The CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2024 PDF is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Political Science exam on March 22, 2024, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 80. The question paper contains 20% MCQ-based questions, 40% competency-based questions, and 40% short and long answer type questions. Students reported the exam to be of moderate difficulty level. 

CBSE Class 12 Political Science (59/4/3) Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key

CBSE Class 12 2024 Political Science​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

 CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key


SECTION-A

Question 1:

For the first time the communist party came to power through democratic elections in which state of India?

  • (A) W. Bengal
  • (B) Kerala
  • (C) Tripura
  • (D) Manipur
Correct Answer: (B) Kerala
View Solution



Step 1: Historical context.

The first time a communist party came to power through democratic elections in India was in Kerala in 1957. This was a major event in Indian political history as it marked the rise of communism in a democratic context, with E.M.S. Namboodiripad becoming the Chief Minister of Kerala.


Step 2: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is Kerala, as it was the first state where the Communist Party came to power through free and fair elections. Quick Tip: The election of 1957 in Kerala was a historic event in India, where the first democratically elected communist government took office.


Question 2:

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the appropriate option as the answer.


Assertion (A): India, China, and other developing countries were exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol.


Reason (R): Their contribution to the emission of greenhouse gases during the industrialization period was not significant.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Kyoto Protocol.

The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, required developed countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, recognizing their larger historical responsibility for global emissions. The treaty exempted developing countries, including India, China, and others, from binding emission reduction targets. This exemption was granted as these countries had not industrialized to the same extent as developed countries and thus had contributed less to historical emissions.


Step 2: Evaluating the reason.

The reason provided in the question states that India, China, and other developing countries were exempted because their contribution to greenhouse gases during industrialization was not significant. This is the correct explanation because, during the industrialization period, these countries had not yet reached the emission levels seen in developed nations. The exemption was based on their lower historical contribution to global emissions, which is the main reason they were not required to meet the same emission reduction targets under the Kyoto Protocol.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason accurately explains why developing countries, including India and China, were exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol. Quick Tip: The Kyoto Protocol’s approach was based on the principle of "common but differentiated responsibilities," giving developing countries a more flexible stance on emission reductions.


Question 3:

Match the List-I correctly with List-II :


  • (A) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
  • (B) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
  • (C) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
  • (D) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii
Correct Answer: (A) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the dates of these protocols and treaties.



Antarctic Treaty (a) was signed in 1959 to regulate international relations with respect to Antarctica.
Montreal Protocol (b) was signed in 1987 to phase out substances responsible for ozone depletion.
Antarctic Environmental Protocol (c) was adopted in 1991 to protect the Antarctic environment.
Kyoto Protocol (d) was adopted in 1997 as an international treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gases.


Step 2: Match the events with their respective years.

From the given information, the correct matching is: \[ a \rightarrow iv (1959), \quad b \rightarrow iii (1987), \quad c \rightarrow ii (1991), \quad d \rightarrow i (1997). \]
Thus, the correct answer is (A). Quick Tip: When matching treaties and protocols with years, remember key environmental treaties like the Antarctic Treaty (1959), Montreal Protocol (1987), and Kyoto Protocol (1997). These are pivotal in international environmental law.


Question 4:

People who seek better economic opportunities abroad are called ______.

  • (A) Immigrants
  • (B) Migrants
  • (C) Refugees
  • (D) Non-Residents
Correct Answer: (B) Migrants
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the definitions.

Migrants: Individuals who move from one place to another, especially across borders, in search of better living conditions or economic opportunities. This movement can be temporary or permanent.
Immigrants: People who move into a new country with the intention of settling there permanently. This term is often used legally in immigration contexts.
Refugees: Individuals who are forced to flee their home country due to conflict, persecution, or disaster.
Non-Residents: Typically refers to individuals who reside outside their native country, often for legal or taxation purposes, but the term is broader and not specific to economic migration.


Step 2: Applying to the context.

Since the question mentions "people who seek better economic opportunities," it implies voluntary movement motivated by employment or improved living standards. This is the definition of a migrant.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the most appropriate and inclusive term for people moving abroad for better economic prospects is migrants. Quick Tip: “Migrant” is the broadest term that includes all people moving for economic, social, or environmental reasons — not necessarily forced like refugees.


Question 5:

A process in which the countries share ideas and information with their rivals is called _______.

  • (A) Alliance Building
  • (B) Arms control
  • (C) Confidence Building
  • (D) Balance of Power
Correct Answer: (C) Confidence Building
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the context of international relations.

In international relations, countries often engage in various diplomatic practices to avoid conflict and build mutual trust, especially when tensions are high. One such method is the exchange of information and transparency about military movements, defense policies, or intentions.


Step 2: Evaluating the options.

(A) Alliance Building: This refers to forming strategic partnerships, often through formal agreements like NATO. However, it doesn't necessarily involve sharing ideas with rivals.
(B) Arms Control: This refers to agreements between countries to limit or regulate the number and type of weapons, not the sharing of ideas or information in general.
(C) Confidence Building: This involves transparency and communication between nations, including rivals, to build trust and avoid misunderstandings that might lead to conflict.
(D) Balance of Power: This is a strategic concept where power is distributed to prevent any one nation from dominating, and does not refer to mutual communication.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The process of sharing ideas and information with rivals to reduce suspicion and build trust is best described by Confidence Building. Quick Tip: In diplomacy, confidence-building measures (CBMs) include transparency in military affairs, prior notification of exercises, and communication hotlines to prevent accidental escalation.


