasing overall demand in the economy.


Question 13(a)(ii):

Define Effective Demand Principle.

View Solution

Solution:
The Effective Demand Principle states that the total level of employment in an economy is determined by the level of aggregate demand (AD) for goods and services.
- If the aggregate demand is insufficient to purchase all the goods produced in the economy, there will be unemployment.
- The principle suggests that employment will adjust to the level where aggregate demand is sufficient to purchase all output.
- In simple terms, the level of demand in an economy dictates the quantity of goods and services produced, which in turn determines the amount of labor employed.

Conclusion: The Effective Demand Principle highlights the relationship between the total demand for goods and services and the level of employment in an economy.

OR


Question 13(b)(i):

State the meaning of 'unintended accumulation of inventories'.

View Solution

Solution:
Unintended accumulation of inventories refers to the situation where the actual sales of goods fall short of the expected sales. As a result, businesses end up holding unsold goods or stocks.
- This typically occurs when aggregate demand is lower than expected, leading to excess production and accumulation of unsold goods.
- It is a sign that the economy is experiencing weak demand, and businesses may respond by reducing production or laying off workers.

Conclusion: Unintended accumulation of inventories is an indicator of underperformance in the economy, signaling that demand is insufficient to absorb the supply of goods.


Question 13(b)(ii):

"In an economy, Aggregate Demand (AD) is more than Aggregate Supply (AS).” Elaborate the possible impacts of the same, on the level of output, income and employment.

View Solution

Solution:
When aggregate demand (AD) exceeds aggregate supply (AS), the following impacts can occur:
1. Increased output and income:
- Firms will try to meet the excess demand by increasing production, which will lead to higher output and income levels.
- The increase in income leads to higher consumption, further boosting demand, creating a cycle of growth.
2. Higher employment:
- Increased production requires more labor, which will lead to higher employment levels.
- As firms expand output to meet demand, they will need to hire additional workers.
3. Price inflation:
- As AD exceeds AS, firms may raise prices due to higher demand. This can lead to inflationary pressures in the economy.
4. Potential overuse of resources:
- If AD continues to outstrip AS for a prolonged period, the economy may face resource shortages, leading to inefficiencies and higher costs in the long run.

Conclusion: When AD exceeds AS, the economy initially experiences higher output, income, and employment, but sustained imbalances may lead to inflationary pressures.


Question 14:

Suppose, an economy is in equilibrium. From the following data, calculate investment expenditure in the economy:

Given:

  • National Income (Y) = 10,000 crore
  • Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2
  • Autonomous Consumption (C) = 100 crore
View Solution

Solution:
- In equilibrium, National Income (Y) is equal to the total expenditure, which includes consumption and investment. Hence,
Y = C + I
- Consumption (C) can be expressed as:
C = C0 + MPC × Y
where C0 is autonomous consumption.
C = 100 + 0.8 × 10,000 = 100 + 8,000 = 8,100 crore
- Now, substitute into the equilibrium equation:
Y = C + I ⇒ 10,000 = 8,100 + I
Solving for investment:
I = 10,000 – 8,100 = 1,900 crore

Conclusion: The investment expenditure in the economy is Rs. 1,900 crore.


Question 15:

‘Open Market Operation by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) helps in regulating money supply in the economy.” Justify the given statement.

View Solution

Solution:
Open Market Operations (OMO) are one of the key tools used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to regulate the money supply in the economy.
- Buying securities (OMO Purchase):
When the RBI buys government securities from the market, it injects money into the banking system. This increases the reserves of commercial banks, encouraging them to lend more, thereby increasing the money supply.
- Selling securities (OMO Sale):
When the RBI sells government securities, it pulls money out of the banking system. This reduces the reserves of commercial banks, restricting their lending capacity and thereby decreasing the money supply.
- Through OMOs, the RBI can control liquidity in the economy, manage inflation, and stabilize the financial system.

Conclusion: Open Market Operations are an effective tool for managing the money supply in the economy, influencing interest rates, and ensuring economic stability.


Question 16(a):

Distinguish between Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts of the government, with suitable example.

