The AP EAMCET 2025 Engineering Exam for May 27, 2025, Shift 1 was conducted from 9:00 A.M. to 12:00 P.M., in more than 117 examination centres across Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.

The AP EAMCET 2025 was conducted in a CBT Mode, and the AP EAMCET Question Paper included 160 MCQs, covering 80 in Mathematics and 40 each in Physics and Chemistry. With one mark for each correct answer and no negative marking.

AP EAMCET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF May 27 Shift 1

AP EAMCET 2025 May 27 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

If \( f : \mathbb{R} \to A \), defined by \( f(x) = \cos x + \sqrt{3} \sin x - 1 \), is an onto function, then \( A = \)

  • (1) \([-1, 2]\)
  • (2) \([- \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{3}]\)
  • (3) \([-3, 1]\)
  • (4) \([-2, 2]\)

Question 2:

Let \( g(x) = 1 + x - \lfloor x \rfloor \) and \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} -1, & x < 0
0, & x = 0
1, & x > 0 \end{cases} \]
where \( \lfloor x \rfloor \) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \( x \). Then for all \( x \), \( f(g(x)) = \)

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( x \)
  • (3) \( f(x) \)
  • (4) \( g(x) \)

Question 3:

The remainder obtained when \( (2m + 1)^{2n} \), \( m, n \in \mathbb{N} \) is divided by 8 is

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( 2 \)
  • (3) \( 3 \)
  • (4) \( 4 \)

Question 4:

A value of \( \theta \) lying between \( 0 \) and \( \dfrac{\pi}{2} \) and satisfying
\[ \begin{vmatrix} 1 + \sin^2 \theta & \cos^2 \theta & 4\sin 4\theta
\sin^2 \theta & 1 + \cos^2 \theta & 4\sin 4\theta
\sin^2 \theta & \cos^2 \theta & 1 + 4\sin 4\theta \end{vmatrix} = 0 \]

is:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{5\pi}{24} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{7\pi}{24} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{\pi}{8} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{3\pi}{8} \)

Question 5:

If the system of equations \( 2x + py + 6z = 8 \), \( x + 2y + qz = 5 \) and \( x + y + 3z = 4 \) has infinitely many solutions, then \( p = \)?

  • (1) \(-1\)
  • (2) \(2\)
  • (3) \(3\)
  • (4) \(-3\)

Question 6:

If \( x^a y^b = e^m, \quad x^c y^d = e^n \), and
\[ \Delta_1 = \begin{vmatrix} m & b
n & d
\end{vmatrix}, \quad \Delta_2 = \begin{vmatrix} a & m
c & n
\end{vmatrix}, \quad \Delta_3 = \begin{vmatrix} a & b
c & d
\end{vmatrix} \]

then the values of \( x \) and \( y \) respectively (where \( e \) is the base of the natural logarithm) are:

  • (1) \( \frac{\Delta_1}{\Delta_3} \) and \( \frac{\Delta_2}{\Delta_3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\Delta_2}{\Delta_1} \) and \( \frac{\Delta_3}{\Delta_1} \)
  • (3) \( \log\left( \frac{\Delta_1}{\Delta_3} \right) \) and \( \log\left( \frac{\Delta_2}{\Delta_3} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\Delta_1}{e^{\Delta_3}} \) and \( \frac{\Delta_2}{e^{\Delta_3}} \)

Question 7:

If \( z \) and \( \omega \) are two non-zero complex numbers such that \( |z\omega| = 1 \)  and \[ \arg(z) - \arg(\omega) = \frac{\pi{2}, \]
then the value of \( \overline{z\omega \) is:

  • (1) \( i \)
  • (2) \( -1 \)
  • (3) \( 1 \)
  • (4) \( -i \)

Question 8:

Let \( z \) satisfy \( |z| = 1, \ z = 1 - \overline{z} and \operatorname{Im}(z) > 0 \)
Then consider:
Statement-I : \( z \) is a real number
Statement-II : Principal argument of \( z \) is \( \dfrac{\pi}{3} \)

Then:

  • (1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true and Statement-II is a correct explanation of Statement-I
  • (2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, but Statement-II is not a correct explanation of Statement-I
  • (3) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
  • (4) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false

Question 9:

If \( \omega_1 \) and \( \omega_2 \) are two non-zero complex numbers and \( a, b \) are non-zero real numbers such that \[ |a\omega_1 + b\omega_2| = |a\omega_1 - b\omega_2|, \]
then \( \dfrac{\omega_1}{\omega_2} \) is:

  • (1) a positive real number
  • (2) a negative real number
  • (3) zero
  • (4) purely imaginary number

Question 10:

If \( \alpha \) is the common root of the quadratic equations \( x^2 - 5x + 4a = 0 \) and \( x^2 - 2ax - 8 = 0 \), where \( a \in \mathbb{R} \), then the value of \( \alpha^4 - \alpha^3 + 68 \) is:

  • (1) 260
  • (2) 250
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 240

Question 11:

If \( \alpha, \beta \) are the roots of \( x^2 - 5x - 68 = 0 \) and \( \gamma, \delta \) are the roots of \( x^2 - 5\alpha x - 6\beta = 0 \), then \( \alpha + \beta + \gamma + \delta = \) ?

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 125
  • (3) 144
  • (4) 180

Question 12:

The equation \[ x^{\frac{3}{4}(\log_{x} x)^2 + \log_{x} x^{-\frac{5}{4}}} = \sqrt{2} \]
has

  • (1) no real roots
  • (2) only one real solution
  • (3) exactly two real solutions
  • (4) exactly three real solutions

Question 13:

If \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) are the roots of the equation \[ x^3 + px^2 + qx + r = 0, \]
then \[ (\alpha + \beta)(\beta + \gamma)(\gamma + \alpha) =\ ? \]

  • (1) \( p - qr \)
  • (2) \( q - rp \)
  • (3) \( r - pq \)
  • (4) \( r + pq \)

Question 14:

An eight digit number divisible by 9 is to be formed using digits from 0 to 9 without repeating the digits. The number of ways in which this can be done is

  • (1) \( 18 \times 7! \)
  • (2) \( 24 \times 7! \)
  • (3) \( 36 \times 7! \)
  • (4) \( 72 \times 7! \)

Question 15:

\[ \sum_{r=1}^{15} r^2 \left( \frac{{}^{15}C_r}{{}^{15}C_{r-1}} \right) =\ ? \]

  • (1) \(560\)
  • (2) \(680\)
  • (3) \(840\)
  • (4) \(1020\)

Question 16:

A string of letters is to be formed by using 4 letters from all the letters of the word “MATHEMATICS”. The number of ways this can be done such that two letters are of same kind and the other two are of different kind is

  • (1) 756
  • (2) 252
  • (3) 840
  • (4) 360

Question 17:

Evaluate the following expression: \[ \frac{1}{81^n} - \binom{2n}{1} \cdot \frac{10}{81^n} + \binom{2n}{2} \cdot \frac{10^2}{81^n} - \cdots + \frac{10^{2n}}{81^n} = ? \]

  • (1) \( 0 \)
  • (2) \( (-1)^n \)
  • (3) \( 1 \)
  • (4) \( 81 \)

Question 18:

If \( x \) is a positive real number and the first negative term in the expansion of \[ (1 + x)^{27/5} is t_k, then k =\ ? \]

  • (1) \( 5 \)
  • (2) \( 6 \)
  • (3) \( 7 \)
  • (4) \( 8 \)

Question 19:

If \[ \frac{x^2}{(x^2 + 2)(x^4 - 1)} = \frac{A}{x^2 - 1} + \frac{B}{x^2 + 1} + \frac{C}{x^2 + 2}, then A + B - C =\ ? \]

  • (1) \( 0 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (4) \( 2 \)

Question 20:

If \[ \cos x + \sin x = \frac{1}{2} \quad and \quad 0 < x < \pi, then \tan x =\ ? \]

  • (1) \( \frac{1 + \sqrt{7}}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1 - \sqrt{7}}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4 - \sqrt{7}}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4 + \sqrt{7}}{3} \)

Question 21:

If \[ ​ \sin \theta + 2 \cos \theta = 1  and \theta lies in the 4th quadrant (not on coordinate axes), then 7 \cos \theta + 6 \sin \theta = ? \]

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{17} \)
  • (2) \( 2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{7}{17} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4}{5} \)

Question 22:

If \( A \) and \( B \) are acute angles satisfying \[ 3\cos^2 A + 2\cos^2 B = 4 \quad and \quad \frac{3 \sin A}{\sin B} = \frac{2 \cos B}{\cos A}, \]
then \( A + 2B = \ ? \)

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)

Question 23:

Statement-I: In the interval \( [0, 2\pi] \), the number of common solutions of the equations \[ 2\sin^2\theta - \cos 2\theta = 0 \quad and \quad 2\cos^2\theta - 3\sin\theta = 0 \]
is two.


