CAT 1999 Question Paper(Available) :Download Solutions with Answer Key

There is a circle of radius 1 cm. Each member of a sequence of regular polygons S1(n), n = 4, 5, 6, ... where n = number of sides of the polygon, is circumscribing the circle and each member of the sequence of regular polygons S2(n), n = 4, 5, 6, ... where n is the number of sides of the polygon, is inscribed in the circle. Let L1(n) and L2(n) denote perimeters of the corresponding polygons of S1(n) and S2(n). Then \(\angle L1(13) + 2\pi\) is L2(17) is:

• (1) Greater than \(\pi/4\) but less than 1
• (2) Greater than 1 and less than 2
• (3) Greater than 1 and less than 2
• (4) Less than \(\pi/4\)

Ten points are marked on a straight line and eleven points are marked on another straight line. How many triangles can be constructed with vertices from among the above points?

• (1) 495
• (2) 550
• (3) 1045
• (4) 2475

40% of the employees of an organization are men. Of these 75% earn more than Rs. 25,000 per year. If 45% of the total employees of the company earn more than Rs. 25,000 per year, then what fraction of the women earn more than Rs. 25,000 per year?

• (1) 2/11
• (2) 1/4
• (3) 1/3
• (4) 3/4

There is a square field with each side 500 metres long. It has a compound wall along its perimeter. At one of its corners, a triangular area of the field is to be cordoned off by erecting a straight-line fence. The compound wall and the fence will form its borders. If the length of the fence is 100 metres, what is the maximum area in square metres that can be cordoned off?

• (1) 2,500
• (2) 10,000
• (3) 5,000
• (4) 20,000

For two positive integers a and b define the function h(a, b) as the greatest common factor (gcf) of a, b. Let A be a set of n positive integers, G(A), the gcf of the elements of set A is computed by repeatedly using the function h. The minimum number of times h is required to be used to compute G is:

• (1) n/2
• (2) n - 1
• (3) n
• (4) None of these

Given \(n^2 = 123456787654321\), find n.

• (1) 12344321
• (2) 1235789
• (3) 11111111
• (4) 1111111

The remainder when \(7^{84}\) is divided by 342 is:

• (1) 0
• (2) 1
• (3) 49
• (4) 341

The alphabets a, b, c represent integers forming a two-digit number 'ab' and a three digit number 'ccb'. Both defined under the usual decimal number system. If \((ab)^2 = ccb\) and \(ccb > 300\), then the value of b is:

• (1) 1
• (2) 0
• (3) 5
• (4) 6

Expenses at a boarding house are partly fixed and are partly varying on the number of boarders at the house. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700 with 25 boarders. The average expense comes to Rs. 600 when the number of boarders is 50. What will the average cost per boarder when the number of boarders is 100?

• (1) 550
• (2) 560
• (3) 540
• (4) 570

A pair of positive integers \((x, y)\) satisfies the equation \(4x - 17y = 1\). x also satisfies the inequality \(x \leq 1\). Find the number of pairs \((x, y)\) that will satisfy the above?

• (1) 59
• (2) 57
• (3) 55
• (4) 58

In a survey of political preferences, 78% of those asked were in favour of at least one of the proposals I, II and III. If 50% favoured the first proposal, 30% the second and 20% the third, 5% favoured all the three, what is the percentage of those asked favoured more than one of the three proposals?

• (1) 10
• (2) 12
• (3) 17
• (4) 22

The figure below shows 2 concentric circles with centre O. PQRS is a square inscribed in the outer circle. It also circumscribes the inner circle touching it at points B, C, D and A. What is the ratio of the perimeter of the outer circle to that of the polygon ABCD?

• (1) \(\pi/4\)
• (2) \(3\pi/2\)
• (3) \(\pi/2\)
• (4) \(\pi\)

For a scholarship, n out of \(2n + 1\) students are to be selected. If the number of different ways in which at least one student can be selected is 63, then the maximum number of students to be selected are:

• (1) 3
• (2) 4
• (3) 2
• (4) 5

Nayjivan Express starts from Ahmedabad towards Baroda at 6:30 am in the morning, moving at an average speed of 50 km/h. The distance between Baroda and Ahmedabad is 100 km. At 7:00 am in the morning the Howrah Ahmedabad express starts from Baroda and moves towards Ahmedabad at 40 km/h. At 7:30 am, Mr. Shah, the station controller, realizes that both the trains are running on the same track. How much time does he have to take action to prevent the collision?

• (1) 15 min
• (2) 20 min
• (3) 25 min
• (4) 30 min

The reduction in speed of a railway engine is directly proportional to the square root of the number of compartments attached to it. With no compartments attached to the engine, the speed is 42 km/h. With 9 compartments attached to the engine, the speed is 24 km/h. What are the maximum number of compartments that can be attached to the engine?

• (1) 49
• (2) 48
• (3) 46
• (4) 47

Given a relation, \( n = 1 + x \) and \( x \) is a product of four consecutive integers. Then which of the following is true?

If \( |r - 6| = 11 \) and \( |2q - 12| = 8 \), then what could be the minimum possible value of \( q / r \)?

• (1) -2/5
• (2) 2/17
• (3) 3/14
• (4) None of these

Abraham, Border, Charlie, Dennis and Elmer and their wives dined together, and they were seated on a round table. Men and women were seated alternately. Each woman was 3 seats distant from her husband. Mrs. Elmer is to the left of Mr. Abraham. Mrs. Elmer is two places to the right of Mrs. Border. Who is the right of Mr. Abraham?

• (1) Mrs. Border
• (2) Mrs. Elmer
• (3) Mrs. Charlie
• (4) Mrs. Dennis

Which of the following is true?

• (1) \( F(f(x, y)) \cdot G(f(x, y)) = -F(f(x, y)) \cdot G(f(x, y)) \)
• (2) \( F(f(x, y)) \cdot G(f(x, y)) \geq -F(f(x, y)) \cdot G(f(x, y)) \)
• (3) \( F(f(x, y)) \cdot G(f(x, y)) \neq G(f(x, y)) \cdot F(f(x, y)) \)
• (4) \( F(f(x, y)) + G(f(x, y)) + f(x, y) = f(x, -y) \)

What is the value of: \( f(G(f(1, 0))), f(F(1, 2)), G(f(1, 2))) \)?