View Solution

Solution:
Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts are two important components of the government's financial statements, and they differ in terms of their sources and usage:
Revenue Receipts: These are receipts that do not result in a liability for the government and are not used to create any asset. They represent the government's income from regular operations.
- Example: Tax revenue, non-tax revenue, and grants received from foreign governments.
Capital Receipts: These receipts result in a liability for the government or lead to the creation of an asset. They represent funds raised for long-term purposes or for repayment of debts.
- Example: Borrowings, loans raised from domestic or foreign sources, and the sale of assets like government securities or public sector units.

Conclusion: Revenue Receipts are primarily related to the government's day-to-day functioning, whereas Capital Receipts are related to financial operations like borrowing or asset sales.


Question 16(a)(ii):

"Under the 'Production Linked Incentive' scheme, the Government of India offers various benefits like reduced import-export duties, incentives to investors, tax-rebates etc.” In the light of the above statement, identify and explain the Budget objective and its likely consequences.

View Solution

Solution:
- The Budget objective highlighted in this statement is to boost domestic manufacturing and attract investment by providing financial incentives. The scheme is aimed at encouraging firms to increase production, reduce reliance on imports, and enhance competitiveness in the global market.
- Likely Consequences of the scheme:
- Increased Production: By offering tax rebates and other incentives, the government encourages companies to scale up production and make India a more attractive destination for manufacturing.
- Employment Generation: Increased production capacity and foreign investment can lead to higher employment in the manufacturing sector, which benefits the economy.
- Improved Trade Balance: By promoting local manufacturing, the country could reduce imports, improve its trade balance, and boost exports, leading to a more sustainable economic growth model.

Conclusion: The scheme aims to foster industrial growth, attract foreign investment, and create jobs, ultimately contributing to economic growth.

OR


Question 16(b)(i):

"Under 'Zero Defect, Zero Effect' (ZED) scheme, the government of India provides up to 80% subsidy to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).” Identify and explain the objective of government budget, highlighted in the above text.

View Solution

Solution:
- The objective of the government budget highlighted here is to promote the growth and development of MSMEs in India. The ZED scheme aims at improving the quality of products made by MSMEs by encouraging zero defect production (defect-free products) and zero effect on the environment (sustainable production).
- The government offers up to 80 percent subsidy to help MSMEs upgrade their processes, adopt new technologies, and improve the quality of their products. This helps increase the competitiveness of Indian MSMEs in both domestic and international markets.
- Likely Consequences:
- Improved Quality: MSMEs will improve product quality, reducing defects and enhancing customer satisfaction.
- Sustainability: Zero effect production practices will make industries more environmentally sustainable, aligning with global environmental standards.
- Boost to Employment: Supporting MSMEs will create more job opportunities in small industries, contributing to higher employment levels.

Conclusion: The ZED scheme aims to improve product quality, environmental sustainability, and create a more competitive MSME sector, which will ultimately contribute to economic growth and job creation.


Question 16(b)(ii):

Distinguish between Tax Revenue and Non-tax Revenue, with suitable examples.

View Solution

Solution:
Revenue generated by the government from various tax sources is referred to as tax revenue. Tax revenue can be received in the form of direct and indirect taxes.
- Direct Tax: A direct tax is levied directly on individuals or organizations and is paid directly to the government. Examples include:
- Income Tax: Levied on the income earned by individuals or organizations.
- Corporate Tax: Paid by corporations on their profits.
- Indirect Tax: An indirect tax is levied on goods and services and is collected by an intermediary (e.g., a retailer) from the consumer. Examples include:
- Goods and Services Tax (GST): Levied on the sale of goods and services.
- Excise Duty: Paid on the manufacture of goods.
Whereas; Revenue generated by the government from sources other than taxes is referred to as Non-Tax Revenue. For example, interest receipts on account of loans by the Central Government.

Conclusion: Direct taxes are based on the taxpayer's income or profits, while indirect taxes are levied on consumption and are passed on to consumers.


Question 17(a):

As per The Economic Times report, dated April 11, 2023: "Electric Vehicle sales cross 10 Lakh mark in financial year 2022-23.” Analyse the likely impacts of this news on Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Welfare.