Question 6:

Which Central Asian Republic witnessed a civil war for ten years till 2001?

  • (A) Tajikistan
  • (B) Kazakhstan
  • (C) Uzbekistan
  • (D) Azerbaijan
Correct Answer: (A) Tajikistan
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the key timeline in the question.

The question mentions a civil war lasting ten years, ending in 2001. That means the conflict started around 1991.

Step 2: Match this information with the history of Central Asian republics.

Tajikistan went through a violent civil war starting in 1992, soon after the collapse of the Soviet Union. The conflict was fought between pro-government forces and the United Tajik Opposition, and was rooted in regional, ethnic, and political rivalries.
The war officially ended with a peace agreement in 1997, but violence and instability continued until 2001.
Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, and Azerbaijan did not experience civil wars of such length or intensity during that period.


Therefore, the correct answer is Tajikistan. Quick Tip: Tajikistan is the only Central Asian nation that had a long-running civil war after the USSR's fall. Remember: Civil war (1992–2001), ended with peace efforts but took years to stabilize.


Question 7:

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option as answer:

(i) The Russian Revolution

(ii) The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan

(iii) The disintegration of Soviet Union

(iv) The end of the World War II

  • (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  • (B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  • (C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  • (D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Correct Answer: (D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the events and recall the actual years.

The Russian Revolution (i) took place in 1917. It led to the rise of the Soviet Union.
The end of World War II (iv) occurred in 1945.
The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (ii) began in 1979 and lasted till 1989.
The disintegration of the Soviet Union (iii) happened in 1991, marking the end of the USSR.


Step 2: Arrange them in chronological order based on their dates. \[ (i) \rightarrow 1917, \quad (iv) \rightarrow 1945, \quad (ii) \rightarrow 1979, \quad (iii) \rightarrow 1991 \]
So, the correct chronological order is: \[ (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) \] Quick Tip: Always associate major events with dates. Remember: Russian Revolution (1917), WWII ends (1945), Soviet-Afghan War (1979), USSR Disintegration (1991).


Question 8:

‘Karbis’ community belongs to which State of India?

  • (A) Manipur
  • (B) Assam
  • (C) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (D) Nagaland
Correct Answer: (B) Assam
View Solution



The Karbi community is an indigenous ethnic group of Assam, primarily found in the Karbi Anglong district of the state. The Karbis are known for their rich cultural heritage, and their language is also called Karbi. They are one of the major communities in Assam's hill regions.

Thus, the Karbi community belongs to the state of Assam. Quick Tip: When answering questions about tribal communities, always associate their geographical location with the state they predominantly belong to.


Question 9:

India made earnest effort for the early realisation of freedom of Indonesia from the colonial regime of the ______.

  • (A) British
  • (B) French
  • (C) Portuguese
  • (D) Dutch
Correct Answer: (D) Dutch
View Solution



India played a crucial role in supporting Indonesia's struggle for independence from colonial rule. At the time, Indonesia was under Dutch colonial control. India’s efforts were particularly significant after World War II, when the Dutch were forced to relinquish their control over Indonesia, leading to its independence in 1949.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) Dutch. Quick Tip: India’s foreign policy during the 1940s and 1950s focused on supporting anti-colonial movements in Asia, especially in Indonesia, which was under Dutch rule.


Question 10:

In the following question, Statement of Assertion (A) is followed by Statement of Reason (R). Choose the appropriate option as the answer.

Assertion (A): The Mizo National Front (MNF) started an armed campaign for independence.

Reason (R): After independence the Mizo Hill area was made an autonomous district within Assam.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the assertion.

The Mizo National Front (MNF) indeed started an armed campaign for independence in the Mizo Hills (then part of Assam). This movement was a result of the Mizo people's desire for autonomy, and later it culminated in the formation of Mizoram in 1987.

Step 2: Understanding the reason.

After independence, the Mizo Hill area was indeed made an autonomous district within Assam, but the MNF’s armed campaign was not directly because of this. The creation of an autonomous district did not fully resolve the issues, and the MNF continued its struggle for full independence.

Thus, while both statements are true, the reason does not explain the assertion. Hence, the correct answer is (B). Quick Tip: Assertion and Reason questions often require understanding of historical context. Here, note the difference between the Mizo struggle for independence and the creation of the autonomous district.


Question 11:

In which year did China annex Tibet?

  • (A) 1950
  • (B) 1954
  • (C) 1960
  • (D) 1962
Correct Answer: (A) 1950
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the historical event.

China annexed Tibet in 1950. This event is often referred to as the "Chinese invasion of Tibet." The People's Liberation Army (PLA) of China entered Tibet and took control, leading to the establishment of Chinese sovereignty over the region. Tibet was officially incorporated into China in 1951 under the "Seventeen Point Agreement."


Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is 1950, the year China annexed Tibet. Quick Tip: The annexation of Tibet by China in 1950 was a critical moment in Sino-Tibetan relations and remains a controversial issue in international politics today.


Question 12:

The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was __________.

  • (A) S.L. Shakdhar
  • (B) Sukumar Sen
  • (C) K.V.K. Sundaram
  • (D) R.K. Trivedi
Correct Answer: (B) Sukumar Sen
View Solution



Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India. He served from 1950 to 1958 and was responsible for overseeing the first general elections in India. He played a crucial role in organizing the first election in the country, which was a monumental task given the vast size and diversity of India.