• (1) 3
• (2) 2
• (3) 1
• (4) 0

Which of the following has \( x^2 \) as the result?

• (1) \( F(f(x, -x)), G(f(x, -x)) \)
• (2) \( F(f(x, x)), G(f(x, x)) \cdot 4 \)
• (3) \( F(f(x, x)) \cdot G(f(x, x)) \)
• (4) \( f(x), x, f(x) \)

Which of the following may not be seated at either end?

• (1) C
• (2) D
• (3) G
• (4) F

Who are the people who are not seated together?

• (1) E and A
• (2) B and D
• (3) C and F
• (4) G and D

Petrol consumed by Aditi is (in litres)

• (1) 8.31
• (2) 8.6
• (3) 8.9
• (4) 9.2

Zoheb who is also planning to drive Aditi's car, and cover the same journey plans to use minimum petrol. How much of petrol is he going to consume (in litres)?

• (1) 6.67
• (2) 7.0
• (3) 6.33
• (4) 6

If Ghosh Babu stopped playing the game when his gain would be maximized, the gain in Rs. would have been:

• (1) 12
• (2) 20
• (3) 16
• (4) 4

The initial money Ghosh Babu had (before beginning the game session), was Rs. X. At no point did he have to borrow any money. What is the minimum possible value of X?

• (1) 16
• (2) 2
• (3) 8
• (4) 4

The final game money Ghosh Babu had with him was Rs. 100. What was his initial money?

• (1) 16
• (2) 21
• (3) 22
• (4) 6

If all the signs of \( S1 \) are reversed and of \( S2 \) are kept the same, then which is true?

• (1) Every member of \( S1 \geq \) every member of \( S2 \)
• (2) \( G \) is in \( S1 \)
• (3) If all numbers originally in \( S1 \) and \( S2 \) had the same sign, then after the change of sign, the largest number of \( S1 \) and \( S2 \) is in \( S1 \)
• (4) None of the above

Elements of \( S1 \) are in ascending order and those of \( S2 \) are in descending order, \( a_{24} \) and \( a_{25} \) are interchanged. Then which of the following statements is true?

• (1) \( S1 \) continues to be in ascending order.
• (2) \( S2 \) continues to be in descending order.
• (3) \( S1 \) continues to be in ascending order and \( S2 \) in descending order.
• (4) None of the above

Every element of \( S1 \) is made greater than or equal to every element of \( S2 \) by adding to each element of \( S1 \) an integer \( x \). Then \( x \) cannot be less than:

• (1) \( 2^{10} \)
• (2) The smallest value of \( S2 \).
• (3) The largest value of \( S2 \).
• (4) \( (G - L) \)

What is the average speed of Mr. Y for the journey in km per hour?

• (1) 47.5
• (2) 49.5
• (3) 50
• (4) 52

The total distance travelled by Y during the journey is approximately:

• (1) 105
• (2) 150
• (3) 130
• (4) Cannot be determined

What is the length of the road segment BD?

• (1) 50
• (2) 52.5
• (3) 53
• (4) Cannot be determined

What is the minimum amount of sucrose (to the nearest gram) that must be added to one gram of saccharin to make a mixture that will be at least 100 times as sweet as glucose?

• (1) 7
• (2) 8
• (3) 9
• (4) 100

Approximately how many times sweeter than sucrose is a mixture consisting of glucose, sucrose, fructose in the ratio 1: 2: 3?

• (1) 1.3
• (2) 1
• (3) 0.6
• (4) 2.3

Among the four values given below, which is the last upper bound on \( e \), where \( e \) is the total empty volume in the \( n \) white vessels at the end of the above process?

• (1) \( m \cdot v_m \)
• (2) \( m(1 - v_m) \)
• (3) \( m \cdot v_1 \)
• (4) \( m(1 - v_1) \)

Let the number of white vessels needed be \( n_1 \) for the emptying process described above, if the volume of each white vessel is 2 litres. Among the following values, which is the least upperbound on \( n_1 \)?

• (1) \( m/4 \)
• (2) smallest integer greater than or equal to \( n/2 \)
• (3) \( n \)
• (4) greatest integer less than or equal to \( (n/2) \)

If the number of coins distributed to Q is twice the number distributed to P, then which one of the following is necessarily true?

• (1) R gets an even number of coins.
• (2) R gets an odd number of coins.
• (3) S gets an even number of coins.
• (4) S gets an odd number of coins.

If R gets at least two more coins than S, then which one of the following is necessarily true?

• (1) Q gets at least two coins more than S.
• (2) Q gets more number of coins than P.
• (3) P gets more coins than S.
• (4) P and Q together get at least five coins.

If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which of the following is not necessarily true?

• (1) P and Q together get at least four coins.
• (2) S and Q together get at least four coins.
• (3) R and S together get at least five coins.
• (4) P and R together get at least five coins.

What is E?

• (1) Lawyer
• (2) Architect
• (3) Lecturer
• (4) Accountant

How many members of the group are male?

• (1) 2
• (2) 3
• (3) 4
• (4) None of these

The robot reaches point (6,6) when a sequence of three instructions is executed, the first of which is a GOTO(x,y) instruction, the second is WALKX(2) and the third is WALKY(4). What are the values of \( x \) and \( y \) respectively?

• (1) 2, 4
• (2) 0, 0
• (3) 4, 2
• (4) 2, 2

The robot is initially at \( (x, y), x > 0 \) and \( y < 0 \). The minimum number of instructions needed to execute to bring it to the origin \( (0,0) \) if you are prohibited from using the GOTO instruction is:

• (1) 2
• (2) 1
• (3) \( x + y \)
• (4) 0

Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

• (1) The closest pair of points among the six given points cannot be (F, C).
• (2) Distance between A and B is greater than distance between F and C.
• (3) The closest pair of points among 6 given points (C,D), (D,E) or (C,E).
• (4) None of the above.

AB \( > \) AF; CD \( > \) DE \( > \) CE, BF = \( 6\sqrt{5} \) cm. Which is the closest pair of points among all 6 given points?

• (1) B, F
• (2) C, D
• (3) A, B
• (4) None of these

If at the time Roopa moves out from her house, she has 30 flowers, then how many did she present to each deity?