View Solution

Solution:
- Impact on GDP:
The sale of Electric Vehicles (EVs) contributes to an increase in consumption expenditure, which is a component of GDP. With the surge in EV sales, the output in the automobile sector will rise, contributing positively to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Additionally, related industries, such as battery manufacturing, charging infrastructure, and renewable energy, will experience growth, further increasing the value of GDP.
- Impact on Welfare:
The transition to Electric Vehicles is expected to improve environmental quality, as EVs produce less pollution compared to traditional vehicles. This contributes to higher social welfare by reducing air pollution, improving health outcomes, and promoting cleaner air. Furthermore, this shift may lead to reduced dependency on fossil fuels, improving energy security and reducing the impact of global oil price fluctuations on the economy.
- Job Creation: The increasing demand for EVs may create jobs in manufacturing, charging infrastructure, and research and development.
- Improved Health Outcomes: Reduced emissions may lead to fewer respiratory diseases, contributing to better public health.

Conclusion: The growth in EV sales will positively affect GDP by increasing consumption and production, while enhancing welfare through environmental benefits and potential job creation.


Question 17(b):

Discuss briefly, the circular flow of income in a two sector economy model.

View Solution

Solution:
In a two-sector economy model, the economy is simplified to two main sectors: households and firms.
1. Households:
Households own the factors of production, such as land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship. They provide these factors to firms in exchange for income, which includes wages, rents, interests, and profits.
2. Firms:
Firms are the producers of goods and services. They use the factors of production from households to produce goods and services, which are sold to households. In return, firms pay income to households for their factors of production.
- Flow of Income and Expenditure:
- Households spend their income on the goods and services produced by firms (Consumption Expenditure).
- Firms, in turn, provide goods and services to households in exchange for payment, which is their revenue.
- Circular Flow:
- The flow of goods and services from firms to households and the flow of income from households to firms forms a continuous cycle, known as the circular flow of income.
- Equilibrium in the Circular Flow:
- The economy reaches equilibrium when total income generated in the economy (from the sale of goods and services) is equal to the total expenditure (households' consumption expenditure).

Conclusion: In a two-sector model, the economy functions as a closed loop where households provide factors of production to firms, and firms return income to households in exchange for goods and services.

SECTION B
Indian Economic Development

Question 18:

After independence, the rationale behind choosing Modernization as a planning objective for the Indian economy were ——.

I. To bring positive changes in the social outlook

II. Equitable distribution of income

III. Technological Upgradation

IV. Increase in Economic Divide

Alternatives:

  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. I and III
  4. I and IV
Correct Answer: (3) I and III
View Solution

Solution:
- I: To bring positive changes in the social outlook, India wanted to modernize agriculture, industry, and services to improve quality of life for its citizens.

- III: Technological upgradation was crucial for India's industrialization and modernization to ensure long-term growth.

- II: While equitable distribution of income is important, it was not the primary rationale behind choosing modernization as the main goal in India's early planning stages.

- IV: Increasing the economic divide was not a goal of modernization but rather reducing it.

Conclusion: Option (C) is the correct answer because both improving social outlook and technological upgradation were the key goals.


Question 19:

Study the following picture: 

picture

Identify the kind of activities, which may be envisaged under____________ as diversification activity.

  • (A) Animal Husbandry
  • (B) Fisheries
  • (C) Horticulture
  • (D) Organic farming
Correct Answer: (A) Animal Husbandry
View Solution

- Animal husbandry is an agricultural activity related to the breeding and raising of livestock. This is often considered a diversification activity in farming because it supplements income from crop production and helps in managing resources more effectively.
- The other alternatives (B) Fisheries, (C) Horticulture, and (D) Organic farming may also be forms of diversification, but Animal Husbandry is the most fitting answer given the context of the question. Conclusion: Option (A) is correct as it directly relates to diversification in agriculture. Quick Tip: Diversification in agriculture helps farmers mitigate risks by engaging in multiple types of farming activities.


Question 20:

Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below: Assertion (A): India could not develop a sound Industrial-base during the British rule. Reason (R): Britishers followed restrictive trade policies, which strengthened Indian handicraft industries.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
View Solution

Solution:
- Assertion (A) is true: During the British rule, India could not develop a strong industrial base. The British focused on extracting resources from India and promoting industries that benefited Britain rather than India.