Thus, the first Chief Election Commissioner of India was Sukumar Sen. Quick Tip: Remember, Sukumar Sen is notable for organizing India’s first general elections, laying the foundation for a robust election system in India.


SECTION-B

Question 13:

Name the two models of development before India on the eve of independence.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Two models of development.

Before India gained independence in 1947, there were two primary models of development that were discussed for the country’s future. The first model was the industrialization model, which emphasized the development of industries, the establishment of factories, and the promotion of urbanization. The second model was the agrarian-based model, which focused on improving agricultural productivity and the welfare of rural areas, which made up the majority of India’s population.


Step 2: Explanation of both models.

The industrialization model was promoted by leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and was based on the idea that industrialization would create jobs, foster economic growth, and reduce poverty. However, the agrarian model, championed by leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, emphasized the importance of improving the condition of rural India and saw agriculture as the backbone of India’s economy.


Step 3: Conclusion.

These two models of development were in stark contrast, with one focusing on industrial growth and the other on rural development, shaping the policy debates in India leading up to independence. Quick Tip: Both industrialization and agrarian development were crucial to India’s post-independence growth, but the balance between them continues to be a key challenge.


Question 14:

"Terrorism is a new threat to security." Support the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding terrorism as a threat.

Terrorism is considered a new threat to security in the modern world due to the evolving nature of global conflicts. Unlike traditional military warfare, terrorism involves non-state actors or groups using violence, fear, and intimidation to achieve political or ideological goals. The advent of technology, particularly the internet and social media, has allowed terrorist organizations to recruit, plan, and execute attacks globally.


Step 2: The global reach and impact.

Terrorism has no boundaries and can affect any nation, irrespective of its military strength or geographical location. High-profile incidents like the 9/11 attacks in the United States and recent terrorist activities across Europe and Asia demonstrate that terrorism poses a threat not only to national security but also to global peace and stability. The global nature of terrorism makes it a complex challenge for security forces worldwide.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, terrorism, with its increasing sophistication and far-reaching impact, presents a modern and unique challenge to traditional security measures, which were designed to counter conventional threats from other nations. Quick Tip: Terrorism’s global reach and its use of unconventional tactics make it a significant and emerging threat to both national and international security.


Question 15:

Why did the people of East Pakistan resent the domination of West Pakistan? Explain the reason.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the issue of East Pakistan.

The people of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) resented the domination of West Pakistan due to several reasons, primarily related to political, economic, and cultural disparities. East Pakistan was geographically separated from West Pakistan by about 1,600 kilometers of Indian territory. Despite contributing significantly to the economy, especially in terms of exports from agriculture (like jute), the people of East Pakistan were politically underrepresented. The central government in West Pakistan controlled all the major political decisions, and the resources were unfairly allocated, leaving East Pakistan economically underdeveloped.


Step 2: Additional factors of resentment.

Furthermore, the language issue also fueled the resentment. The majority in East Pakistan spoke Bengali, while Urdu was the official language imposed by West Pakistan. The lack of political autonomy, the imposition of policies favoring West Pakistan, and the feeling of being treated as second-class citizens led to widespread discontent and eventually culminated in the Bangladesh Liberation War, which resulted in the independence of Bangladesh in 1971. Quick Tip: The tension between East and West Pakistan is a classic example of regional imbalances and the importance of political representation in a federal system.


Question 16:

Explain ‘Balance of Power’ as a component of traditional security.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the balance of power concept.

The "balance of power" is a concept in international relations that refers to the distribution of military and economic power among states to prevent any one state from becoming dominant over others. In traditional security terms, the balance of power theory suggests that national security is best maintained when no single nation is strong enough to impose its will on others.


Step 2: Application in traditional security.

In the context of traditional security, the balance of power helps prevent war and conflicts by ensuring that no nation or group of nations can become so powerful that it can dictate the terms of international relations. This principle was particularly significant in Europe during the 19th century and early 20th century, where the balance between great powers like Britain, France, and Germany was seen as crucial to maintaining peace.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the balance of power plays a crucial role in traditional security by promoting stability and deterring aggression through a fair distribution of power among states. Quick Tip: The balance of power is a key idea in traditional security that works to prevent any one state from becoming too powerful, ensuring global stability.


Question 17:

Why was India’s experiment with universal adult franchise described as "bold and risky"? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Context of universal adult franchise.

India’s decision to implement universal adult franchise immediately after independence in 1947 was described as "bold and risky" because it was unprecedented for a newly independent country with a large illiterate and rural population. Universal adult franchise means granting voting rights to every adult citizen, irrespective of their education, gender, or socioeconomic status.


Step 2: The risks involved.

At the time, India had a massive population of around 350 million, and the majority were illiterate and lived in rural areas. There was also a history of caste, religious, and regional divisions, which made it uncertain whether the masses could effectively use their voting rights. Furthermore, the country had limited administrative experience and infrastructure to conduct elections on such a large scale.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Despite these challenges, India’s leadership took the bold step of introducing universal adult franchise, believing it would strengthen the democratic fabric of the nation. Over time, this experiment proved successful and laid the foundation for India’s robust democratic processes. Quick Tip: India’s experiment with universal adult franchise is an example of how democracy can thrive even in a country with challenges such as illiteracy and poverty.