• (1) 30
• (2) 31
• (3) 32
• (4) 33

The minimum number of flowers that can be presented is:

• (1) 8
• (2) 15
• (3) 16
• (4) Cannot be determined

The minimum number of flowers Roopa could have got from her home is:

• (1) 16
• (2) 15
• (3) 3
• (4) Cannot be determined

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• (1) a
• (2) b
• (3) c
• (4) d

• (1) a
• (2) b
• (3) c
• (4) d

• (1) a
• (2) b
• (3) c
• (4) d

• (1) a
• (2) b
• (3) c
• (4) d

1. In rejecting the functionalism in positivist organization theory, either wholly or partially,
there is often a move towards a political model of organization theory.

2. Thus the analysis would shift to the power resources possessed by different groups in the
organization and the way they use these resources in actual power plays to shape the
organizational structure.

3. At the extreme, in one set of writings, the growth of administrators in the organization is
held to be completely unrelated to the work to be done and to be closed totally by the
political pursuit of self-interest.

4. The political model holds that individual interests are pursued in organizational life through
the exercise of power and influence.

• (1) ADBC
• (2) CBAD
• (3) DBCA
• (4) ABDC

A. Group decision making, however, does not necessarily fully guard against arbitrariness and
anarchy, for individual capriciousness can get substituted by collusion of group members.

B. Nature itself is an intricate system of checks and balances, meant to preserve the delicate
balance between various environmental factors that affect our ecology.

C. In institutions also, there is a need to have in place a system of checks and balances which
inhibits the concentration of power in only some individuals.

D. When human interventions alter this delicate balance, the outcomes have been seen to be
disastrous.

• (1) CDAB
• (2) BCAD
• (3) CABD
• (4) BDCA

A. He was bone-weary and soul-weary, and found himself muttering, “either I can’t manage this place, or it’s unmanageable.”

B. To his horror, he realized that he had become the victim of an amorphous, unwitting, unconscious conspiracy to immerse him in routine work that had no significance.

C. It was one of those nights in the office when the office clock was moving towards four in the morning and Bennis was still not through with the incredible mass of paper stacked before him.

D. He reached for his calendar and ran his eyes down each hour, half-hour and quarter-hour, to see where his time had gone that day, the day before, the month before.

• (1) ABCD
• (2) CADB
• (3) BDCA
• (4) DCBA

A. With that, I swallowed the shampoo, and obtained most realistic results almost on the spot.

B. The man shuffled away into the back regions to make up a prescription, and after a moment
I got through on the shop-telephone to the Consulate, intimating my location.

C. Then, while the pharmacist was wrapping up a six-ounce bottle of the mixture, I groaned
and inquired whether he could give me something for acute gastric cramp.

D. I intended to stage a sharp gastric attack, and entering an old-fashioned pharmacy, I asked
for a popular shampoo mixture, consisting of olive oil and flaked soap.

• (1) DCBA
• (2) DACB
• (3) BDAC
• (4) BCDA

A. Since then, intelligence tests have been mostly used to separate dull children in school from
average or bright children, so that special education can be provided to the dull ones.

B. In other words, intelligence tests give us a norm for each age.

C. Intelligence is expressed as intelligence quotient, and tests are developed to indicate what
an average child of a certain age can do -- what a 5-year-old can answer, but a 4-year-old
cannot, for instance.

D. Binet developed the first set of such tests in the early 1900s to find out which children in
school needed special attention.

E. Intelligence can be measured by tests.

• (1) CDABE
• (2) DECAB
• (3) EDACB
• (4) CBADE

Bacon believes that medical profession should be permitted to ease and quicken death where the end would \underline{otherwise only delay for a few days and at the cost of great pain.

• (1) otherwise only delay for a few days and
• (2) be delayed for a few days and
• (3) otherwise be only delayed for a few days and
• (4) be delayed for a few days

Many of these environmentalists proclaim to \underline{save nothing less than the planet itself.

• (1) that they save nothing less than
• (2) that they are saving nothing lesser than
• (3) to save nothing less than
• (4) to save nothing lesser than

His mother made great sacrifices to educate him, moving house on three occasions, and \underline{severing the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.

• (1) Severed the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need for persevering.
• (2) Severed the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.
• (3) Severing the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.
• (4) Severed the thread on her loom’s shuttle when Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.

Since the advent of cable television, at the beginning of \underline{this decade, the entertainment industry took a giant stride forward in our country.

• (1) This decade, the entertainment had taken
• (2) This decade, the entertainment industry has taken
• (3) This decade saw the entertainment industry taking
• (4) This decade, the entertainment industry took

Mr. Pillai, the president of the union and \underline{who is also a member of the community group, will be in charge of the negotiations.

• (1) Since he is a member of the community group
• (2) Also being a member of the community group
• (3) A member of the community group
• (4) In addition, who is a member of the community group

If you are on a three-month software design project and, in two weeks, you have put together a programme that solves part of the problem, show it to your boss without delay.

• (1) and, you’ve put together a programme that solves part of the problem in two weeks
• (2) and, in two weeks, you’ve put together a programme that solves part of the problem
• (3) and, you’ve put together a programme that has solved part of the problem in two weeks
• (4) and, in two weeks you put together a programme that solved only part of the problem

The MP \underline{rose up to say that, in her opinion, she thought the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on unanimously.

• (1) rose to say that the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed
• (2) rose up to say that, the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on
• (3) rose to say that, in her opinion, she thought that the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed
• (4) rose to say that, in her opinion, the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on unanimously

It was \underline{us who had left before he arrived.

• (1) we who had left before he arrived
• (2) us who had left before he arrived
• (3) who had left before he arrived
• (4) we who had left before he arrived

The company’s coffee crop for 1998-99 totalled 8079 tonnes, an all time record. The increase over the previous year’s production of 5830 tonnes was 38.58%. The previous highest crop was 6089 tonnes in 1970-71. The company had fixed a target of 8000 tonnes to be realized by the year 2000-01, and this had been achieved two years earlier, thanks to the emphasis laid on the key areas of irrigation, replacement of unproductive coffee bushes, intensive refilling and improved agricultural practices. It is now our endeavour to reach the target of 10000 tonnes in the year 2001-02.


Which of the following would contribute most to making the target of 10,000 tonnes in 2001-02 unrealistic?