Statement-II: The number of solutions of \[ 2\cos^2\theta - 3\sin\theta = 0 \]
in \( [0, \pi] \) is two.

  • (1) Statement-I and Statement-II are both true
  • (2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
  • (3) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
  • (4) Statement-I and Statement-II are both false

Question 24:

The equation \[ \cos^{-1}(1 - x) - 2 \cos^{-1} x = \frac{\pi}{2} \]
has:

  • (1) No solution
  • (2) Only one solution
  • (3) Two solutions
  • (4) More than two solutions

Question 25:

If \( \sinh^{-1}(2) + \sinh^{-1}(3) = \alpha \), then \( \sinh\alpha = \) ?

  • (1) \( 2\sqrt{5} + 3\sqrt{10} \)
  • (2) \( 2\sqrt{10} + 4\sqrt{5} \)
  • (3) \( 3\sqrt{10} + 4\sqrt{5} \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{10} + 3\sqrt{5} \)

Question 26:

In \( \triangle ABC \), if A, B, C are in arithmetic progression, then \[ \sqrt{a^2 - ac + c^2} \cdot \cos\left(\frac{A - C}{2}\right) =\ ? \]

  • (1) \( a + c \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{a + c}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{a + c - b}{2} \)
  • (4) \( a - c \)

Question 27:

If in \( \triangle ABC \), \( B = 45^\circ \), \( a = 2(\sqrt{3} + 1) \) and area of \( \triangle ABC \) is \( 6 + 2\sqrt{3} \) sq. units, then the side \( b = \ ? \)

  • (1) \( 8 - 4\sqrt{3} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2}(\sqrt{3} + 1) \)
  • (3) \( 4\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 4 \)

Question 28:

In \( \triangle ABC \), if \( \sin^2 B = \sin A \) and \( 2\cos^2 A = 3\cos^2 B \), then the triangle is:

  • (1) acute angled
  • (2) obtuse angled
  • (3) right angled
  • (4) equilateral

Question 29:

If the position vectors of A, B, C, D are \( \vec{A} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}, \vec{B} = 2\hat{i} - \hat{j}, \vec{C} = \hat{i} + \hat{j} + 3\hat{k}, \vec{D} = 4\hat{j} + 5\hat{k} \),
then the quadrilateral ABCD is a:

  • (1) square
  • (2) rectangle
  • (3) rhombus
  • (4) parallelogram

Question 30:

The set of all real values of \( c \) so that the angle between the vectors
\( \vec{a} = c\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \) and \( \vec{b} = x\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 2c\hat{k} \) is an obtuse angle for all real \( x \), is:

  • (1) \( \left(0, \dfrac{4}{3} \right] \)
  • (2) \( \left(0, \dfrac{2}{3} \right] \)
  • (3) \( \left( -\dfrac{2}{3}, 0 \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left( -\dfrac{4}{3}, 0 \right) \)

Question 31:

Let \( \vec{a} = 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \), \( \vec{b} = 3\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + \hat{k} \), and \( \vec{c} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \) be three vectors. If \( \vec{r} \) is a vector such that \( \vec{r} \times \vec{a} = \vec{r} \times \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{c} = 18 \), then the magnitude of the orthogonal projection of \( 4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - \hat{k} \) on \( \vec{r} \) is:

  • (1) \( 4 \)
  • (2) \( 6 \)
  • (3) \( 12 \)
  • (4) \( 24 \)

Question 32:

If \( \vec{u}, \vec{v}, \vec{w} \) are non-coplanar vectors and \( p, q \) are real numbers, then the equality: \[ [3\vec{u} \quad p\vec{v} \quad p\vec{w}] - [p\vec{v} \quad \vec{w} \quad q\vec{u}] - [2\vec{w} \quad q\vec{v} \quad q\vec{u}] = 0 \]
holds for:

  • (1) exactly one ordered pair of \( (p, q) \)
  • (2) exactly two ordered pairs of \( (p, q) \)
  • (3) all ordered pairs of \( (p, q) \)
  • (4) no ordered pair of \( (p, q) \)

Question 33:

If \( \sum\limits_{i=1}^{9} (x_i - 5) = 9 \) and \( \sum\limits_{i=1}^{9} (x_i - 5)^2 = 45 \), then the standard deviation of the nine observations \( x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_9 \) is

  • (1) \( 2 \)
  • (2) \( 4 \)
  • (3) \( 3 \)
  • (4) \( 9 \)

Question 34:

Two students appeared simultaneously for an entrance exam. If the probability that the first student gets qualified in the exam is \( \frac{1}{4} \) and the probability that the second student gets qualified in the same exam is \( \frac{2}{5} \), then the probability that at least one of them gets qualified in that exam is

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{10} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{7}{20} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{6}{10} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{11}{20} \)

Question 35:

For three events \( A, B, \) and \( C \) of a sample space, if \[ P(exactly one of A or B occurs) = P(exactly one of B or C occurs) = P(exactly one of C or A occurs) = \frac{1}{4} \]
and the probability that all three events occur simultaneously is \( \frac{1}{16} \), then the probability that at least one of the events occurs is

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{16} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{16} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{7}{16} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7}{32} \)

Question 36:

A bag P contains 4 red and 5 black balls, another bag Q contains 3 red and 6 black balls. If one ball is drawn at random from bag P and two balls are drawn from bag Q, then the probability that out of the three balls drawn two are black and one is red, is

  • (1) \( \frac{25}{54} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{25}{64} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{27}{64} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{35}{54} \)

Question 37:

On every evening, a student either watches TV or reads a book. The probability of watching TV is \( \frac{4}{5} \). If he watches TV, the probability that he will fall asleep is \( \frac{3}{4} \), and it is \( \frac{1}{4} \) when he reads a book. If the student is found to be asleep on an evening, the probability that he watched the TV is:

  • (A) \( \frac{11}{13} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{12}{13} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2}{13} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{4}{13} \)

Question 38:

Let \( X \) be the random variable taking values \( 1, 2, \dots, n \) for a fixed positive integer \( n \). If \( P(X = k) = \frac{1}{n} \) for \( 1 \leq k \leq n \), then the variance of \( X \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{n^2 - 1}{12} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{n^2 + 1}{12} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{n^2 - 1}{6} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{(n+1)(n+2)}{6} \)

Question 39:

A radar system can detect an enemy plane in one out of ten consecutive scans. The probability that it can detect an enemy plane at least twice in four consecutive scans is:

  • (A) \( 0.0422 \)
  • (B) \( 0.0523 \)
  • (C) \( 0.0535 \)
  • (D) \( 0.0623 \)

Question 40:

The locus of the third vertex of a right-angled triangle, the ends of whose hypotenuse are \( (1, 2) \) and \( (4, 5) \), is:

  • (A) \( x^2 + y^2 + 5x + 7y + 14 = 0 \)
  • (B) \( 3x + 3y - 1 = 0 \)
  • (C) \( 3x + 3y + 1 = 0 \)
  • (D) \( x^2 + y^2 - 5x - 7y + 14 = 0 \)