Question 18:

Highlight the main reason for the beginning of the ‘Era of Coalitions’ in India in 1989.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The main reason for the beginning of the ‘Era of Coalitions’ in India in 1989 was the decline in the dominance of single-party rule, particularly the Indian National Congress (INC), and the emergence of regional and smaller parties gaining political importance. This shift was a direct consequence of several factors:


Weakening of the Congress Party: By the late 1980s, the Indian National Congress (INC), which had been the dominant party since independence, faced internal instability and reduced popularity. The assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1984 and the subsequent leadership struggles within the Congress party weakened its hold on power.

Rise of Regional Parties: The rise of regional parties with strong support bases in specific states, such as the Janata Dal in the north and the DMK in Tamil Nadu, marked the beginning of coalition politics. These parties began to assert their power and played a crucial role in shaping government formation.

Increase in Electoral Fragmentation: The 1989 general elections saw an increase in the fragmentation of votes, where no single party could secure an absolute majority. This fragmentation forced the formation of coalitions between various parties, including national and regional ones.

Political Instability and New Alliances: The inability of any party to form a stable government without alliances led to the formation of the first coalition government, under the leadership of V.P. Singh, marking the beginning of coalition politics in India.


Thus, the key factor leading to the 'Era of Coalitions' in 1989 was the decline of Congress dominance, the rise of regional parties, and the electoral fragmentation that led to coalition governments. Quick Tip: The Era of Coalitions in India began as a result of regionalism, weakening of national parties, and fragmented voting patterns.


SECTION-C

Question 19:

"Nehru was an ardent advocate of Asian Unity." Justify the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Nehru’s vision for Asian Unity.

Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, was a staunch advocate of Asian Unity and believed that countries in Asia should come together for mutual cooperation and development. He viewed Asia as a region that could become a powerful voice on the global stage if its nations were united, especially in the post-colonial world.

Step 2: Nehru’s efforts towards Asian Unity.

1. Bandung Conference (1955): Nehru played a key role in organizing the Bandung Conference, which brought together 29 Asian and African countries. The conference was an important step toward fostering solidarity among newly independent nations and promoting economic and political cooperation.

2. Non-Aligned Movement (NAM): Nehru was a founding member of the Non-Aligned Movement, which aimed to keep Asian countries free from the influence of both the Western and Soviet blocs during the Cold War. He believed that the Asian countries should have an independent foreign policy and unite for peace and development.

3. Support for Asian Regionalism: Nehru consistently advocated for the establishment of strong regional institutions like the Asian Relations Conference and the Asian Development Bank, which would help in addressing common challenges faced by Asian countries.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Through these efforts, Nehru laid the foundation for stronger cooperation among Asian countries, highlighting his commitment to Asian Unity and his belief in the power of a united Asia on the global stage. Quick Tip: Nehru's vision for Asian Unity was not only about economic cooperation but also about political solidarity in the face of colonial and imperialist pressures.


Question 20:

Explain any two causes of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Soviet Union’s disintegration.

The disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991 was the result of a series of political, economic, and social factors that led to the collapse of the once-powerful communist superpower. The Soviet Union faced multiple internal crises that weakened its cohesion.

Step 2: Two major causes of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

1. Economic stagnation and inefficiency: By the 1980s, the Soviet economy was facing severe stagnation. The centralized planning model was failing to meet the demands of modern economies, and the state-controlled system struggled to adapt to technological advances. The inefficiency in resource allocation, corruption, and poor industrial performance contributed to growing discontent and economic decline.

2. Political reforms and loss of control (Gorbachev’s policies): In the mid-1980s, Mikhail Gorbachev introduced political reforms such as perestroika (economic restructuring) and glasnost (political openness) in an attempt to revitalize the Soviet system. However, these reforms led to a loss of control over the republics, increasing calls for autonomy. The weakening of central authority allowed nationalist movements in various republics to gain momentum, eventually leading to the dissolution of the union.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The combination of economic challenges and political reforms created a perfect storm for the collapse of the Soviet Union, resulting in the independence of former Soviet republics and the end of the Cold War era. Quick Tip: The disintegration of the Soviet Union is often attributed to the failure of both the economy and the political system, exacerbated by Gorbachev’s reforms.


Question 21(a):

Highlight any two lessons learnt from the imposition of Emergency in India in 1975.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the context of the Emergency in 1975.

The Emergency in India was declared by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on the grounds of internal disturbances. It lasted from 1975 to 1977, during which civil liberties were suspended, elections were postponed, and political opposition was suppressed.


Step 2: Lessons Learned.

Lesson 1: Importance of safeguarding democratic institutions. The imposition of Emergency showed how fragile democratic institutions can be in a country, especially when executive powers are misused. The importance of maintaining checks and balances to ensure that any power doesn't become autocratic was highlighted.
Lesson 2: Need for the protection of civil liberties. The Emergency demonstrated the critical need to protect individual rights and freedoms, as these were suspended during the Emergency. The experience reinforced the need for legal safeguards against arbitrary actions by the state.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The imposition of the Emergency taught India the importance of preserving democracy and the necessity of maintaining constitutional safeguards against abuses of power. Quick Tip: The Emergency of 1975 is a stark reminder of the potential for authoritarianism in democracies, emphasizing the need for constant vigilance.


Question 21(b):

Highlight any four consequences of the imposition of Emergency in India in 1975.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the consequences of the Emergency.

The Emergency in India had far-reaching political, social, and economic consequences, many of which still affect Indian politics today.


Step 2: Four Consequences.