• (1) The potential of the productivity-enhancing measures implemented up to now has been exhausted.
• (2) The total company land under coffee has remained constant since 1969 when an estate in the Nilgiri Hills was acquired.
• (3) The sensitivity of the crop to climatic factors makes predictions about production uncertain.
• (4) The target setting procedures in the company have been proved to be sound by the achievement of the 8000 tonnes target.

Three airlines – IA, JA and SA – operate on the Delhi-Mumbai route. To increase the number of seats sold, SA reduced its fares and this was emulated by IA and JA immediately. The general belief was that the volume of air travel between Delhi and Mumbai would increase as a result.


Which of the following, if true, would add credence to the general belief?

• (1) Increase in profitability of the three airlines.
• (2) Extension of the discount scheme to other routes.
• (3) A study that shows that air travellers in India are price-conscious.
• (4) A study that shows that as much as 80% of air travel in India is company-sponsored.

Developed countries have made adequate provisions for social security for senior citizens. State insurers (as well as private ones) offer medicare and pension benefits to people who can no longer earn. In India, with the collapse of the joint family system, the traditional shelter of the elderly has disappeared. And a State faced with a financial crunch is not in a position to provide social security. So, it is advisable that the working population give serious thought to building a financial base for itself.


Which one of the following, if it were to happen, weakens the conclusion drawn in the above passage the most?

• (1) The investible income of the working population, as a proportion of its total income, will grow in the future.
• (2) The insurance sector is underdeveloped and trends indicate that it will be extensively privatized in the future.
• (3) India is on a path of development that will take it to a developed country status, with all its positive and negative implications.
• (4) If the working population builds a stronger financial base, there will be a revival of the joint family system.

Various studies have shown that our forested and hilly regions and, in general, areas where biodiversity – as reflected in the variety of flora – is high, are the places where poverty appears to be high. And these same areas are also the ones where educational performance seems to be poor. Therefore, it may be surmised that, even disregarding poverty status, richness in biodiversity goes hand in hand with educational backwardness.


Which one of the following statements, if true, can be said to best provide supporting evidence for the surmise mentioned in the passage?

• (1) In regions where there is little variety in flora, educational performance is seen to be as good as in regions with high variety in flora, when poverty levels are high.
• (2) Regions which show high biodiversity also exhibit poor educational performance, at low levels of poverty.
• (3) Regions which show high biodiversity reveal high levels of poverty and poor educational performance.
• (4) In regions where there is low biodiversity, at all levels of poverty, educational performance is seen to be good.

Cigarettes constitute a mere 20% of tobacco consumption in India, and fewer than 15% of the 200 million tobacco users consume cigarettes. Yet these 15% contribute nearly 90% of the tax revenues to the exchequer from the tobacco sector. The punitive cigarette taxation regime has kept the tax base narrow, and reducing taxes will expand this base.


Which one of the following best bolsters the conclusion that reducing duties will expand the tax base?

• (1) The cigarette manufacturers’ association has decided to indulge in aggressive promotion.
• (2) There is a likelihood that tobacco consumers will shift to cigarette smoking if cigarette prices were to reduce.
• (3) The cigarette manufacturers are lobbying for a reduction on duties.
• (4) An increase in duties on non-cigarette tobacco may lead to a shift in favour of cigarette smoking.

According to McNeill, a Brahmin priest was expected to be able to recite at least one of the Vedas. The practice was essential for several centuries when the Vedas had not yet been written down. It must have had a selective effect, since priests would have been recruited from those able or willing to memorize long passages. It must have helped in the dissemination of the work, since a memorized passage can be duplicated many times.


Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

• (1) The Vedas were a Brahmin’s obligation.
• (2) The Vedic priest was like a recorded audio device.
• (3) A study that shows that their veneration of Brahmins had social impact.
• (4) The Vedic priests’ ability to memorize contributed to their societal importance.

Thomas Malthus, the British clergyman turned economist, predicted that the planet would not be able to support the human population for long. His explanation was that human population grows at a geometric rate, while the food supply grows only at an arithmetic rate.


Which of the following, if true, would not undermine the thesis offered by Malthus?

• (1) Population growth can be slowed down by the voluntary choices of individuals and not just by natural disasters.
• (2) The capacity of the planet to feed a growing human population can be enhanced through biotechnological means.
• (3) Human systems, and natural systems like food supply, follow natural laws of growth which have remained constant and will remain unchanged.
• (4) Human beings can colonize other planetary systems on a regular and on-going basis to accommodate a growing population.

Animals in general are shrewd in proportion as they cultivate society. Elephants and beavers show the greatest signs of this sagacity when they are together in large numbers, but when man invades their communities they lose all their spirit of industry. Among insects, the labours of the bee and the ant have attracted the attention and admiration of naturalists, but all their sagacity seems to be lost upon separation, and a single bee or ant seems destitute of every degree of industry. It becomes the most stupid insect imaginable, and it languishes and soon dies.


Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

• (1) Humankind is responsible for the destruction of the natural habitat of animals and insects.
• (2) Animals, in general, are unable to function effectively outside their normal social environment.
• (3) Naturalists have great admiration for bees and ants despite their lack of industry upon separation.
• (4) Elephants and beavers are smarter than bees and ants in the presence of human beings.

The unseasonable man tends to

• (1) bring a higher bidder to a salesman who has just closed a deal.
• (2) disclose confidential information to others.
• (3) sing the praises of the bride when he goes to a wedding.
• (4) sleep late and rise early.

The unseasonable man tends to

• (1) entertain women.
• (2) be a successful arbitrator when dissenting parties are anxious to agree.
• (3) be helpful when solicited.
• (4) tell a long story to people who have heard it many times before.

The author argues that many people look down upon abstract art because they feel that:

• (1) Modern abstract art does not portray what is ideal and real.
• (2) Abstract artists are unskilled in matters of technical drafting.
• (3) Abstractionists compose irrationally.
• (4) All of the above.

The author believes that people feel comfortable with representational art because:

• (1) They are not engulfed in brightly coloured canvases.
• (2) They do not have to click their tongues and shake their heads in sympathy.
• (3) They understand the art without putting too much strain on their minds.
• (4) Paintings like Guernica do not have a point.

In the author’s opinion Picasso’s \textit{Guernica created a strong demand for justice since:

• (1) It was a protest against the German bombing of Guernica.
• (2) Picasso managed to express the emotional content well with his abstract depiction.
• (3) It depicts the terror and suffering of the victims in a distorted manner.
• (4) It was a mature work of Picasso’s painted when the artist’s drafting skills were excellent.