Question 41:

The coordinate axes are rotated about the origin in the counterclockwise direction through an angle \( 60^\circ \). If \( a \) and \( b \) are the intercepts made on the new axes by a straight line whose equation referred to the original axes is \( x + y = 1 \), then \( \dfrac{1}{a^2} + \dfrac{1}{b^2} = \, ? \)

  • (A) \( 2 \)
  • (B) \( 3 \)
  • (C) \( 4 \)
  • (D) \( 6 \)

Question 42:

The image of a point \( (2, -1) \) with respect to the line \( x - y + 1 = 0 \) is

  • (A) \( (2, -3) \)
  • (B) \( (-2, 3) \)
  • (C) \( (0, 1) \)
  • (D) \( (-1, 0) \)

Question 43:

If a straight line is at a distance of 10 units from the origin and the perpendicular drawn from the origin to it makes an angle \( \frac{\pi}{4} \) with the negative X-axis in the negative direction, then the equation of that line is

  • (A) \( x + y + 10\sqrt{2} = 0 \)
  • (B) \( x - y - 10\sqrt{2} = 0 \)
  • (C) \( x + y - 10\sqrt{2} = 0 \)
  • (D) \( x - y + 10\sqrt{2} = 0 \)

Question 44:

If one of the lines given by the pair of lines \( 3x^2 - 2y^2 + axy = 0 \) is making an angle \( 60^\circ \) with the x-axis, then \( a = \)

  • (A) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (C) \( 3 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

Question 45:

A straight line passing through the origin \( O \) meets the parallel lines \( 4x + 2y = 9 \) and \( 2x + y + 6 = 0 \) at the points \( P \) and \( Q \) respectively. Then the point \( O \) divides the line segment \( PQ \) in the ratio

  • (A) \( 1 : 2 \)
  • (B) \( 2 : 1 \)
  • (C) \( 3 : 4 \)
  • (D) \( 4 : 3 \)

Question 46:

A circle is drawn with its centre at the focus of the parabola \( y^2 = 2px \) such that it touches the directrix of the parabola. Then a point of intersection of the circle and the parabola is

  • (1) \( (2p, 2p) \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{p}{2}, -p \right) \)
  • (3) \( (2p, -2p) \)
  • (4) \( \left( p, \sqrt{2p} \right) \)

Question 47:

A circle touches both the coordinate axes and the straight line \( L \equiv 4x + 3y - 6 = 0 \) in the first quadrant. If this circle lies below the line \( L = 0 \), then the equation of that circle is

  • (1) \( 4x^2 + 4y^2 - 4x - 4y + 1 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( 4x^2 + 4y^2 - 4x - 24y + 1 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 6y + 9 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( x^2 + y^2 - 6x - y - 9 = 0 \)

Question 48:

If the smallest circle through the points of intersection of \( x^2 + y^2 = a^2 \) and \( x \cos \alpha + y \sin \alpha = p \), \( 0 < p < a \), is \[ x^2 + y^2 - a^2 + \lambda(x \cos \alpha + y \sin \alpha - p) = 0 \]
then \( \lambda = \)

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( -1 \)
  • (3) \( -p \)
  • (4) \( -2p \)

Question 49:

If the lines \( 3x - 4y + 4 = 0 \) and \( 6x - 8y - 7 = 0 \) are the tangents to the same circle, then the area of that circle (in sq. units) is

  • (1) \( \dfrac{3\pi}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{16\pi}{25} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{9\pi}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{9\pi}{16} \)

Question 50:

Circles are drawn through the point \( (2, 0) \) to cut intercepts of length 5 units on the X-axis. If their centre lies in the first quadrant, then their equation is

  • (1) \( 3x^2 + 3y^2 - 27x - 2ky + 42 = 0, \; k \in \mathbb{R}^+ \)
  • (2) \( x^2 + y^2 - 2kx - 9y + 14 = 0, \; k \in \mathbb{R}^+ \)
  • (3) \( x^2 + y^2 - 9x - 2ky + 14 = 0, \; k \in \mathbb{R}^+ \)
  • (4) \( x^2 + y^2 - 9x - 2ky - 42 = 0, \; k \in \mathbb{R}^+ \)

Question 51:

If the locus of a point that divides a chord of slope 2 of the parabola \( y^2 = 4x \) internally in the ratio 1 : 2 is a parabola, then its vertex is

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{2}{9}, \frac{8}{9} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{1}{3}, \frac{9}{9} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{4}{9}, \frac{8}{9} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{2}{9}, \frac{4}{9} \right) \)

Question 52:

Assertion (A): The length of the latus rectum of an ellipse is 4. The focus and its corresponding directrix are respectively \( (1, -2) \) and the line \( 3x + 4y - 15 = 0 \). Then its eccentricity is \( \dfrac{1}{2} \).
Reason (R): Length of the perpendicular drawn from focus of an ellipse to its corresponding directrix is \( \dfrac{a(1 - e^2)}{e} \)

Then which one of the following is correct?

  • (1) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation to (A)
  • (2) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation to (A)
  • (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false, (R) is true

Question 53:

If the eccentricity of the hyperbola \[ \frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \]
passing through the point \( (4, 6) \) is 2, then the equation of the tangent to this hyperbola at (4, 6) is

  • (1) \( 2x - 3y + 10 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( 3x - 2y = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x - 2y + 8 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( 2x - y - 2 = 0 \)

Question 54:

A hyperbola passes through the point \( P(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}) \) and has foci at \( (\pm 2, 0) \). Then the point that lies on the tangent drawn to this hyperbola at \( P \) is

  • (1) \( (\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{2}) \)
  • (2) \( (-\sqrt{2}, -\sqrt{3}) \)
  • (3) \( (2\sqrt{2}, 3\sqrt{3}) \)
  • (4) \( (3\sqrt{2}, 2\sqrt{3}) \)

Question 55:

The circumradius of the triangle formed by the points \( (2, -1, 1) \), \( (1, -3, -5) \), and \( (3, -4, -4) \) is

  • (1) \( \dfrac{\sqrt{35}}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{\sqrt{25}}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{41} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{\sqrt{41}}{2} \)

Question 56:

Let \( A(2, 3, 5), B(-1, 3, 2), C(\lambda, 5, \mu) \) be the vertices of \( \triangle ABC \). If the median through the vertex \( A \) is equally inclined to the coordinate axes, then

  • (1) \( 5\lambda - 8\mu = 0 \)
  • (2) \( 8\lambda - 5\mu = 0 \)
  • (3) \( 10\lambda - 7\mu = 0 \)
  • (4) \( 7\lambda - 10\mu = 0 \)

Question 57:

Equation of the plane passing through the origin and perpendicular to the planes \( x + 2y - z = 1 \) and \( 3x - 4y + z = 5 \) is

  • (1) \( x + 2y - 5z = 0 \)
  • (2) \( x - 2y + 5z = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x + 2y + 5z = 0 \)
  • (4) \( 3x + y - 5z = 0 \)

Question 58:

Evaluate the limit: \[ \lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{2\sqrt{2} - \left(\cos x + \sin x\right)^3}{1 - \sin 2x} \]

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)

Question 59:

Let \([x]\) denote the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\). Then \[ \lim_{x \to 2^+} \left( \frac{[x]^3}{3} - \left[ \frac{x^3}{3} \right] \right) \]

  • (1) \( 0 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{64}{27} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

Question 60:

If the function \( f \) defined by \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} \dfrac{1 - \cos 4x}{x^2}, & x < 0
a, & x = 0
\dfrac{\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{16 + \sqrt{x}} - 4}, & x > 0 \end{cases} \]
is continuous at \( x = 0 \), then \( a = \)

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( 2 \)
  • (3) \( 4 \)
  • (4) \( 8 \)

Question 61:

The domain of the derivative of the function \( f(x) = \dfrac{x}{1 + |x|} \) is

  • (1) \( [0, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( (-\infty, 0) \)
  • (3) \( (-\infty, \infty) \)
  • (4) \( (0, \infty) \)