Consequences 1: Suspension of civil liberties. The most immediate effect was the suspension of fundamental rights, including freedom of speech, assembly, and the press. Political opponents were arrested, and censorship was imposed on the media.
Consequences 2: Centralization of power. The Emergency saw a dramatic shift in power towards the Prime Minister’s office. The executive exercised unchecked power, bypassing the legislative and judicial branches of the government.
Consequences 3: Political opposition was suppressed. Opposition leaders and activists were either arrested or forced into hiding. Political parties and groups that opposed the ruling party were not allowed to function freely during this time.
Consequences 4: The 1977 General Elections. Following the end of the Emergency, a general election was held in 1977, which resulted in a massive defeat for Indira Gandhi and her party, the Congress. This marked a significant shift in Indian politics, with the Janata Party coming to power.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The imposition of the Emergency had a profound impact on Indian politics and governance. It led to the erosion of democratic norms and civil liberties but also sparked a political awakening that later led to greater political accountability. Quick Tip: The Emergency of 1975 serves as a reminder of the potential dangers of unchecked political power and the importance of democratic institutions.


Question 22(a):

Explain any two economic consequences of globalization.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Globalisation has had several significant economic consequences, some of which are:


Increased Trade and Investment: Globalisation has led to an increase in international trade and foreign direct investment (FDI). Countries are now more interconnected than ever, with multinational corporations establishing their presence across borders. This has opened up markets for goods, services, and capital, leading to economic growth and greater competition. For example, countries that were previously isolated or had protectionist policies are now integrated into the global economy.

Income Inequality: While globalisation has increased wealth in many countries, it has also contributed to growing income inequality. Developed countries have seen significant economic gains, while many developing nations have faced challenges in benefiting equally from global economic processes. The wealth generated from globalisation tends to be unevenly distributed, with a small percentage of the population controlling the majority of the resources, exacerbating the wealth gap.


These economic consequences highlight both the positive and negative effects of globalisation, which have created new opportunities as well as new challenges for countries and individuals. Quick Tip: When discussing economic consequences, focus on both the benefits (e.g., increased trade and investment) and the drawbacks (e.g., income inequality) of globalisation.


Question 22(b):

Explain any two political consequences of globalization.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the concept of globalization.

Globalization refers to the process of increased interconnectedness and interdependence of countries in terms of trade, investment, technology, culture, and governance. This phenomenon has not only economic but also significant political consequences for countries around the world.

Step 2: Two political consequences of globalization.

1. Erosion of national sovereignty: Globalization has led to a reduction in the control that individual countries have over their own political affairs. International organizations like the United Nations, World Trade Organization (WTO), and International Monetary Fund (IMF) influence national policies, sometimes limiting governments’ ability to make independent political decisions. This has led to concerns about the loss of sovereignty, especially for smaller or less powerful nations.

2. Rise of regional and global governance: As a result of globalization, there has been a rise in the importance of regional and global governance structures. This includes institutions like the European Union (EU) or trade agreements like NAFTA and the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP). These entities shape national political agendas and policies, reflecting the growing importance of collective decision-making on global issues such as climate change, terrorism, and economic stability.


Step 3: Conclusion.

While globalization has led to greater cooperation and collaboration between countries, it has also introduced challenges related to national sovereignty and the balance between local and global political power. Quick Tip: Globalization often requires countries to adjust their domestic policies to align with international standards, affecting their political freedom and sovereignty.


Question 23:

Name the leaders who signed the Punjab Accord and explain any two provisions of this accord.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The Punjab Accord, also known as the “Rajiv-Longowal Accord,” was signed on August 24, 1985, between the Government of India and the leaders of the Sikh community. The key leaders involved in signing the Punjab Accord were:


Rajiv Gandhi – Prime Minister of India at the time.
Surjit Singh Barnala – The then Chief Minister of Punjab.
Harchand Singh Longowal – The President of the Shiromani Akali Dal (SAD), representing the Sikh community.


The two main provisions of the Punjab Accord were:


Autonomy for Punjab: The accord provided for greater autonomy to the state of Punjab. It ensured that the state would receive more control over its internal governance, and the central government agreed to transfer some powers to the Punjab state government, addressing the demands of the Sikh community.

Restoration of Sikh Rights: The accord promised to safeguard the rights and interests of the Sikh community, including the implementation of measures to ensure their welfare. It also provided for a fair representation of Sikhs in various state and central government posts and addressed issues related to the recovery of “black money” that had been taken by certain individuals during the period of militancy.


The Punjab Accord was seen as a step toward restoring peace and normalcy in Punjab, after years of militancy and unrest. Quick Tip: Remember that the Punjab Accord was a landmark agreement aimed at resolving the Sikh issues, with provisions for autonomy and the restoration of Sikh rights in Punjab.


SECTION-D

Question 24:

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The growing focus on environmental issues within the arena of global politics was firmly consolidated at United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro of Brazil. This was also called the Earth Summit.


(i).In which year was the Earth Summit held?

  • (A) \( 1990 \)
  • (B) \( 1991 \)
  • (C) \( 1992 \)
  • (D) \( 1993 \)
Correct Answer: (C) 1992
View Solution

The Earth Summit, formally known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. This conference was a landmark event in global environmental policy. Quick Tip: The 1992 Earth Summit led to important environmental agreements such as Agenda 21, the Rio Declaration, and the Convention on Biological Diversity.


Question 24(ii):

Which one of the following countries was exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol?