The author acknowledges that Mondrian’s pieces may have ended up looking like a scrabble board because

• (1) Many people declared the poor guy played too many scrabble games.
• (2) Mondrian believed in the ‘grid-works’ approach to abstractionist painting.
• (3) Mondrian was trying to convey the message of simplicity and rational order.
• (4) Mondrian learned from his Trees series to evolve a grid system.

The main difference between the abstract artist and the representational artist in matters of the ‘ideal’ and the ‘real’, according to the author, is:

• (1) The abstract artist seeks to deal with ‘reality’ in his or her own ways.
• (2) The representational artist deals with ‘reality’ only as he or she sees it.
• (3) The abstract artist is driven to express reality as a perception of the mind.
• (4) Both artists perceive reality but portray it differently.

The author holds that:

• (1) There is an objective reality and a subjective reality.
• (2) Nature is the sum total of disparate elements.
• (3) It is human action that reveals the various facets of nature.
• (4) Apparently disconnected elements in nature are unified in a fundamental sense.

It is the author’s contention that:

• (1) Artistic creations are results of human consciousness.
• (2) The very act of artistic creation leads to the escape of the created object.
• (3) Man can produce and reveal at the same time.
• (4) An act of creation forces itself on our consciousness leaving us full of amazement.

The passage makes a distinction between perception and creation in terms of:

• (1) Objectivity and subjectivity
• (2) Revelation and action
• (3) Objective reality and perceived reality
• (4) Essentiality and non-essentiality of objects and subjects.

The art of writing manifests the dialectic of perception and creation because:

• (1) Reading reveals the writing till the act of reading lasts.
• (2) Writing to be meaningful needs the concrete act of reading.
• (3) This art is anticipated and progresses on a series of hypotheses.
• (4) This literary object has a moving horizon brought about by the very act of creation.

A writer as an artist,

• (1) Reveals the essentiality of revelation.
• (2) Makes us feel essential vis-à-vis nature.
• (3) Creates reality.
• (4) Reveals nature in its permanence.

According to the author, happiness of individuals was expected to be guaranteed in the name of:

• (1) Development in the Third world.
• (2) Socialism in the Third world.
• (3) Development in the west.
• (4) Modernisation in the Eastern Bloc.

Demands for recognition of identities can be viewed:

• (1) Positively and negatively.
• (2) As liberation movements and militant action.
• (3) As efforts to rediscover cultural roots which can slide towards intolerance of others.
• (4) All the above.

Going by the author’s exposition of the nature of identity, which of the following statement is untrue?

• (1) Identity represents creating uniform groups out of disparate people.
• (2) Identity is a necessity in the changing world.
• (3) Identity is a cognitive necessity.
• (4) None of the above.

According to the author, the nation-state:

• (1) Has fulfilled its potential.
• (2) Is willing to do anything to preserve order.
• (3) Generates security for all its citizens.
• (4) Has been a major force in preventing civil and international wars.

Which of the following views of the nation-state cannot be attributed to the author?

• (1) It has not guaranteed peace and security.
• (2) It may go as far as genocide for self-preservation.
• (3) It represents the demands of communities within it.
• (4) It is unable to prevent international wars.

According to the author, the greatest military surprises in American history have been in Asia because:

• (1) The Americans failed to implement their military strategies many miles away from their own country.
• (2) The Americans were unable to use their technologies like intelligence satellites effectively to detect enemy movements.
• (3) The Americans failed to understand the Asian culture of war that was based on stealth and surprise.
• (4) Clausewitz is inferior to Sun-tzu.

Which of the following statements does not describe the ‘Asian’ way of war?

• (1) Indirect attacks without frontal attacks.
• (2) The swordsman charging forward to obliterate the enemy once and for all.
• (3) Manipulation of an adversary without his knowledge.
• (4) Subduing an enemy without fighting.

The difference in the concepts of war of Clausewitz and Sun-tzu is best characterized by:

• (1) Clausewitz’s support of militarism as against Sun-tzu’s opposition to it.
• (2) Their relative degrees of sophistication.
• (3) Their attitude to guerilla warfare.
• (4) Their differing conceptions of the structure, time and sequence of a war.

Which of the following is not one of Sun-tzu’s ideas?

• (1) Actual combat is the principal means of subduing an adversary.
• (2) War should be undertaken only after thorough preparation.
• (3) War is linked to politics.
• (4) War should not be left to generals alone.

To the Americans, the approach of the Viet Cong seemed devious because:

• (1) The Viet Cong did not fight like men out in the open.
• (2) The Viet Cong allied with America’s enemies.
• (3) The Viet Cong took strategic advice from Mao Zedong.
• (4) The Viet Cong used bows and arrows rather than conventional weapons.

According to the author, the main reason for the U.S. losing the Vietnam war was:

• (1) The Vietnamese understood the local terrain better.
• (2) The lack of support for the war from the American people.
• (3) The failure of the U.S. to mobilize its military strength.
• (4) Their inability to fight a war on terms other than those they understood well.

What could be the closest reason why the WTO was not formed in the 1970s?

• (1) The US government did not like it.
• (2) Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.
• (3) Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system.
• (4) The Tokyo Round negotiation was an attempt at constitutional reform.

The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that:

• (1) It had the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures.
• (2) They recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.
• (3) It settles disputes more legally and more effectively.
• (4) Its rule-based system leads to export gains.

According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly through:

• (1) Integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.
• (2) Rules that create their own incentive for fulfilment.
• (3) Grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures.
• (4) Ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.

In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice:

• (1) Current policies needed to be consistent with stated goals.
• (2) Contracting party trade practices needed to be consistent with stated rules.
• (3) The enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized.
• (4) Actions of member states needed to be evaluated against the stated community goals.

In the statement “…. it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rules-based environment.” it refers to:

• (1) Ambassador Kantor’s defense of the WTO.
• (2) The higher priority on export gains by many countries at the Uruguay Round.
• (3) The export gains many countries have come to associate with a rules-based system.
• (4) The provision of a fairer global gains by the WTO.