Question 62:

If \( x = \sqrt{2 \cosec ^{-1} t} \) and \( y = \sqrt{2 \sec^{-1} t} \), \( |t| \geq 1 \), then \( \dfrac{dy}{dx} = \)

  • (1) \( \dfrac{x}{y} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{y}{x} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{-y}{x} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{-x}{y} \)

Question 63:

If \( (a + \sqrt{2}b \cos x)(a - \sqrt{2}b \cos y) = a^2 - b^2 \), where \( a > b > 0 \), then at \( \left( \dfrac{\pi}{4}, \dfrac{\pi}{4} \right) \), \( \dfrac{dy}{dx} = \)

  • (1) \( \dfrac{a + b}{a - b} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{a - b}{a + b} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{a - 2b}{a + 2b} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{2a + b}{2a - b} \)

Question 64:

Consider the quadratic equation \( ax^2 + bx + c = 0 \), where \( 2a + 3b + 6c = 0 \) and let \[ g(x) = \frac{a x^3}{3} + \frac{b x^2}{2} + c x \]
Statement-I: The given quadratic equation \( ax^2 + bx + c = 0 \) has at least one root in \( (0, 1) \).

Statement-II: Rolle's theorem is applicable to \( g(x) \) on \( [0, 1] \).

Then:

  • (1) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
  • (2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
  • (3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true but Statement-II is not a correct explanation of Statement-I
  • (4) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true and Statement-II is a correct explanation of Statement-I

Question 65:

The difference between the absolute maximum and absolute minimum values of the function \( f(x) = 2x^3 - 15x^2 + 36x - 30 \) on \( [-1, 4] \) is:

  • (1) 80
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 85
  • (4) 4

Question 66:

If \( f(x) = x e^{x(1-x)}, \, x \in \mathbb{R} \), then \( f(x) \) is:

  • (1) increasing on \( \left[-\frac{1}{2}, 1\right] \)
  • (2) decreasing on \( \mathbb{R} \)
  • (3) increasing on \( \mathbb{R} \)
  • (4) decreasing on \( \left[-\frac{1}{2}, 1\right] \)

Question 67:

The angle between the curves \( y^2 = x \) and \( x^2 = y \) at the point \( (1,1) \) is:

  • (1) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right) \)
  • (2) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right) \)
  • (3) \( 90^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 45^\circ \)

Question 68:

If \( \int \frac{5 \tan x}{\tan x - 2} \, dx = a x + b \log |\sin x - 2 \cos x| + c \), then \( a + b = \)

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) -1

Question 69:

\( \int x \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}\right) \, dx \, (x>0) = \)

  • (1) \(-x + (1+x^2) \tan^{-1} x + c\)
  • (2) \(x-(1+x^2) \cot^{-1} x + c\)
  • (3) \(-x + (1+x^2) \cot^{-1} x + c\)
  • (4) \(-x - (1+x^2) \tan^{-1} x + c\)

Question 70:

\( \int \frac{dx}{(1+\sqrt{x}) \sqrt{x-x^2}} = \)

  • (1) \(-2 \sqrt{\frac{1+\sqrt{x}}{1-\sqrt{x}}} + c \)
  • (2) \(-\sqrt{\frac{1-\sqrt{x}}{1+\sqrt{x}}} + c \)
  • (3) \(-2 \sqrt{\frac{1-\sqrt{x}}{1+\sqrt{x}}} + c \)
  • (4) \(2 \sqrt{\frac{1+\sqrt{x}}{1-\sqrt{x}}} + c \)

Question 71:

\( \int \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{a+x}}\right) \, dx = \)

  • (1) \((a+x) \tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{x}{a}}\right) + a x + c \)
  • (2) \((a+x) \tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{x}{a}}\right) + \sqrt{a x} + c \)
  • (3) \((a+x) \tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{a}{x}}\right) - \sqrt{a x} + c \)
  • (4) \((a+x) \tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{x}{a}}\right) - \sqrt{a x} + c \)

Question 72:

If \( \int \frac{x}{x \tan x + 1} \, dx = \log f(x) + k \), then \( f\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right) = \)

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{4 \sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi + 4}{4 \sqrt{2}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi - 4}{4 \sqrt{2}} \)

Question 73:

Evaluate the definite integral: \[ \int_0^1 \frac{2x + 5}{x^2 + 3x + 2} \, dx = \]

  • (1) \( \log\left(\frac{16}{3}\right) \)
  • (2) \( 0 \)
  • (3) \( \log\left(\frac{3}{16}\right) \)
  • (4) \( 4\log2 - 2\log3 \)

Question 74:

The area (in sq. units) of the region given by \( R = \left\{ (x, y) : \dfrac{y^2}{2} \leq x \leq y + 4 \right\} \) is

  • (1) \( 16 \)
  • (2) \( 18 \)
  • (3) \( 24 \)
  • (4) \( 30 \)

Question 75:

Evaluate the integral: \[ \int_0^1 x^{5/2} (1 - x)^{3/2} \, dx = \]

  • (1) \( \dfrac{5\pi}{256} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{3\pi}{256} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{3\pi}{128} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{5\pi}{128} \)

Question 76:

Evaluate the limit: \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \left[ \frac{1}{n^2} \sec^2 \frac{1}{n^2} + \frac{2}{n^2} \sec^2 \frac{4}{n^2} + \frac{3}{n^2} \sec^2 \frac{9}{n^2} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n^2} \sec^2 1 \right] = \]

  • (1) \( \tan^{-1} 1 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1} 1 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \tan 1 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \sec 1 \)

Question 77:

The general solution of the differential equation \( \left(x \sin \frac{y}{x} \right) dy = \left( y \sin \frac{y}{x} - x \right) dx \) is

  • (1) \( \cos \left( \frac{y}{x} \right) = \log |x| + c \)
  • (2) \( \cos \left( \frac{y}{x} \right) = \frac{1}{x} + c \)
  • (3) \( \cos \left( \frac{x}{y} \right) = \log |y| + c \)
  • (4) \( \cos \left( \frac{y}{x} \right) = \frac{2}{x} + c \)

Question 78:

The general solution of the differential equation \( \cos(x + y) \, dy = dx \) is

  • (1) \( y = \tan \left( \frac{x + y}{2} \right) + c \)
  • (2) \( y = \sec \left( \frac{x + y}{2} \right) + c \)
  • (3) \( y = x \sec \left( \frac{y}{x} \right) + c \)
  • (4) \( y = -\cos^{-1} \left( \frac{y}{x} \right) + c \)

Question 79:

If \( Ax^3 + Bxy = 4 \) (A and B are arbitrary constants) is the general solution of the differential equation \[ F(x)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + G(x)\frac{dy}{dx} - 2y = 0, \]
then \( F(1) + G(1) = \)

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( 0 \)
  • (3) \( 4 \)
  • (4) \( 9 \)

Question 80:

The physical quantity having the dimensions of the square root of the ratio of the kinetic energy and surface tension is

  • (1) distance
  • (2) time
  • (3) temperature
  • (4) mass

Question 81:

If the displacement \( s \) (in metre) of a moving particle in terms of time \( t \) (in second) is \( s = t^3 - 6t^2 + 18t + 9 \), then the minimum velocity attained by the particle is

  • (1) \( 29~ms^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 5~ms^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 6~ms^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 12~ms^{-1} \)

Question 82:

If a force \( \vec{F} = (3\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 5\hat{k})~N \) acting on a body displaces it through \( \vec{d} = (2\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 1\hat{k})~m \), then the work done by the force on the body is

  • (1) \( 40~J \)
  • (2) \( 20~J \)
  • (3) \( 15~J \)
  • (4) \( 25~J \)

Question 83:

If two bodies A and B are projected with same velocity but with different angles \( \theta_1 \) and \( \theta_2 \) respectively with the horizontal such that both will have same range, then the ratio of times of flight of the bodies A and B is

