CAT 2000 Question Paper(Available):Download Solutions with Answer Key

Question 1:

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

1. If caught in the act, they were punished, not for the crime, but for allowing themselves to be caught another lash of the whip.

2. The bellicose Spartans sacrificed all the finer things in life for military expertise.

3. Those fortunate enough to survive babyhood were taken away from their mothers at the age of seven to undergo rigorous military training.

4. This consisted mainly of beatings and deprivations of all kinds like going around barefoot in winter, and worse starvation, so that they would be forced to steal food to survive.

5. Male children were examined at birth by the city council and those deemed too weak to become soldiers were left to die of exposure.

• (1) BECDA
• (2) ECADB
• (3) BCDAE
• (4) ECDAB

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

A. This very insatiability of the photographing eye changes the terms of confinement in the cave, our world.

B. Humankind lingers unregenerately in Plato’s cave, still revelling in its age-old habit in mere images or truth.

C. But being educated by photographs is not like being educated by older images drawn by hand; for one thing, there are a great many more images around claiming our attention.

D. The inventory started in 1839 and since then just about everything has been photographed or so it seems.

E. In teaching us a new visual code, photographs alter and enlarge our notions of what is worth looking at and what we have a right to observe.

• (1) EABCD
• (2) BDEAC
• (3) BCDAE
• (4) ECDAB

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

A. To be culturally literate is to possess the basic information needed to thrive in the modern world.

B. Nor is it confined to one social class; quite the contrary.

C. It is by no means confined to “culture” narrowly understood as an acquaintance with the arts.

D. Cultural literacy constitutes the only sure avenue of opportunity for disadvantaged children, the only reliable way of combating the social determinism that now condemns them.

E. The breadth of that information is great, extending over the major domains of human activity from sports to science.

• (1) AECBD
• (2) DECBA
• (3) ACBED
• (4) DBCAE

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

A. Both parties use capital and labour in the struggle to secure property rights.

B. The thief spends time and money in his attempt to steal (he buys wire cutters) and the legitimate property owners expends resources to prevent the theft (he buys locks).

C. A social cost of theft is that both the thief and the potential victim use resources to gain or maintain control over property.

D. These costs may escalate as a type of technological arms race unfolds.

E. A bank may purchase more and more complicated and sophisticated safes, forcing safecrackers to invest further in safecracking equipment.

• (1) ABCDE
• (2) CABDE
• (3) ACBED
• (4) CBEDA

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

A. The likelihood of an accident is determined by how carefully the motorist drives and how carefully the pedestrian crosses the street.

B. An accident involving a motorist and a pedestrian is such a case.

C. Each must decide how much care to exercise without knowing how careful the other is.

D. The simplest strategic problem arises when two individuals interact with each other, and each must decide what to do without knowing what the other is doing.

• (1) ABCD
• (2) ADCB
• (3) DBCA
• (4) DBAC

Security inks exploit the same principle that causes the vivid and constantly changing colours of a film of oil on water.

A. When two rays of light meet each other after being reflected from these different surfaces, they have each travelled slightly different distances.

B. The key is that the light is bouncing off two surfaces, that of the oil and that of the water layer below it.

C. The distance the two travel determines which wavelengths and hence colours, interfere constructively and look bright.

D. Because light is an electromagnetic wave, the peaks and troughs of each ray then interfere either constructively to appear bright, or destructively, to appear dim.


6. Since the distance the rays travel changes with the angle as you look at the surface,
different colours look bright from different viewing angles.

• (1) ABCD
• (2) BADC
• (3) BDAC
• (4) DCAB

Commercially reared chicken can be unusually aggressive, and are often kept in darkened sheds to prevent them pecking at each other.

A. The birds spent far more of their time - up to a third - pecking at the inanimate objects in the pens, in contrast to birds in other pens which spent a lot of time attacking others.

B. In low light conditions, they behave less belligerently but are more prone to ophthalmic disorders and respiratory problems.

C. In an experiment, aggressive head-pecking was all but eliminated among birds in the enriched environment.

D. Alerting the birds’ environment, by adding bales of wood-shaving to their pens can work wonders.


6. Bales could diminish aggressiveness and reduce injuries; they might even improve
productivity, since a happy chicken is a productive chicken.

• (1) DCAB
• (2) CDBA
• (3) DBAC
• (4) BDAC

The concept of a ‘nation-state’ assumes a complete correspondence between the boundaries of the nation and the boundaries of those who live in a specific state.

A. Then there are members of national collectivities who live in other countries, making a mockery of the concept.

B. There are always people living in particular states who are not considered to be (and often do not consider themselves to be) members of the hegemonic nation.