- Reason (R) is false: The British followed restrictive policies that actually undermined India's handicraft industries rather than strengthening them. Policies such as heavy tariffs on Indian goods and the promotion of British manufactured goods led to the decline of India's traditional industries.

Conclusion: Since Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is false, option (C) is the correct answer.


Question 21:

From the events given in Column-I and facts given in Column-II about China, choose the correct pair:

Column - I Column - II
(a) Structural transformation (i) Limited Urbanisation
(b) Great leap forward campaign (ii) Reduced global demand for Chinese products
(c) Less stress of usage on natural resources (iii) Low density of population
(d) Slowdown in GDP, since 2014 (iv) Aimed at massive industrialisation
  1. (a) – (i)
  2. (b) – (ii)
  3. (c) – (iii)
  4. (d) – (iv)
Correct Answer: (3) (c) – (iii)
View Solution

Solution:
-(a) Structural transformation refers to the shift from agriculture to industry and services in China, which did not result in limited urbanization, making option (A) incorrect.

- (b) The Great Leap Forward campaign aimed at massive industrialization but failed to meet expectations due to reduced global demand, which makes (B) incorrect.

- (c) The less stress on natural resources in China correlates with the low density of population, making (C) correct.

- (d) The slowdown in GDP from 2014 was due to the massive industrialization drive under the Great Leap Forward, not directly to the cause of slowdown in GDP itself, making (D) incorrect.

Conclusion: Option (C) is correct as the low population density is associated with less stress on natural resources.


Question 22:

Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1: China has used the Market system mechanism without losing political commitment to create additional social and economic opportunities. Statement 2: India, Pakistan, and China have similar physical endowments but totally different Political systems.

  1. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  2. Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  3. Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
  4. Both Statement 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
View Solution

Solution:
- Statement 1 is true: China has adopted a market-oriented approach since its economic reforms, while still maintaining strict political control. This approach has created additional social and economic opportunities for its citizens.

- Statement 2 is true: While India, Pakistan, and China have similar geographical endowments, their political systems differ significantly. India is a democracy, Pakistan has had military interventions, and China is a one-party communist state.

Conclusion: Both statements are true, reflecting the economic and political differences between these countries.


Question 23:

Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1: Casual workers are hired on a permanent basis and also get social security benefits. Statement 2: Workforce comprises, both employed and unemployed persons.

  1. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  2. Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  3. Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
  4. Both Statement 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (4) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
View Solution

Solution:
- Statement 1 is false: Casual workers are typically employed on a temporary basis without the guarantee of social security benefits.

- Statement 2 is false: The workforce comprises only employed individuals; unemployed persons are considered part of the labor force but are not part of the employed workforce.

Conclusion: Both statements are false, so the correct answer is option (D).


Question 24:

__________ indicator may be defined as the measure of the extent of demographic participation in Social and Political decision making in a Country.

  1. Economic
  2. Health
  3. Demographic
  4. Liberty
Correct Answer: (4) Liberty
View Solution

Solution:
- Liberty indicators measure the degree of freedom and participation in a society, particularly in social and political decision-making processes.

- Economic, health, and demographic indicators are important for measuring the quality of life, but liberty indicators focus specifically on the rights and freedoms of individuals within society.

Conclusion: Option (D) is correct as liberty indicators measure democratic participation.


Question 25:

Introduction of Economic Reforms in Pakistan took place in the year ________.

  1. 1978
  2. 1980
  3. 1988
  4. 1991
Correct Answer: (3) 1988
View Solution

Solution:
- Pakistan introduced significant economic reforms in 1988 under the leadership of Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto, aiming to liberalize the economy, reduce the role of state-owned enterprises, and promote private sector growth.

- The other dates do not correspond to the major economic reforms in Pakistan.

Conclusion: Option (C) is correct as the economic reforms began in Pakistan in 1988.


Question 26:

The scheme of ‘Micro Finance' is extended through – credit provision.