  • (1) \( \sin \theta_2 \)
  • (2) \( \sin \theta_1 \)
  • (3) \( \tan \theta_2 \)
  • (4) \( \tan \theta_1 \)

Question 84:

The apparent weight of a girl of mass 30 kg when she is in a lift moving vertically upwards with an acceleration of \( 2~ms^{-2} \) is

(Acceleration due to gravity = \( 10~ms^{-2} \))

  • (1) \( 60~N \)
  • (2) \( 30~N \)
  • (3) \( 240~N \)
  • (4) \( 360~N \)

Question 85:

If a stone of mass \( 0.5~kg \) tied to one end of a wire is whirled in a circular path of radius \( 2~m \) with a speed \( 40~rev/min \) in a horizontal plane, then the tension in the wire is nearly

  • (1) \( 14.8~N \)
  • (2) \( 12.4~N \)
  • (3) \( 17.5~N \)
  • (4) \( 20.8~N \)

Question 86:

A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of \( 20~ms^{-1} \). If the potential energy of the body at a height of \( 5~m \) from the ground is \( 100~J \), then the kinetic energy of the body at a height of \( 10~m \) from the ground is

(Acceleration due to gravity \( g = 10~ms^{-2} \)

  • (1) \( 200~J \)
  • (2) \( 300~J \)
  • (3) \( 150~J \)
  • (4) \( 250~J \)

Question 87:

A body falls freely on to a hard horizontal surface. If the coefficient of restitution between the surface and the body is \( 0.8 \), then the ratio of the maximum height to which the body rises after second impact and the initial height of the body is

  • (1) \( 256 : 625 \)
  • (2) \( 64 : 125 \)
  • (3) \( 16 : 25 \)
  • (4) \( 4 : 5 \)

Question 88:

Two bodies of masses \( M \) and \( 4M \) initially at rest, start moving towards each other due to their mutual attraction. The velocity of their centre of mass when the first body attains a velocity \( v_0 \) is

  • (1) zero
  • (2) \( -v_0 \)
  • (3) \( 2v_0 \)
  • (4) \( -4v_0 \)

Question 89:

The angular velocity of a body changes from \(6 \, rad/s\) to \(21 \, rad/s\) in a time of \(1.5 \, s\). If the moment of inertia of the body is \(100 \, g m^2\), then the rate of change of angular momentum of the body is

  • (1) \(0.12 \, N m\)
  • (2) \(0.6 \, N m\)
  • (3) \(1 \, N m\)
  • (4) \(0.8 \, N m\)

Question 90:

If the displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by \( x = 0.5 \cos(125.6\,t) \), then the time period of oscillation of the particle is nearly
(Here \(x\) is displacement in metre and \(t\) is time in second)

  • (1) \(1 \, s\)
  • (2) \(2 \, s\)
  • (3) \(0.09 \, s\)
  • (4) \(0.05 \, s\)

Question 91:

The amplitude of a damped harmonic oscillator becomes 50% of its initial value in a time of 12 s. If the amplitude of the oscillator at a time of 36 s is \(x%\) of its initial amplitude, then the value of \(x\) is

  • (1) \(25\)
  • (2) \(12.5\)
  • (3) \(37.5\)
  • (4) \(8\)

Question 92:

The escape velocity of a body from a planet of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) is 14 km/s. The escape velocity of the body from another planet having same mass and diameter \(8R\) (in km/s) is

  • (1) \(7\)
  • (2) \(10.5\)
  • (3) \(14\)
  • (4) \(28\)

Question 93:

The stress-strain graph of two wires A and B is shown in the figure. If \(Y_A\) and \(Y_B\) are Young’s moduli of materials of wires A and B respectively, then

  • (1) \(Y_A = 3Y_B\)
  • (2) \(Y_A = Y_B\)
  • (3) \(Y_B = 3Y_A\)
  • (4) \(Y_B = 2Y_A\)

Question 94:

If two soap bubbles each of radius \(2 \, cm\) combine in vacuum under isothermal conditions, then the radius of the new bubble formed is

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2} \, cm\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{2} \, cm\)
  • (3) \(0.5 \, cm\)
  • (4) \(2 \, cm\)

Question 95:

A rectangular slab consists of two cubes of copper and brass of equal sides having thermal conductivities in the ratio \(4 : 1\). If the free face of brass is at \(0^\circ C\) and that of copper is at \(100^\circ C\), then the temperature of their interface is

  • (1) \(80^\circ C\)
  • (2) \(20^\circ C\)
  • (3) \(60^\circ C\)
  • (4) \(40^\circ C\)

Question 96:

The efficiency of a Carnot's heat engine is \( \frac{1}{3} \). If the temperature of the source is decreased by \(50^\circ C\) and the temperature of the sink is increased by \(25^\circ C\), the efficiency of the engine becomes \( \frac{3}{16} \). The initial temperature of the sink is

  • (1) 325 K
  • (2) 375 K
  • (3) 350 K
  • (4) 300 K

Question 97:

The change in internal energy of given mass of a gas, when its volume changes from \( V \) to \( 3V \) at constant pressure \( P \) is

(\( \gamma \) - Ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas)

  • (1) \( \dfrac{PV}{\gamma - 1} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{2PV}{\gamma - 1} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{3PV}{\gamma - 1} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{PV}{2\gamma - 1} \)

Question 98:

A monatomic gas at a pressure of 100 kPa expands adiabatically such that its final volume becomes 8 times its initial volume. If the work done during the process is 180 J, then the initial volume of the gas is

  • (1) 1600 cm\(^3\)
  • (2) 800 cm\(^3\)
  • (3) 1200 cm\(^3\)
  • (4) 2000 cm\(^3\)

Question 99:

If a gaseous mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of argon at an absolute temperature \( T \), then the total internal energy of the mixture is

(Neglect vibrational modes and \( R \) is the universal gas constant)

  • (1) \( 11RT \)
  • (2) \( 12.5RT \)
  • (3) \( 13.5RT \)
  • (4) \( 15.5RT \)

Question 100:

A sound wave of frequency 500 Hz travels between two points X and Y separated by a distance of 600 m in a time of 2 s. The number of waves between the points X and Y are

  • (1) 1000
  • (2) 1500
  • (3) 300
  • (4) 600

Question 101:

A ray of light incidents at an angle of \(60^\circ\) on the first face of a prism. The angle of the prism is \(30^\circ\) and its second face is silvered. If the light ray inside the prism retraces its path after reflection from the second face, then the refractive index of the material of the prism is

  • (1) \( \dfrac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{3} \)

Question 102:

In an experiment, two polaroids are arranged such that the intensity of the polarised light emerged from the second polaroid is 37.5% of the intensity of the unpolarised light incident on the first polaroid. Then the angle between the axes of the two polaroids is

  • (1) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 90^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 30^\circ \)

Question 103:

If two particles A and B of charges \(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\,C\) and \(3.2 \times 10^{-19}\,C\) respectively are separated by a distance of 3 cm in air, then the magnitude of electrostatic force on particle A due to particle B is

  • (1) \(5.12 \times 10^{-22}\,N\)
  • (2) \(5.12 \times 10^{-32}\,N\)
  • (3) \(5.12 \times 10^{-12}\,N\)
  • (4) \(5.12 \times 10^{-25}\,N\)

Question 104:

If four charges \(+12\,nC, -20\,nC, +32\,nC\) and \(-15\,nC\) are arranged at the four vertices of a square of side \(\sqrt{2}\,m\), then the net electric potential at the centre of the square due to these four charges is

  • (1) \(72\,V\)
  • (2) \(81\,V\)
  • (3) \(64\,V\)
  • (4) \(36\,V\)

Question 105:

Four capacitors are connected as shown in the figure. If \( C_1, C_2, C_3 \) and \( C_4 \) are in the ratio \( 1:2:3:4 \), then the ratio of the charges on the capacitors \( C_2 \) and \( C_4 \) is