The importance of \textit{Cassis de Dijon is that it:

• (1) Gave a new impetus to the momentum of legal development at the European Court of Justice.
• (2) Resulted in a decision that expanded incrementally the EU’s internal market.
• (3) Strengthened the role of the court more than envisaged in the Treaty of Rome.
• (4) Led to a doctrine that was a key turning point in European integration.

1. Making people laugh is tricky.

A. At times, the intended humour may simply not come off.

B. Making people laugh while trying to sell them something is a tougher challenge, since the commercial can fall flat on two grounds.

C. There are many advertisements, which do amuse but do not even begin to set the cash tills ringing.

D. Again, it is rarely sufficient for an advertiser to amuse the target audience in order to reap the sales benefit.

6. There are indications that in substituting the hard sell for a more entertaining approach, some agencies have rather thrown out the baby with the bath water.

• (1) CDAB
• (2) ABCD
• (3) BADC
• (4) DCBA

1. Picture a termite colony, occupying a tall mud hump on an African plain.

A. Hungry predators often invade the colony and unsettle the balance.

B. The colony flourishes only if the proportion of soldiers to workers remains roughly the same so that the queen and workers can be protected by the soldiers and the queen and soldiers can be serviced by the workers.

C. But its fortunes are presently restored, because the immobile queen, walled in well below ground level, lays eggs not only in large enough numbers, but also in the varying proportions required.

D. The hump is alive with worker termites and soldier termites going about their distinct kinds of business.

6. How can we account for her mysterious ability to respond like this to events on the distant
surface?

• (1) BADC
• (2) DBAC
• (3) ADCB
• (4) BDCA

1. According to recent research, the critical period for developing language skills is between the ages of three and five and half years.

A. The read-to-child already has a large vocabulary and a sense of grammar and sentence structure.

B. Children who are read to in these years have a far better chance of reading well in school, indeed of doing well in all their subjects.

C. And the reason is actually quite simple.

D. This correlation is far and away the highest yet found between home influences and school success.

6. Her comprehension of language is therefore very high.

• (1) DACB
• (2) ADCB
• (3) ADBC
• (4) BDCA

1.High-powered outboard motors were considered to be one of the major threats to the survival of the Beluga whales.

A. With these, hunters could approach Belugas within hunting range and profit from its inner skin and blubber.

B. To escape an approaching motor, Belugas have learned to dive to the ocean bottom and stay there for up to 20 minutes by which time the confused predator has left.

C. Today, however, even with much more powerful engines, it is difficult to come close, because the whales seem to disappear suddenly just when you thought you had them in your sights.

D. When the first outboard engines arrived in the early 1930s out came 4 and 8 HP motors.

6. Belugas, seem to have used their well-known sensitivity to noise to evolve an ‘avoidance’
strategy to outsmart hunters and their powerful technologies.

• (1) DABC
• (2) CDAB
• (3) ADBC
• (4) BDAC

1. The reconstruction of history by post-revolutionary science texts involves more than a multiplication of historical misconstructions.

A. Because they aim quickly to acquaint the student with what the contemporary scientific community thinks it knows textbooks treat the various experiments, concepts, laws and theories of the current normal science as separately and as nearly seriatim as possible.

B. Those misconstructions render revolutions invisible; the arrangement of the still visible material in science texts implies a process that, if it existed, would deny revolutions a function.

C. But when combined with the generally unhistorical air of science writing and with the occasional systematic misconstruction, one impression is likely to follow.

D. As pedagogy this technique of presentation is unexceptionable.

6.Science has reached its present state by a series of individual discoveries and inventions
that when gathered together, constitute the modern body of technical knowledge.

• (1) BADC
• (2) ADCB
• (3) DABC
• (4) CBDA

A. No cowboys laugh. Some who laugh are sphinxes. Some sphinxes are not cowboys.

B. All ghosts the fluorescent. Some ghosts do not sing. Some singers are not fluorescent.

C. Cricketers indulge in swearing. Those who swear are hanged. Some who are hanged are not cricketers.

D. Some crazy people are pianists. All crazy people are whistlers. Some whistlers are pianists.

• (1) A and B
• (2) C only
• (3) A and D
• (4) D only

A. All good people are knights. All warriors are good people. All knights are warriors.

B. No footballers are ministers. All footballers are tough. Some ministers are players.

C. All pizzas are snacks. Some meals are pizzas. Some meals are snacks.

D. Some barkers are musk deer. All barkers are sloth bears. Some sloth bears are musk deer.

• (1) C and D
• (2) B and C
• (3) A only
• (4) C only

A. Dinosaurs are pre-historic creatures. Water buffaloes are not dinosaurs. Water buffaloes are not pre historic creatures.

B. All politicians are frank. No frank people are crocodiles. No crocodiles are politicians
\
C. No diamond is quartz. No opal is quartz. Diamonds are opals.

D. All monkeys like bananas. Some GI Joes like bananas. Some GI Joes are monkeys.

• (1) C only
• (2) B only
• (3) A and D
• (4) B and C

A. All earthquakes cause havoc. Some landslides cause havoc. Some earthquakes cause landslides

B. All glass things are transparent. Some curios are glass things. Some curios are transparent

C. All clay objects are brittle. All XY are clay objects. Some XY are brittle.

D. No criminal is a patriot. Ram is not a patriot. Ram is a criminal.

• (1) D only
• (2) B only
• (3) C and B
• (4) A and B

A. MD is an actor. Some actors are pretty. MD is pretty.

B. Some men are cops. All cops are brave. Some brave people are cops

C. All cops are brave. Some men are cops. Some men are brave.

D. All actors are pretty; MD is not an actor; MD is not pretty

• (1) D only
• (2) C only
• (3) A and D
• (4) B and C

A. All IIMs are in India. No BIMs are in India. No IIMs are BIMs.

B. All IIMs are in India. No BIMs are in India. No BIMs are IIMs

C. Some IIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are not in India. Some IIMs are BIMs

D. Some IIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are IIMs.

• (1) A and B
• (2) C and D
• (3) A only
• (4) B only

A. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Citizens of Yes Islands are young people. Young people speak only the truth.

B. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some Yes Islands are in the Atlantic. Some citizens of Yes Islands are in the Atlantic

C. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some young people are citizens of Yes Islands. Some young people speak only the truth.

D. Some people speak only the truth. Some citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some people who speak only the truth are citizens of Yes Islands.