  • (A) \( USA \)
  • (B) \( United Kingdom \)
  • (C) \( France \)
  • (D) \( China \)
Correct Answer: (D) China
View Solution

The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, imposed binding emission reduction targets on developed countries. However, China, being a developing country at the time, was exempted from these obligations. Quick Tip: The Kyoto Protocol categorized countries into developed and developing nations, with only developed nations having binding emission reduction targets.


Question 24(iii):

Which one of the following was not an outcome of the Rio Summit?

  • (A) \( Agenda-21 \)
  • (B) \( Sustainable Development \)
  • (C) \( Common but differentiated responsibilities \)
  • (D) \( Kyoto Protocol \)
Correct Answer: (D) Kyoto Protocol
View Solution

The Rio Summit in 1992 led to Agenda 21, the principle of sustainable development, and the concept of "common but differentiated responsibilities." The Kyoto Protocol, however, was adopted later in 1997 as part of the UNFCCC process. Quick Tip: The Rio Summit focused on sustainable development, while the Kyoto Protocol (1997) specifically addressed climate change by setting emission targets.


Question 24(iv):

The Ozone hole was discovered in the mid-80s over the ______.

  • (A) \( Atlantic Ocean \)
  • (B) \( Pacific Ocean \)
  • (C) \( Antarctic \)
  • (D) \( Arctic Ocean \)
Correct Answer: (C) Antarctic
View Solution

The ozone hole was first discovered over Antarctica in the mid-1980s. It was attributed to chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) emissions, leading to the 1987 Montreal Protocol, which aimed to phase out ozone-depleting substances. Quick Tip: The Montreal Protocol is a landmark agreement to protect the ozone layer by phasing out substances that cause ozone depletion.


Question 24:

In the given outline Map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in the answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the format that follows :





(i) The State to which the former Congress President K. Kamraj belonged.

(ii) The State from where the phrase 'Aya Ram, Gaya Ram' originated.

(iii) The State to which former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.

(iv) The State where the Congress Party did not get majority in 1967 assembly elections.


Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: (i) The State to which the former Congress President K. Kamraj belonged.

K. Kamraj was a senior Congress leader and served as the Chief Minister of Madras State (now Tamil Nadu). He was instrumental in implementing the mid-day meal scheme and later became the President of the Indian National Congress.

Answer: C – Tamil Nadu



Step 2: (ii) The State from where the phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originated.

The phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originated in Haryana in 1967 when MLA Gaya Lal switched parties multiple times within the same day. It became symbolic of political defections in India.

Answer: D – Haryana



Step 3: (iii) The State to which former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.

Lal Bahadur Shastri, the second Prime Minister of India, was born in Mughalsarai, which is located in present-day Uttar Pradesh. He is known for his slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan.”

Answer: A – Uttar Pradesh



Step 4: (iv) The State where the Congress Party did not get majority in 1967 assembly elections.

In the 1967 state assembly elections, the Congress Party failed to secure a majority in several states including Rajasthan. It was a landmark election that challenged Congress dominance at the state level.

Answer: B – Rajasthan Quick Tip: When identifying the states, remember the historical figures associated with them. K. Kamraj was a prominent leader from Tamil Nadu, and Lal Bahadur Shastri hailed from Uttar Pradesh.


Question 25.1:

Name the State where the Congress Party did not get majority in the 1967 assembly elections.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The Congress Party did not get a majority in the 1967 assembly elections in Punjab. Quick Tip: The 1967 election saw a significant shift, particularly in Punjab, where the Congress Party faced its first defeat after independence.


Question 25.2:

Name the State to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged to the State of Uttar Pradesh. Quick Tip: Lal Bahadur Shastri, India’s second Prime Minister, hailed from Uttar Pradesh. He played a key role during the 1965 India-Pakistan war.


Question 25.3:

The phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originated from which State?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The phrase \textit{‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originated in Haryana. Quick Tip: This phrase originated in Haryana and symbolizes the frequent defections of politicians in the 1960s.


Question 25.4:

The former Congress President K. Kamraj belonged to which State?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



K. Kamraj, the former Congress President, belonged to Tamil Nadu. Quick Tip: K. Kamraj was a prominent leader from Tamil Nadu who played a significant role in the Congress party during the 1960s.


Question 26:

Study the cartoon given below related to Sri Lanka and answer the questions that follow :





26 (i).
Which community does the tiger shown in the cartoon represent?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the symbol of the tiger.

In the context of Sri Lankan politics, the tiger represents the Tamil community, specifically the militant group known as LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the tiger shown in the cartoon represents the Tamil community of Sri Lanka. Quick Tip: The LTTE used the tiger symbol to represent Tamil nationalism and the demand for a separate Tamil state.


Question 26(ii):

Which community does the lion shown in the cartoon represent?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the symbol of the lion.

The lion is a national symbol of Sri Lanka and is associated with the Sinhalese ethnic group, which forms the majority population in the country.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Hence, the lion shown in the cartoon represents the Sinhalese community. Quick Tip: The lion on the Sri Lankan national flag symbolizes the strength and identity of the Sinhalese majority.


Question 26(iii):

What did the balancing act by Rajpakshe aim at? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Analyzing the cartoon.

The cartoon shows Mahinda Rajapaksa trying to balance a stick between a lion (Sinhalese) and a tiger (Tamil), which symbolizes the difficulty in managing the demands of both communities.

Step 2: Aim of the balancing act.