  • (1) \(1:4\)
  • (2) \(2:3\)
  • (3) \(6:11\)
  • (4) \(3:22\)

Question 106:

In the given circuit, the internal resistance of the cell is zero. If \( i_1 \) and \( i_2 \) are the readings of the ammeter when the key (K) is opened and closed respectively, then \( i_1 : i_2 = \)

  • (1) \(2 : 1\)
  • (2) \(3 : 10\)
  • (3) \(3 : 5\)
  • (4) \(1 : 2\)

Question 107:

In a meter bridge, the null point is located at 20 cm from the left end of the wire when resistances \( R \) and \( S \) are connected in the left and right gaps respectively. If the resistance \( S \) is shunted with \( 60\,\Omega \) resistance, the null point shifted by 5 cm, then the values of \( R \) and \( S \) are respectively:

  • (1) \(24\,\Omega, 6\,\Omega\)
  • (2) \(6\,\Omega, 24\,\Omega\)
  • (3) \(5\,\Omega, 20\,\Omega\)
  • (4) \(20\,\Omega, 5\,\Omega\)

Question 108:

If a wire of length \( L \) carrying a current \( i \) is bent in the shape of a semi-circular arc as shown in the figure, then the magnetic field at the centre of the arc is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi \mu_0 i}{4L} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi \mu_0 i}{2L} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\mu_0 i}{2\pi L} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi L} \)

Question 109:

A galvanometer having 30 divisions has a current sensitivity of \(0.0625 \, \frac{div}{\mu A}\). If it is converted into a voltmeter to read a maximum of 6 V, then the resistance of that voltmeter is:

  • (1) \( 7.5 \, k\Omega \)
  • (2) \( 12.5 \, k\Omega \)
  • (3) \( 6 \, k\Omega \)
  • (4) \( 5 \, k\Omega \)

Question 110:

If the given figure shows the relation between magnetic field (B along y-axis) and magnetic intensity (H along x-axis) of a ferromagnetic material, then the point that represents coercivity of the material is:

%

  • (1) \( P \)
  • (2) \( Q \)
  • (3) \( R \)
  • (4) \( S \)

Question 111:

A coil having 100 square loops each of side 10 cm is placed such that its plane is normal to a magnetic field, which is changing at a rate of \( 0.7 \ T s^{-1} \). The emf induced in the coil is

  • (1) \( 0.2 \ V \)
  • (2) \( 0.4 \ V \)
  • (3) \( 0.7 \ V \)
  • (4) \( 1 \ V \)

Question 112:

An AC source of internal resistance \( 10^3 \ \Omega \) is connected to a transformer. The ratio of the number of turns in the primary to the number of turns in the secondary to match the source to a load resistance of \( 10 \ \Omega \) is

  • (1) \( 1 : 10 \)
  • (2) \( 10 : 1 \)
  • (3) \( 2 : 5 \)
  • (4) \( 5 : 2 \)

Question 113:

If 11% of the power of a 200 W bulb is converted to visible radiation, then the intensity of the light at a distance of 100 cm from the bulb is

  • (1) \( 10.5 \ W m^{-2} \)
  • (2) \( 5.25 \ W m^{-2} \)
  • (3) \( 3.5 \ W m^{-2} \)
  • (4) \( 1.75 \ W m^{-2} \)

Question 114:

The de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential difference of \( \frac{200}{3} \ V \) is nearly

  • (1) \( 25 \  AA \)
  • (2) \( 2.5 \  AA \)
  • (3) \( 15 \  AA \)
  • (4) \( 1.5 \ AA \)

Question 115:

The ratio of the shortest wavelengths of Brackett and Balmer series of hydrogen atom is

  • (1) \( 2 : 1 \)
  • (2) \( 3 : 2 \)
  • (3) \( 4 : 1 \)
  • (4) \( 6 : 5 \)

Question 116:

If the binding energy per nucleon of deuteron (\( ^1\mathrm{H}^2 \)) is 1.15 MeV and an \(\alpha\)-particle has a binding energy of 7.1 MeV per nucleon, then the energy released per nucleon in the given reaction is \[ ^1\mathrm{H}^2 + ^1\mathrm{H}^2 \rightarrow ^2\mathrm{He}^4 + Q \]

  • (1) 23.8 MeV
  • (2) 26.1 MeV
  • (3) 5.95 MeV
  • (4) 28.9 MeV

Question 117:

In a transistor, if the collector current is 98% of emitter current, then the ratio of the base and collector currents is

  • (1) \(1 : 98\)
  • (2) \(1 : 1\)
  • (3) \(1 : 49\)
  • (4) \(1 : 99\)

Question 118:

In the given circuit, if \( A = 0 \), \( B = 1 \), and \( C = 1 \) are inputs, then the values of \( y_1 \) and \( y_2 \) are respectively

  • (1) \(1, 1\)
  • (2) \(0, 1\)
  • (3) \(0, 0\)
  • (4) \(1, 0\)

Question 119:

In amplitude modulation, if a message signal of 5 kHz is modulated by a carrier wave of frequency 900 kHz, then the frequencies of the side bands are

  • (1) 905 kHz, 895 kHz
  • (2) 900 kHz, 800 kHz
  • (3) 800 kHz, 700 kHz
  • (4) 1000 kHz, 900 kHz

Question 120:

The wavelength of a particular electron transition for He\(^+\) is 100 nm. The wavelength (in \(\unicode{x212B}\)) of H atom for the same transition is

  • (1) 1000
  • (2) 100
  • (3) 4000
  • (4) 2000

Question 121:

The energy of second Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is \(-3.4 \, eV\). The energy of the fourth Bohr orbit of the He\(^+\) ion will be

  • (1) \(-3.4 \, eV\)
  • (2) \(-13.6 \, eV\)
  • (3) \(-6.8 \, eV\)
  • (4) \(-0.85 \, eV\)

Question 122:

Observe the following data.

\medskip
\begin{tabular{|c|c|c|c|c|
\hline
Ion & Q\textsuperscript{4+ & X\textsuperscript{b+ & Y\textsuperscript{c+ & Z\textsuperscript{d+

\hline
Radius (pm) & 53 & 66 & 40 & 100

\hline
\end{tabular

\medskip
Q\textsuperscript{4+, X\textsuperscript{b+, Y\textsuperscript{c+, Z\textsuperscript{d+ are respectively

  • (1) Mg\textsuperscript{2+}, Al\textsuperscript{3+}, Na\textsuperscript{+}, Si\textsuperscript{4+}
  • (2) Al\textsuperscript{3+}, Si\textsuperscript{4+}, Mg\textsuperscript{2+}, Na\textsuperscript{+}
  • (3) Mg\textsuperscript{2+}, Si\textsuperscript{4+}, Al\textsuperscript{3+}, Na\textsuperscript{+}
  • (4) Al\textsuperscript{3+}, Mg\textsuperscript{2+}, Si\textsuperscript{4+}, Na\textsuperscript{+}

Question 123:

Which of the following sets are correctly matched?

\medskip
% Table of Molecules
\begin{tabular{|c|c|c|
\hline
Molecule & Hybridization & Geometry

\hline
I. BrF\textsubscript{5 & sp\textsuperscript{3d\textsuperscript{2 & square pyramidal

II. XeF\textsubscript{6 & sp\textsuperscript{3d\textsuperscript{3 & Distorted octahedral

III. SF\textsubscript{4 & dsp\textsuperscript{2 & square planar

IV. PbCl\textsubscript{2 & sp & linear

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (1) I & IV
  • (2) II & III
  • (3) III & IV
  • (4) I & II

Question 124:

The order of dipole moments of H\textsubscript{2}O (A), CHCl\textsubscript{3} (B) and NH\textsubscript{3} (C) is

  • (1) B \(<\) A \(<\) C
  • (2) B \(<\) C \(<\) A
  • (3) C \(<\) B \(<\) A
  • (4) C \(<\) A \(<\) B

Question 125:

Identify the correct graph for an ideal gas

(\(y\)-axis = compressibility factor \(Z\); \(x\)-axis = pressure \(p\))

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 126:

Identify the correct statements from the following.