• (1) A only
• (2) B only
• (3) C only
• (4) D only

A. All mammals are viviparous. Some fish are viviparous. Some fish are mammals.

B. All birds are oviparous. Some fish are not oviparous. Some fish are birds

C. No mammal is oviparous. Some creatures are oviparous and some are not. Some creatures are not mammals.

D. Some creatures are mammals. Some creatures are viviparous. Some mammals are viviparous.

• (1) A only
• (2) B only
• (3) C only
• (4) D only

A. Many singers are not writers. All poets are singers. Some poets are not writers

B. Giants climb beanstalks. Some chicken do not climb beanstalks. Some chicken are not giants

C. All explorers live in snowdrifts. Some penguins live in snowdrifts. Some penguins are explorers

D. Amar is taller than Akbar. Anthony is shorter than Amar. Akbar is shorter than Anthony.

• (1) A only
• (2) B only
• (3) B and C
• (4) D only

A. A few farmers are rocket scientists. Some rocket scientists catch snakes. A few farmers catch snakes.

B. Poonam is a kangaroo. Some kangaroos are made of teak. Poonam is made of teak

C. No bulls eat grass. All matadors eat grass. No matadors are bulls.

D. Some skunks drive Pajeros. All skunks are polar bears. Some polar bears drive Pajeros.

• (1) B only
• (2) A and C
• (3) C only
• (4) C and D

Either the orangutan is not angry, or he frowns upon the world.


A. The orangutan frowns upon the world.

B. The orangutan is not angry

C. The orangutan does not frown upon the world.

D. The orangutan is angry.

• (1) CB only
• (2) DA only
• (3) AB only
• (4) CB and DA

Whenever Rajeev uses the internet, he dreams about spider.


A. Rajeev did not dream about spiders.

B. Rajeev used the internet.

C. Rajeev dreamt about spiders.

D. Rajeev did not use the internet.

• (1) AD only
• (2) DC
• (3) CB
• (4) DA

Either Ravana is a demon or he is a hero.

A. Ravana is a hero.

B. Ravana is a Demon

C. Ravana is not a Demon.

D. Ravana is not a Hero.

• (1) CD only
• (2) BA only
• (3) CD and BA
• (4) DB and CA

If I talk to my professors, then I do not need a pill for headache.


A. I talked to my professors.

B. I did not need to take a pill for headache

C. I needed to take a pill for headache.

D. I did not talk to my professor.

• (1) AB only
• (2) CD only
• (3) AD only
• (4) CB and DA

A. All software companies employ knowledge workers.

B. Tara tech employs knowledge workers

C. Tara Tech is a software company.

D. The interview kept flashing through his mind.

E. Tara tech employs only knowledge workers.

• (1) ABC
• (2) ACB
• (3) CDB
• (4) ACE

A. Traffic congestion increases carbon mono oxide in the air

B. Increase in carbon mono oxide is hazardous to health

C. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health.

D. Some traffic congestion does not cause an increase in carbon monoxide.

E. Some traffic congestion is not bad for health.

• (1) CBA
• (2) BDE
• (3) CDE
• (4) BAC

A. Apples are not sweets.

B. Some apples are sweet.

C. All sweets are tasty.

D. Some apples are not tasty.

E. No apple is tasty.

• (1) CEA
• (2) BDC
• (3) CBA
• (4) EAC

A. Some towns are polluted.

B. All polluted towns should be destroyed

C. Town Meghana should be destroyed.

D. Town Meghana is polluted.

E. Some towns in should be destroyed.

• (1) BDE
• (2) BAE
• (3) ADE
• (4) CDB

A. No patriot is a criminal.

B. Ravi is not a criminal

C. Ravi is a patriot.

D. Mohan is not a patriot.

E. Mohan is a criminal.

• (1) ACB
• (2) ABC
• (3) ADE
• (4) ABE

A. Ant eaters like ants.

B. Boys are anteaters

C. Jai is an anteater

D. Jai likes ants

E. Jai may eat ants

• (1) DCA
• (2) ADC
• (3) ABE
• (4) ACD

A. All actors are handsome.

B. Some actors are popular.

C. Ram is handsome.

D. Ram is a popular actor.

E. Some popular people are handsome

• (1) ACD
• (2) ABE
• (3) CDA
• (4) EDC

A. Modern industry is technology driven.

B. BTI is a modern industry

C. BTI is technology driven

D. BTI may be technology driven.

E. Technology driven industry is modern

• (1) ABC
• (2) ABD
• (3) BCA
• (4) EBC

A. All Golmal islanders are blue coloured.

B. Some smart people are not blue coloured

C. Some babies are blue coloured.

D. Some babies are smart

E. Some smart people are not Golmal islanders

• (1) BCD
• (2) ABC
• (3) CBD
• (4) None of these

A. MBAs are in great demand.

B. Ram and Sita are in great demand

C. Ram is in great demand.

D. Sita is in great demand.

E. Ram and Sita are MBAs

• (1) ABE
• (2) ECD
• (3) AEB
• (4) EBA

Which is the region which has the highest total trade with India in 1997-98?

• (1) USA
• (2) Other EU
• (3) OPEC
• (4) Others

In 1997-98, the amount of Indian export in million dollars to the region with which India has the lowest total trade is approximately:

• (1) 750
• (2) 340
• (3) 220
• (4) 440

In 1997-98, the trade deficit with respect to India in billions of dollars for the region with the highest trade deficit with respect to India is approximately:

• (1) 6
• (2) 3
• (3) 4.5
• (4) 7.5

What is the region with the lowest trade deficit with India in 1997-98?

• (1) USA
• (2) Asia
• (3) Others
• (4) Other EU

What is the region to which Indian exports registered the highest percentage growth between 1997-98 and 1998-99?

• (1) Other East Europe
• (2) USA
• (3) Asia
• (4) Exports have declined, no growth

What is the percentage growth rate in India's total trade deficit between 1997-98 and 1998-99?

• (1) 43
• (2) 47
• (3) 50
• (4) 40

Price change of a commodity is defined as the absolute difference in ending and beginning prices expressed as a percentage of the beginning. What is the commodity with the highest price change?

• (1) Arhar
• (2) Pepper
• (3) Sugar
• (4) Gold

Price Volatility (PV) of a commodity is defined as follows: \[ PV = \frac{Highest Price during the Period - Lowest Price during the Period}{Average Price during the Period} \]
What is the commodity with the lowest price volatility?