  1. Self help groups
  2. Land Development Banks
  3. Regional Rural Banks
  4. Commercial Banks
Correct Answer: (1) Self help groups
View Solution

Solution:
- Microfinance is typically extended through self-help groups (SHGs), which are community-based organizations that provide credit to low-income households.

- SHGs play a vital role in providing small loans without requiring collateral, thereby helping individuals who are not served by traditional financial institutions.

Conclusion: Option (A) is correct, as SHGs are the primary providers of microfinance.


Question 27:

Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1: Outsourcing is one of the important outcomes of the globalization process. Statement 2: Owing to globalization, many Indian companies have expanded their operation abroad.

  1. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  2. Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  3. Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
  4. Both Statement 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
View Solution

Solution:
- Statement 1 is true: Outsourcing, a key feature of globalization, involves contracting out services or jobs to other countries. This is a common practice in industries such as IT, customer service, and manufacturing.

- Statement 2 is true: Globalization has allowed Indian companies, particularly in the IT and service sectors, to expand their operations abroad, taking advantage of lower production costs and accessing new markets.

Conclusion: Both statements are true, as outsourcing and international expansion of Indian companies are direct results of globalization.


Question 28:

Discuss the need for ‘On-the-job training' for an employee.

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Solution:
In the rapidly evolving competitive environment, on-the-job training becomes a vital requirement for an employee.

Need for On-the-Job Training:
• Adaptation to New Technologies: On-the-job training helps employees keep pace with technological advancements, improving their ability to work efficiently.

• Enhanced Productivity: Training directly impacts the productive capacity of employees by improving their skills and expertise.

• Cost-Effective: The benefits from such training often outweigh the associated costs, making it an economically viable investment for organizations.

Conclusion: On-the-job training is essential for continuous skill development, keeping employees competent in a dynamic business environment.


Question 29(a):

"Opening up of Suez Canal helped in establishing the British monopoly control over India's foreign trade”. Justify the given statement with valid arguments.

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Solution:
The opening of the Suez Canal in 1869 significantly reduced the time it took to travel between Europe and India, from several months to a matter of weeks.

- This enhanced the British monopoly over India's foreign trade by making it easier and faster to move goods such as cotton, tea, and opium from India to Britain.

- It further entrenched British economic dominance by facilitating the movement of raw materials from India and finished goods from Britain.

Conclusion: The opening of the Suez Canal was crucial in strengthening British control over India's foreign trade by reducing transportation costs and time, reinforcing their economic monopoly.


Question 29(b):

"Development of Railways during British rule encouraged colonial exploitation of the Indian resources.” Justify the given statement with valid arguments.

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Solution:
- The British developed railways in India primarily to transport raw materials such as cotton, indigo, and minerals to ports for shipment to Britain.

- This transportation network was designed to extract India's resources efficiently for the benefit of Britain, rather than to foster economic development within India itself.

- While it enabled faster movement of goods, it also facilitated the extraction of wealth, with limited focus on benefiting the Indian economy or improving local infrastructure.

Conclusion: The development of railways under British rule primarily served the interests of colonial exploitation by facilitating the extraction of resources rather than benefiting India's economic development.


Question 30:

From the given data compare and analyse the Population Density and Fertility Rate of China and Pakistan, with valid reasons: Demographic Indicators, 2017-18

Country Estimated Population (in million) Annual Growth of Population Population Density (per sq. km) Sex Ratio Fertility Rate Urbanisation
India 1352 1.03 455 924 2.2 34
China 1393 0.46 148 949 1.7 59
Pakistan 212 2.05 275 943 3.6 37
View Solution

Solution:
The given data depicts that China's population growth rate is relatively low at 0.46 percent, indicating a slower rate of population after the adoption of One Child norm; whereas Pakistan's population growth rate is significantly higher at 2.05 percent, which is more than 4 times to the annual growth of China's population.

However, the sex ratio was lopsided in both China and Pakistan. The number of females per 1000 males in China is approximately 949 and in Pakistan is 943. Son preference is the prime reason behind the skewed sex ratio.

Conclusion: China has a lower population density and fertility rate compared to Pakistan, owing to its larger landmass, policy interventions like the one-child policy, and different socio-economic conditions.