  • (A) [I.] Glass is an extremely viscous liquid.
  • (B) [II.] Increase in temperature decreases the surface tension of liquids.
  • (C) [III.] Compressibility factor for an ideal gas is zero.
  • (1) I, II, III
  • (2) I, II only
  • (3) I, III only
  • (4) II, III only

Question 127:

Identify the correct statements about the following stoichiometric equation.
\[ aP_4 + bOH^- + CH_2O \rightarrow dPH_3 + eH_2PO_2^- \]

  • (A) [I.] \(a + b + c = 5\)
  • (B) [II.] \(b + c - e = 3\)
  • (C) [III.] The oxidation state of P in \(H_2PO_2^-\) is \(+1\)
  • (1) I, II, III
  • (2) I, II only
  • (3) I, III only
  • (4) II, III only

Question 128:

5 moles of a gas is allowed to pass through a series of changes as shown in the graph, in a cyclic process.

The processes \(C \rightarrow A\), \(B \rightarrow C\), and \(A \rightarrow B\) respectively are:
\[ (Volume = vertical axis, Temperature = horizontal axis) \]

  • (1) Isothermal, Isochoric, Isobaric
  • (2) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal
  • (3) Isobaric, Isochoric, Isothermal
  • (4) Isothermal, Isobaric, Isochoric

Question 129:

1 mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand isothermally and reversibly from 1L to 5L at 300 K. The change in enthalpy (in kJ) is

(R = 8.3 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\))

  • (1) 1.74
  • (2) 2.48
  • (3) 0.0
  • (4) 4.22

Question 130:

Consider the following equilibrium reaction in gaseous state at T(K):
\[ A + 2B \rightleftharpoons 2C + D \]

The initial concentration of B is 1.5 times that of A. At equilibrium, the concentrations of A and B are equal. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 4

Question 131:

At T(K), \(K_{sp}\) of two ionic salts MX\(_2\) and MX is \(5 \times 10^{-13}\) and \(1.6 \times 10^{-11}\) respectively. The ratio of molar solubility of MX\(_2\) and MX is

  • (1) 12.5
  • (2) 1.25
  • (3) 6.25
  • (4) 7.50

Question 132:

Consider the following:

\medskip
Statement I: \quad \( \mathrm{H_2O_2} \) acts as an oxidising as well as reducing agent in both acidic and basic media.

Statement II: \quad 10V \( \mathrm{H_2O_2} \) sample means it contains 6% (w/v) \( \mathrm{H_2O_2} \)

  • (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
  • (2) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct
  • (3) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct
  • (4) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct

Question 133:

Identify the correct statements from the following

\medskip
I. \quad All alkaline earth metals give hydrides on heating with hydrogen.

II. \quad Calcium hydroxide is used to purify sugar.

III. \quad \( \mathrm{BeCl_2} \) is a dimer in gaseous phase.

  • (1) I \& III only
  • (2) II \& III only
  • (3) I, II, III
  • (4) I \& II only

Question 134:

Select the correct statements from the following

A) \quad Aluminium liberates \( \mathrm{H_2} \) gas with dil.\( \mathrm{HCl} \) but not with aqueous \( \mathrm{NaOH} \).

B) \quad Formula of sodium metaborate is \( \mathrm{Na_3BO_3} \)

C) \quad Boric acid is a weak monobasic acid

D) \quad For thallium, +1 state is more stable than +3 state.

  • (1) A \& B
  • (2) B \& C
  • (3) C \& D
  • (4) A \& D

Question 135:

The number of amphoteric oxides from the following is
\(\mathrm{CO_2, GeO_2, SnO_2, PbO_2, CO, GeO, SnO, PbO}\)

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 5

Question 136:

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • (1) Catalytic converters present in automobiles prevent the release of nitrogen oxide to the atmosphere.
  • (2) Photochemical smog is a mixture of smoke, fog and \( \mathrm{SO_2} \).
  • (3) Chlorofluorocarbons damage ozone layer.
  • (4) Acid rain corrodes water pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals into the drinking water.

Question 137:

Consider the sets I, II and III. Identify the set(s) which is (are) correctly matched.


[I.] Staggered ethane > eclipsed ethane \dotfill torsional strain
[II.] 2,2-Dimethylbutane > 2-methylpentane \dotfill boiling point
[III.] cis-But-2-ene > trans-But-2-ene \dotfill dipole moment

  • (1) I, II only
  • (2) II, III only
  • (3) III only
  • (4) I, II, III

Question 138:

What are B and C respectively in the following set of reactions?
\[ C (1,2-dibromopropane) \xrightarrow{Zn,\ \Delta} A \xrightarrow[(ii) NaNH_2]{(i) alc. KOH} B \xrightarrow{Lindlar Catalyst} C \]

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 139:

The crystal system with edge lengths \( a \ne b \ne c \) and axial angles \( \alpha = \beta = \gamma = 90^\circ \) is 'x' and number of Bravais lattices for it is 'y'. x and y are

  • (1) Cubic ; 3
  • (2) Monoclinic ; 2
  • (3) Orthorhombic ; 4
  • (4) Trigonal ; 2

Question 140:

A solution is prepared by adding 124 g of ethylene glycol (molar mass = 62 g mol\(^{-1}\)) to \( x \) g of water to get a 10 m solution. What is the value of \( x \) (in g)?

  • (1) 100
  • (2) 400
  • (3) 800
  • (4) 200

Question 141:

The following graph is obtained for an ideal solution containing a non-volatile solute. \(x\)- and \(y\)-axes represent, respectively

  • (1) mole fraction of solute, vapour pressure of solute
  • (2) mole fraction of solvent, vapour pressure of solution
  • (3) mole fraction of solute, vapour pressure of solution
  • (4) concentration of solution, vapour pressure of solution

Question 142:

Observe the following statements about dry cell:

  • (A) It is a primary battery.
  • (B) Zinc vessel acts as cathode.
  • (C) A paste of moist \( NH_4Cl, MnO_2 \), and \( ZnCl_2 \) is present between two electrodes.
  • (D) The potential of this cell is 1.5 V. \textbf{The correct statements are :}
  • (1) I, II, III, IV
  • (2) I, II, III only
  • (3) I, III, IV only
  • (4) II, III, IV only

Question 143:

For a reaction, the graph of \( \ln k \) (on y-axis) and \( 1/T \) (on x-axis) is a straight line with a slope \( -2 \times 10^4 K \). The activation energy of the reaction (in kJ mol\(^{-1}\)) is \((R = 8.3~J K^{-1} mol^{-1})\)

  • (1) 332
  • (2) 432
  • (3) 166
  • (4) 216

Question 144:

Match the following:

\begin{multicols{2
List-I (Reaction)

[A)] Hydrogenation of vegetable oils
[B)] Decomposition of potassium chlorate
[C)] Oxidation of SO\(_2\) in lead chamber process
[D)] Oxidation of ammonia in Ostwald’s process


\columnbreak

List-II (Catalyst)

[I.] Ni
[II.] MnO\(_2\)
[III.] Pt
[IV.] NO(g)

\end{multicols

The correct answer is:

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Question 145:

The critical micelle concentration (CMC) of a soap solution is \( 5 \times 10^{-4} \, mol L^{-1} \). Identify the correct statements about this solution.


[I.] The micelle is stable if the soap solution concentration is \( 10^{-7} \, mol L^{-1} \)
[II.] The micelle is stable if the soap solution concentration is higher than \( 5 \times 10^{-4} \, mol L^{-1} \)
[III.] Micelles are also known as associated colloids.