Rajapaksa’s balancing act aimed at maintaining national unity and political stability by dealing with the Tamil demands for autonomy and the Sinhalese majority’s demand for a strong, united Sri Lanka. It also reflected the efforts to manage civil unrest and ethnic violence.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The balancing act symbolized efforts to avoid civil war, manage ethnic tensions, and maintain control amidst rising separatist sentiments. Quick Tip: Balancing ethnic interests in a multi-community country like Sri Lanka requires careful negotiation and inclusive governance.


Question 26.1:

Name the two main communities of Sri Lanka.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The two main communities of Sri Lanka are:

Sinhalese – The majority community.
Tamils – The minority community. Quick Tip: Ethnic tension between these two communities led to prolonged civil conflict in Sri Lanka.


Question 26.2:

Write the correct expansion of LTTE.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



LTTE stands for: Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam Quick Tip: The LTTE was a militant organization that demanded a separate Tamil state in Sri Lanka.


Question 26.3:

In which year did Sri Lanka get independence?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Sri Lanka gained independence from British rule in the year 1948. Quick Tip: Sri Lanka was formerly known as Ceylon under British colonial rule.


Question 26.4:

Name the country which mediated in the Ethnic conflict of Sri Lanka.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The country that mediated in the ethnic conflict of Sri Lanka was Norway. Quick Tip: Norway played a key role as a peace mediator during the early 2000s in the Sri Lankan civil conflict.


SECTION-E

Question 27(a):

Describe the composition of the United Nations Security Council and the suggested reforms to make it more relevant.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, responsible for maintaining international peace and security. It consists of:


Permanent Members: The UNSC has five permanent members with veto power: the United States, the United Kingdom, France, Russia, and China. These nations are considered the victors of World War II and are permanent members with the authority to veto any substantive resolution.

Non-Permanent Members: The UNSC also has 10 non-permanent members, elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly. These members do not have veto power and are chosen based on geographical representation.

Reforms Suggested:

Expansion of Permanent Members: Many countries, including India, Brazil, and Germany, have called for an increase in the number of permanent members to better reflect the changing global dynamics.
Removal of the Veto Power: There have been suggestions to either limit or remove the veto power of the permanent members, as it is seen as a hindrance to the decision-making process in urgent global crises.
Inclusion of Developing Countries: To make the UNSC more representative of the global population, it has been suggested that countries from Africa, Asia, and Latin America should be given permanent seats in the UNSC.



The proposed reforms aim to make the Security Council more democratic, inclusive, and relevant to contemporary global issues. Quick Tip: The main criticism of the UNSC is its outdated structure, where the permanent members hold disproportionate power. Reforms aim to reflect global changes and ensure more equitable representation.


Question 27(b):

Describe any four changes that occurred in world politics after the end of the Cold War.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The end of the Cold War in 1991 marked a significant shift in world politics. Some of the major changes include:


End of Bipolarity: The Cold War era was characterised by the bipolar rivalry between the United States (representing the capitalist bloc) and the Soviet Union (representing the communist bloc). With the collapse of the Soviet Union, the world moved towards a unipolar system, dominated by the United States.

Expansion of Democracy and Capitalism: With the end of communist rule in Eastern Europe and the dissolution of the USSR, many countries transitioned to democratic forms of government and adopted market-oriented economic policies. The spread of democracy and capitalism became a major feature of the post-Cold War world.

Rise of New Regional Powers: The end of the Cold War saw the emergence of new regional powers, particularly China and India, who began to play more active roles in global politics. These countries pursued their own economic growth strategies and became important actors in international relations.

Growth of International Institutions: With the Cold War over, there was a greater emphasis on multilateral diplomacy and the strengthening of international institutions like the United Nations, World Trade Organization (WTO), and the European Union (EU). These organisations began to focus more on global cooperation, peacekeeping, human rights, and economic development.


The end of the Cold War led to a more interconnected and multipolar world, with new challenges and opportunities in global politics. Quick Tip: The post-Cold War era saw the dissolution of old power structures and the rise of new actors and international organisations. The focus shifted from ideological confrontation to global cooperation and economic development.


Question 28(a):

Analyse any four factors that make the European Union an influential regional organisation of the world.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The European Union (EU) is one of the most powerful and influential regional organisations in the world due to the following factors:


Economic Power: The EU forms the world’s largest economy when counted as a bloc. It accounts for a significant portion of the world’s GDP and international trade. Its economic strength allows it to exert influence in global financial institutions like the IMF and WTO.

Single Currency – Euro: The introduction of a common currency, the Euro, used by many EU countries, has enhanced economic integration, facilitated trade, and made the EU a strong monetary union.

Political Integration: The EU functions through various political institutions like the European Parliament and the European Commission. It plays a unified role in global political issues, including diplomacy, environmental agreements, and human rights advocacy.

Diplomatic and Military Influence: Although it does not have a unified military, the EU exercises considerable soft power through diplomacy, aid, and peacekeeping missions. Some EU member countries are also part of NATO, increasing their strategic global influence. Quick Tip: Remember the EU’s influence comes from its economic size, common currency, political unity, and strategic diplomatic power.


Question 28(b):

Analyse any four objectives of establishing the regional organisations.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Regional organisations are established by countries within a geographical area to achieve common goals. The four main objectives include:


Promoting Peace and Security: Regional organisations aim to reduce tensions, prevent conflicts, and promote political stability among member states through dialogue, diplomacy, and cooperative frameworks.

Enhancing Economic Cooperation: They foster trade, investment, and economic integration among member countries. Common markets and free trade agreements increase regional development and competitiveness.