Question 31(a):

(i) Study the following chart of Employment and Gross Domestic Product. Analyse the trend of the two variables between 1990-2012. Analysis of the trend between 1990-2012:

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Solution:
The chart shows the growth rates of Employment and GDP over the period 1951-2012. Focusing on the period between 1990-2012:

• GDP Growth: The GDP growth rate shows a fluctuating pattern. It started low in the early 1990s, but from 1995 to 2005, there was a rapid increase, peaking at over 8 percent. This period represents strong economic growth. However, after 2005, the GDP growth rate started to moderate.

• Employment Growth: Employment growth has been consistently lower than GDP growth. In the early 1990s, employment growth was quite low, and although it improved over time, the increase was modest compared to the rapid GDP growth.

• Jobless Growth: Between 2000 and 2012, the GDP growth rate surpassed the employment growth rate significantly, indicating a "jobless growth” situation where economic output increased, but the creation of jobs did not keep pace.

Conclusion: Between 1990-2012, the trend highlights a period of high economic growth, especially in the 2000s, but employment did not grow at a similar pace. This suggests that while the economy grew, it was not accompanied by a proportional increase in jobs, a situation that is often referred to as jobless growth.


Question 31(a):

(ii) Define Worker-Population Ratio.

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Solution:
- Worker-Population Ratio:

The worker-population ratio is the proportion of the working-age population that is actively engaged in work or seeking employment. It is calculated as the number of workers divided by the total working-age population.


Question 32(a):

(i) "Infrastructural development is an essential element to obtain the full potential of the rural sector in India”. Justify the given statement with valid arguments.

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Solution:
Infrastructural development plays a vital role in unlocking the full potential of rural sectors in India. Some key arguments include:

- Improved Connectivity: Infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and communication networks connects rural areas to urban markets, allowing farmers and entrepreneurs to access wider markets and increasing productivity.

- Access to Basic Services: Development in areas like electricity, water supply, healthcare, and education enhances the quality of life and economic participation for rural populations.

- Rural Industrialization: Infrastructure development supports small industries and cottage industries, which can thrive in rural settings, creating employment and reducing migration to urban areas.

- Agricultural Productivity: Investment in irrigation, storage, and transportation infrastructure significantly boosts agricultural output, making rural economies more productive and resilient to external shocks.

Conclusion: In conclusion, infrastructure is crucial in ensuring that the rural sector in India reaches its potential in terms of economic development, employment generation, and poverty alleviation.


Question 32(a):

(ii) State the meaning of 'Human Development'.

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Solution:
Human development refers to the process of enlarging people's freedoms and opportunities, improving their well-being, and ensuring they have access to the resources necessary to lead a fulfilling life. It includes:

- Improvement in Health: Access to healthcare services that enhance life expectancy and reduce mortality rates.

- Educational Advancement: Ensuring access to quality education that empowers individuals with knowledge and skills to improve their livelihoods.

- Economic Security: Creating economic opportunities through employment, social security, and income equality.

Thus, human development is a holistic concept that aims to improve the overall quality of life by expanding the choices available to people.


Question 32(b):

"In a nation like India, self employment provides an important avenue for employment generation.” Defend or refute the given statement with valid arguments.

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Solution:
Self-employment is a key avenue for employment generation in India, and here's why:

- High Employment Potential: India, with its large rural population and limited job opportunities in the formal sector, has seen self-employment emerge as a crucial way for individuals to earn their livelihoods. Agriculture, handicrafts, and small businesses are common forms of self-employment.

- Entrepreneurship and Innovation: Self-employment fosters entrepreneurship and innovation, as individuals take the initiative to create businesses and services that cater to local and regional needs.

- Lower Barriers to Entry: Unlike formal employment that requires certain qualifications or skills, self-employment offers flexibility and lower barriers to entry, allowing many individuals, particularly in rural areas, to enter the workforce.

- Government Initiatives: Various government schemes like PMEGP (Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme) and MUDRA Yojana support the self-employment sector by providing loans, training, and other resources.

Therefore, self-employment is crucial in India's economic context, providing a valuable route to employment for a large section of the population.