  • (1) I, II, III
  • (2) I, II only
  • (3) I, III only
  • (4) II, III only

Question 146:

The metal purified by Mond process is X. The number of unpaired electrons in X is

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 2

Question 147:

Complete hydrolysis of Xenon hexafluoride gives HF along with compound X. The hybridisation in X is

  • (1) \( sp^3 \)
  • (2) \( sp \)
  • (3) \( sp^2 \)
  • (4) \( sp^3d \)

Question 148:

KMnO\(_4\) oxidises hydrogen sulphide in acidic medium. The number of moles of KMnO\(_4\) which react with one mole of hydrogen sulphide is

  • (1) \( 2 \)
  • (2) \( 4 \)
  • (3) \( 0.4 \)
  • (4) \( 2.5 \)

Question 149:

Identify the set which does not have ambidentate ligand(s).

  • (1) \( NO_2^-, CN^-, C_2O_4^{2-} \)
  • (2) \( C_2O_4^{2-}, H_2O, SO_4^{2-} \)
  • (3) \( SCN^-, NH_3, CH_3COO^- \)
  • (4) \( CN^-, SCN^-, CH_3NH_2 \)

Question 150:

The number of linear and crosslinked polymers in the following respectively are:

Novolac, Nylon 6,6, Bakelite, PVC, melamine

  • (1) 1, 4
  • (2) 4, 1
  • (3) 2, 3
  • (4) 3, 2

Question 151:

Which of the following represents the correct structure of \( \beta-D-(-)- \) Fructofuranose?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 152:

Which of the following statements is not correct for glucose?

  • (1) Glucose does not give Schiff's test.
  • (2) Glucose exists in two crystalline forms \(\alpha\)- and \(\beta\)-.
  • (3) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with \( \mathrm{NH_2OH} \).
  • (4) Glucose forms addition product with \( \mathrm{NaHSO_3} \).

Question 153:

The synthetic detergent used in toothpaste is of type X. Animal starch is Y.

X and Y respectively are

  • (1) Anionic, amylose
  • (2) Non-ionic, cellulose
  • (3) Anionic, glycogen
  • (4) Cationic, amylopectin

Question 154:

What are X and Y respectively in the following sets of reactions? (major product)
\[ \begin{aligned} I. & \quad \ce{CH3CH2CH2OH} \xrightarrow{\ce{PBr3}} X
II. & \quad \ce{CH3CH=CH2} \xrightarrow[(C6H5COO)2]{\ce{HBr}} Y \ (major) \end{aligned} \]

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: The reaction of \( \ce{CH3CH2CH2OH} \) with \( \ce{PBr3} \) gives \( \ce{CH3CH2CH2Br} \) — a substitution reaction replacing –OH with –Br.

Step 2: The reaction of propene (\( \ce{CH3CH=CH2} \)) with HBr in the presence of benzoyl peroxide (\( \ce{(C6H5COO)2} \)) proceeds via anti-Markovnikov addition due to free radical mechanism, yielding \( \ce{CH2BrCH2CH3} \) as major product.

Step 3: So, X is \( \ce{CH3CH2CH2Br} \) and Y is \( \ce{CH2BrCH2CH3} \), which corresponds to option (3). Quick Tip: Use \( \ce{PBr3} \) to convert alcohols to alkyl bromides.
HBr with peroxides follows anti-Markovnikov rule due to free radical addition.


Question 155:

Identify the two reactions A (I II) and B (I III) respectively in the following set of reactions.
\[ III \ \ce{<-[B]-} \ \ce{Cl-}–C_6H_4\ce{–COCH3} \quad \ce{<-[A]-} \ \ce{Cl-}–C_6H_4 \ \ce{->} \ II \]

  • (1) Fittig ; Friedel-Crafts
  • (2) Wurtz-Fittig ; Friedel-Crafts
  • (3) Wurtz-Fittig ; Stephen
  • (4) Friedel-Crafts ; Swarts

Question 156:

An alcohol, X (C\(_5\)H\(_{12}\)O) in the presence of Cu/573K gives Y (C\(_5\)H\(_{10}\)). The reactants required for the preparation of X are

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 157:

A carbonyl compound X (C\(_8\)H\(_8\)O) undergoes disproportionation with conc. KOH on heating. Product of X with Zn-Hg/HCl is Y and product of X with NaBH\(_4\) is Z. What are Y and Z respectively?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 158:

What is the major product Y in the following reaction sequence?
\[ \chemfig{Ph-CONH2} \xrightarrow[Pyridine, 70°C]{C\(_6\)H\(_5\)SO\(_2\)Cl} X \xrightarrow[(ii)\ \ce{Br2}, \ce{FeBr3}]{(i)\ \ce{H3O+}} Y \]

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (1) \chemfig{*6((-COOH)-(-Br)=(-)=(-)=(-)=)}
View Solution

Step 1: The given reaction involves **protection of an amide group** using benzene sulfonyl chloride in the presence of pyridine, forming a sulfonamide intermediate.

Step 2: On hydrolysis, the intermediate converts back to the **corresponding acid**, benzoic acid.

Step 3: The benzoic acid then undergoes **electrophilic aromatic substitution** with Br\(_2\)/FeBr\(_3\), and bromine substitutes the meta-position due to the electron-withdrawing effect of the carboxylic group.

Step 4: Therefore, the final product Y is **3-bromobenzoic acid**. Quick Tip: Carboxylic acid is a meta-directing group in electrophilic substitution; bromination with Br\(_2\)/FeBr\(_3\) adds Br at the meta position.


Question 159:

What are X and Y respectively in the following set of reactions?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)


AP EAMCET 2025 Paper Analysis

On behalf of APSCHE, JNTU Kakinada conducted the AP EAMCET 2025 Engineering exam in several shifts from May 21 to May 27, 2025.

There are 160 multiple-choice questions from mathematics (80), physics (40), and chemistry (40) in each paper.

May 21, 2025 – Paper Analysis

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Moderate to Tough It was Lengthy, Algebra & Calculus were dominant
Physics Moderate Conceptual questions from Mechanics
Chemistry Easy NCERT-based and more focused on Organic Chemistry

Shift 2 (2:00 PM – 5:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Tough It was Time-consuming with a major focus on Vectors & Coordinate Geo.
Physics Moderate Electricity & Magnetism-based questions
Chemistry Easy to Moderate Questions were Mostly direct and a few tricky numericals

May 22, 2025 – Paper Analysis

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Moderate Integration & Probability were mainly included
Physics Moderate Thermodynamics & Laws of Motion
Chemistry Easy Organic and Surface Chemistry focused

Shift 2 (2:00 PM – 5:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Moderate to Tough Coordinate Geometry questions were tricky
Physics Moderate Covered Oscillations & Electrostatics
Chemistry Easy The NCERT theory-based topics were equally balanced

May 23, 2025 – Paper Analysis

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Tough The exam was time-consuming, with some choices in the exam.
Physics Moderate Questions from Waves and Motion
Chemistry Easy to Moderate Straightforward questions and mostly NCERT-based

Shift 2 (2:00 PM – 5:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Moderate Calculus and Permutation-Combinations focused questions
Physics Moderate Application-based numericals
Chemistry Easy Focus on Inorganic Chemistry

May 24, 2025 – Paper Analysis (Single Session Only)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Moderate to Tough Long calculations, topics from Algebra
Physics Moderate Mostly from Modern Physics and Mechanics
Chemistry Easy High-scoring and NCERT factual questions

May 26, 2025 – Paper Analysis

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Moderate Vector Algebra & Matrices were more prominent
Physics Moderate Balanced paper with units & measurements included
Chemistry Easy Well-distributed topic coverage

Shift 2 (2:00 PM – 5:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights
Mathematics Tough Lengthy integrals and sequences questions
Physics Moderate Emphasis on Thermodynamics
Chemistry Easy to Moderate Questions related to organic and tricky reaction-based questions

May 27, 2025 – Paper Analysis (Expected)

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM)

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Highlights (Expected)
Mathematics Moderate to Tough Major focus on Algebra & Calculus
Physics Moderate Conceptual questions from Kinematics
Chemistry Easy NCERT-focused Organic and Coordination Comp.