Addressing Common Issues: Regional organisations work together to solve shared challenges such as climate change, health crises, terrorism, and transnational crimes, which require collective responses.

Strengthening Regional Identity: Such organisations promote a sense of unity and regional identity among culturally or historically connected nations, encouraging solidarity and cooperation beyond national interests. Quick Tip: Regional organisations aim to maintain peace, boost economic ties, tackle common issues, and create a sense of shared identity.


Question 29(a):

Describe the process of reorganisation of States in India after independence.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



After India gained independence in 1947, the issue of reorganising the states was crucial to ensure effective governance and accommodate linguistic, cultural, and historical differences. The process of reorganisation unfolded in several stages:


Initial States: Initially, the States of India were divided into two categories: British Indian provinces and princely states. The princely states were not part of the British Empire but had agreements with the British government, which resulted in their gradual integration into the Indian Union.

Sardar Patel’s Role: One of the major achievements of the early years of independence was the integration of princely states. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the first Deputy Prime Minister, played a crucial role in persuading the princely states to join the Indian Union, ensuring political stability.

States Reorganisation Act (1956): This act was a major step towards reorganisation based on linguistic lines. It abolished the old provinces and reorganised them into states based on linguistic and cultural factors. States like Andhra Pradesh were formed in 1953 with the creation of a separate state for Telugu speakers.

Further Reorganisation: Over the years, the reorganisation process continued to reflect regional and linguistic demands. For example, in 1960, the state of Maharashtra and Gujarat were created from the bilingual Bombay State. Later, the creation of states like Uttarakhand (2000) and Chhattisgarh (2000) also contributed to the ongoing reorganisation.


The reorganisation of states in India was a significant step towards promoting administrative efficiency, social justice, and regional balance. Quick Tip: The reorganisation of states based on linguistic lines aimed at resolving regional disparities and fostering cultural harmony.


Question 29(b):

Describe any three problems faced by India to get the merger of princely states into the India Union.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



At the time of independence, India had approximately 565 princely states that were ruled by native kings and had the option to join either India or Pakistan. India faced several problems in getting the princely states to merge into the Union:


Resistance from Princely Rulers: Many princely states were hesitant to join India due to their desire for autonomy or political leverage. Some rulers were under pressure from external powers or internal forces that were against union with India. The most notable example was the Nizam of Hyderabad, who initially refused to join India and declared his state as independent.

Threat of Partition: In the case of Kashmir, the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir's accession to India was delayed, and Pakistan continued to contest its status. The uncertainty surrounding the merger of such important states posed a risk of further fragmentation and instability.

External Pressure and Manipulation: Pakistan attempted to influence certain princely states to join Pakistan, especially in regions like Kashmir, which had a majority Muslim population. The Indian government had to diplomatically persuade many rulers to join the Indian Union.


The integration of these princely states was crucial for ensuring the territorial integrity of the newly independent Indian state. Sardar Patel's leadership was instrumental in this process. Quick Tip: The integration of princely states was a monumental task that required both diplomacy and, in some cases, military intervention to ensure national unity.


Question 30(a):

Explain any three important issues on which a consensus has emerged among most political parties of India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding consensus in Indian politics.

Despite ideological differences, there are several important national issues where most political parties in India have reached a consensus. These issues reflect shared concerns for national development, security, and social justice.

Step 2: Three important issues with a political consensus.

1. Democracy and secularism: Most political parties in India agree on the importance of upholding the democratic system and maintaining the secular fabric of the nation. They support regular elections, the protection of fundamental rights, and the equal treatment of all religions under the law.

2. National security: National security is a critical issue on which political parties across the spectrum generally agree. All parties support the protection of India's borders, the maintenance of a strong defense force, and addressing internal security concerns like terrorism and insurgency.

3. Economic liberalization: Since the 1990s, most political parties have supported the liberalization of the Indian economy. While there may be differences on the extent of reforms, most parties agree on the need for economic growth through market reforms, foreign investment, and the privatization of state-owned enterprises.


Step 3: Conclusion.

These issues represent areas of broad agreement that have shaped India's political discourse, enabling the country to pursue consistent policies despite changing governments. Quick Tip: In India, consensus on issues like secularism, national security, and economic growth has helped maintain stability and continuity in governance.


Question 30(b):

Explain any three benefits of the coalition governments formed in India since 1989.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding coalition governments in India.

Since 1989, India has witnessed the formation of coalition governments at the Center. These governments are formed when no single party has a clear majority, leading to alliances among different political parties.

Step 2: Three benefits of coalition governments.

1. Representation of diverse interests: Coalition governments allow for greater representation of diverse political, social, and regional interests. Smaller parties, especially those from regional areas, are included in the governance process, ensuring that different sections of society have a voice in policymaking.

2. Political stability through consensus: Coalition politics fosters a culture of negotiation and consensus-building. While this can sometimes lead to slow decision-making, it ensures that policies are more inclusive and less prone to abrupt changes, leading to longer-term stability.

3. Focus on regional development: Coalition governments often give more importance to regional issues, as they require support from regional parties to stay in power. This has led to better attention to regional development needs and has empowered states to have a greater say in national policies.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Although coalition governments face challenges in terms of governance and decision-making, they have provided an opportunity for more inclusive representation and have brought regional issues to the forefront in national policy discussions. Quick Tip: Coalition governments have made Indian democracy more inclusive by providing space for regional and smaller parties in the decision-making process.