Question 33:

Read the following text carefully: India has aimed to reduce the country's carbon intensity by approximately 45 percent by 2030. To achieve this ‘Green finance' plays a vital role. At the initial stages, green finance needs a big push from the government. The Indian government has identified projects worth Rs. 25,000 crore that will be financed by proceeds from Sovereign Green Bonds. According to the framework approved by finance ministry, the sovereign green bonds will focus on financing public projects including renewable energy, climate change, clean transportation, sustainable water and waste management and pollution control. Businesses that take green finance can get benefit in various ways. It can help them follow different environmental norms and regulations and thus avoid possible fines. Adopting sustainable developmental practices enhances brand value of businesses. Customers tend to prefer brands that adopt clear sustainable development practices. The energy-efficient and other sustainable development practices promoted by green finance also often help in saving cost, boosting profitability of businesses etc. -The Economic Times, April 22, 2023 (Modified) On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions: (a) Define sustainable development. (b) State the public project areas where Sovereign Green Bonds are focused. (c) How can businesses benefit from green finance?

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Solution:
(a) Define sustainable development:
Sustainable development is a development process that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It focuses on balancing economic growth, social inclusion, and environmental protection.

(b) State the public project areas where Sovereign Green Bonds are focused:
Sovereign Green Bonds finance projects with positive environmental impacts. Key areas of focus include:
• Renewable energy (solar, wind, and hydroelectric projects)
• Energy-efficient infrastructure (green buildings)
• Public transport systems to reduce carbon emissions
• Sustainable agriculture and land management
• Climate adaptation and mitigation measures
• Biodiversity and ecosystem conservation

(c) How can businesses benefit from green finance?
Businesses can benefit from green finance in the following ways:
• Access to Capital: Funds for environmentally sustainable projects
• Lower Financing Costs: Reduced interest rates on green bonds
• Enhanced Brand Image: Improved reputation as a socially responsible entity
• Regulatory Compliance: Better alignment with environmental regulations
• Long-term Resilience: Improved ability to manage environmental risks


Question 34(a):

Defend or refute the following statements with valid arguments: (i) "The policy of protectionism encouraged the growth of domestic industries, but at the same time proved to be an impediment.”

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Solution:
Defend: The policy of protectionism safeguarded domestic industries by imposing tariffs and restricting imports, thereby promoting industrial growth in India. However, this policy had certain drawbacks:

• Inefficiency in Industries: Due to limited competition, many domestic industries became inefficient and uncompetitive in the global market.

• Consumer Disadvantages: Consumers had limited access to high-quality and diverse goods at competitive prices.


Question 34(a):

(ii) "New Economic Policy 1991 altered the role of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in the economy."

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Solution:
Defend: The New Economic Policy (1991) brought significant liberalization reforms that impacted the role of the RBI:

• Deregulation of Financial Sector: RBI shifted from controlling credit to regulating it, emphasizing monetary policy formulation over direct intervention in lending activities.

• Banking Sector Reforms: RBI played a key role in introducing prudential norms and supervising financial institutions to enhance efficiency and transparency.


Question 34(b):

(i) Explain the changes that were observed in India's occupational structure during the British rule.

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Solution:
During the British rule, India's occupational structure saw significant changes:

• Decline in Handicrafts and Artisanship: Traditional industries, particularly handloom and handicrafts, suffered due to competition from machine-made British goods.

• Agrarian Economy: A large section of the workforce became dependent on agriculture as industrial activities remained underdeveloped.

• Limited Industrial Employment: Employment in industries was restricted to a few sectors, like jute and tea plantations.


Question 34(b):

(ii) "Navratna Policy of the government has helped in improving the performance of Public Sector Undertakings in India."

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Solution:
Agree: The Navratna Policy empowered selected PSUs by providing operational and financial autonomy, resulting in the following benefits:

• Enhanced Efficiency: PSUs like NTPC and BHEL significantly improved their performance and profitability.

• Increased Competitiveness: The autonomy allowed these PSUs to compete with private players and even expand internationally.

Conclusion: The policy played a critical role in making PSUs more competitive and financially self-sufficient.