• (1) Arhar
• (2) Pepper
• (3) Sugar
• (4) Gold

Mr. X, a funds manager, with an investment company invested 25% of his funds in each of the four commodities at the beginning of the period. He sold the commodities at the end of the period. His investments in the commodities resulted in:

• (1) 17% profit
• (2) 5.5% loss
• (3) No profit no loss
• (4) 4.3% profit

The price volatility of the commodity with the highest PV during the February-July period is approximately equal to:

• (1) 3%
• (2) 40%
• (3) 20%
• (4) 12%

The highest percentage of growth in sales, relative to the previous year, occurred in:

• (1) 1995-96
• (2) 1996-97
• (3) 1997-98
• (4) 1998-99

The highest percentage growth in net profit, relative to the previous year, was achieved in:

• (1) 1998-99
• (2) 1997-98
• (3) 1996-97
• (4) 1995-96

Defining profitability as the ratio of net profit of sales, IVP Ltd. recorded the highest profitability in:

• (1) 1998-99
• (2) 1997-98
• (3) 1994-95
• (4) 1996-97

With profitability as defined in question 147, it can be concluded that:

• (1) Profitability is non-decreasing during the five years from 1994-95 to 1998-99
• (2) Profitability is non-increasing during the five years from 1994-95 to 1998-99
• (3) Profitability remained constant during the five years from 1994-95 to 1998-99
• (4) None of the above

What are the countries on the coverage frontier?

• (1) India and China.
• (2) Sri Lanka and Indonesia.
• (3) Philippines and Bangladesh.
• (4) Nepal and Pakistan.

Which of the following statements are true?

• (1) India > Pakistan and India > Indonesia
• (2) India > China and India > Nepal
• (3) Sri Lanka > China
• (4) China > Nepal

Using only the data presented under Sanitation facilities columns, it can be concluded that population in India, as a percentage of its total population is approximately:

• (1) 76
• (2) 70
• (3) 73
• (4) Cannot be determined

Again using only the data presented under sanitation facilities columns, sequence China, Indonesia, and Philippines in ascending order of rural population as a percentage of their respective total populations. The correct order is:

• (1) Philippines, Indonesia, China
• (2) Indonesia, China, Philippines
• (3) Indonesia, Philippines, China
• (4) China, Indonesia, Philippines

India is not on the coverage frontier because:


(A) It is lower than Bangladesh in terms of coverage of drinking water facilities.

(B) It is lower than Sri Lanka in terms of coverage of sanitation facilities.

(C) It is lower than Pakistan in terms of coverage of sanitation facilities.

(D) It is dominated by Indonesia.



%Option
1. A and B

%Option
2. A and C

%Option
3. D

%Option
4. None of these

The country with the most disparity in coverage of rural sector is:

• (1) India
• (2) Bangladesh
• (3) Nepal
• (4) None of these

The country with the least disparity in coverage of rural sector is:

• (1) India
• (2) Pakistan
• (3) Philippines
• (4) None of these

Mr. X starts walking northwards along the boundary of a field, from point A on the boundary, and after walking for 150 meters reaches B, and then walks westwards, again along the boundary, for another 100 meters when he reaches C. What is the maximum distance between any pair of points on the boundary of the field?


% Statement A
A. The field is rectangular in shape.

% Statement B
B. The field is a polygon, with C as one of its vertices and A the midpoint of a side.

A line graph on a graph sheet shows the revenue for each year from 1990 through 1998 by points and joins the successive points by straight line segments. The point for revenue of 1990 is labelled A, that for 1991 as B, and that for 1992 as C. What is the ratio of growth in revenue between 91-92 and 90-91?


% Statement A
A. The angle between AB and X-axis when measured with a protractor is 40 degrees, and the angle between CB and X-axis is 80 degrees.

% Statement B
B. The scale of Y-axis is 1 cm = 1000 Rs.

There is a circle with centre C at the origin and radius r cm. Two tangents are drawn from an external point D at a distance d cm from the centre. What are the angles between each tangent and the X-axis?


% Statement A
A. The coordinates of D are given.

% Statement B
B. The X-axis bisects one of the tangents.

Find a pair of real numbers x and y that satisfy the following two equations simultaneously. It is known that the values of a, b, c, d, e, f are non-zero.
\[ ax + by = c \] \[ dx + ey = f \]

A. \( a = kd \) and \( b = ke \), \( c = kf \), \( k \neq 0 \)

B. \( a = b = 1 \), \( d = e = 2 \), \( f = 2c \)

Three professors A, B and C are separately given three sets of numbers to add. They were expected to find the answers to 1+1, 1+1+2, and 1+1 respectively. Their respective answers were 3, 3 and 2. How many of the professors are mathematicians?


% Statement A
A. A mathematician can never add two numbers correctly, but can always add three numbers correctly.

% Statement B
B. When a mathematician makes a mistake in a sum, the error is +1 or -1.

The average weight of students in a class is 50 kg. What is the number of students in the class?


% Statement A
A. The heaviest and the lightest members of the class weigh 60 kg and 40 kg respectively.

% Statement B
B. Exclusion of the heaviest and the lightest members from the class does not change the average weight of the students.

A small storage tank is spherical in shape. What is the storage volume of the tank?


% Statement A
A. The wall thickness of the tank is 1 cm.

% Statement B
B. When the empty spherical tank is immersed in a large tank filled with water, 20 liters of water overflow from the large tank.

How many among the four students A, B, C and D have passed the exam?


% Statement A
A. The following is a true statement: A & B passed the exam.

% Statement B
B. The following is a false statement: At least one among C & D has passed the exam.

What is the distance x between two cities A & B in integral number of kms?


% Statement A
A. x satisfies the equation \( \log_2 x = \sqrt{x} \).

% Statement B
B. \( x \leq 10 \) kms.

Mr. Mendel grew one hundred flowering plants from black seeds and white seeds, each seed giving rise to one plant. A plant gives flowers of only one colour. From a black seed comes a plant giving red or blue flowers. From a white seed comes a plant giving red or white flowers. How many black seeds were used by Mr. Mendel?


% Statement A
A. The number of plants with white flowers was 10.

% Statement B
B. The number of plants with red flowers was 70.