C. Even worse, there are nations which never had a state or which are divided across several states.

D. This, of course, has been subject to severe criticism and is virtually everywhere a fiction.


6. However the fiction has been and continues to be at the basis of nationalist ideologies.

• (1) DBAC
• (2) ABCD
• (3) BACD
• (4) DACB

In the sciences, even questionable examples of research fraud are harshly punished.

A. But no such mechanism exists in the humanities - much of what humanities researchers call research does not lead to results that are replicable by other scholars.

B. Given the importance of interpretation in historical and literary scholarship, humanities researchers are in a position where they can explain away deliberate and even systematic distortion.

C. Mere suspicion is enough for funding to be cut off; publicity guarantees that careers can be effectively ended.

D. Forgeries which take the form of pastiches in which the forger intersperses fake and real parts can be defended as mere mistakes or aberrant misreading.


6. Scientists funding data have no such defences.

• (1) BDCA
• (2) ABDC
• (3) CABD
• (4) CDBA

Horses and communism were, on the whole, a poor match.

A. Fine horses bespoke the nobility the party was supposed to despise.

B. Communist leaders, when they visited villages, preferred to see cows and pigs.

C. Although a working horse was just about tolerable the communists were right to be wary.

D. Peasants from Poland to the Hungarian Pustza preferred their horses to party dogma.


6. “A farmer’s pride is his horse; his cow may be thin but his horse must be fat”, went a
Slovak saying

• (1) ACBD
• (2) CBDA
• (3) ABCD
• (4) DCAB

In developing magnetic memory chips to replace the electronic ones, two alternative research paths are being pursued. These are approaches based on:

• (1) Volatile and non-volatile memories
• (2) Magneto-resistance and magnetic tunnel-junctions
• (3) Radiation-disruption and radiation-neutral effects
• (4) Orientation of magnetised spots on the surface of a spinning disk and alignment of magnetic dots on the surface of a conventional memory chip

A binary digit or bit is represented in the magneto-resistance based magnetic chip using:

• (1) A layer of aluminium oxide
• (2) A capacitor
• (3) A vertical pillar of magnetised material
• (4) A matrix or wires

In a magnetic tunnel-junction (MTJ) tunnelling is easier when:

• (1) Two magnetic layers are polarised in the same direction
• (2) Two magnetic layers are polarised in the opposite directions
• (3) Two aluminium-oxide barriers are polarised in the same direction
• (4) Two aluminium-oxide barriers are polarised in opposite directions

A major barrier on the way to build a full-scale memory chip based on MTJs is:

• (1) The low sensitivity of the magnetic memory elements
• (2) The thickness of aluminium oxide barriers
• (3) The need to develop more reliable and far smaller magnetic memory chips
• (4) All the above

In MTJs approach, it is possible to identify whether the topmost layer of the magnetised memory element is storing a zero or a one by:

• (1) Measuring an element’s resistance and thus determining its magnetic orientation
• (2) Measuring the degree of disruption caused by radiation in the elements of the magnetic memory
• (3) Measuring the elements’ electric clockwise or anti-clockwise
• (4) Measuring the current that flows through the sandwich

A line of research which is trying to build a magnetic chip that can both store and manipulate information is being pursued by:

• (1) Paul Freitas
• (2) Stuart Parkin
• (3) Gary Prinz
• (4) None of the above

Experimental research using rows of magnetic dots, each polarised in one of two directions, has led to the demonstration of:

• (1) Working of a microprocessor
• (2) Working of a logic gate
• (3) Working of a magneto-resistance based chip
• (4) Working of a magneto tunnelling-junction (MTJ) based chip

From the passage, which of the following cannot be inferred?

• (1) Electronic memory chips are faster and non-volatile
• (2) Electronic and magnetic storage technologies play a complementary role
• (3) MTJs are the more promising idea, compared to the magneto-resistance approach
• (4) Non-volatile Electronics is the company set up to commercialise the GMR chips

Which of the following best describes the approach of the author?

• (1) Comparing experiences with two innovations tried, in order to illustrate the failure of both.
• (2) Presenting community perspectives on two technologies which have had negative effects on people.
• (3) Using the negative outcomes of one innovation to illustrate the likely outcomes of another innovation.
• (4) Contrasting two contexts separated in time, to illustrate how ‘deserts’ have arisen.

According to the passage, bereavement handling traditionally involves:

• (1) The community bereavement counsellors working with the bereaved to help him/her overcome grief.
• (2) The neighbours and kin joining the bereaved and meeting grief together in mourning and prayer.
• (3) Using techniques developed systematically in formal institutions of learning, a trained counsellor helping the bereaved cope with grief.
• (4) The Sauk Indian Chief leading the community with rituals and rites to help lessen the grief of the bereaved.

Due to which of the following reasons, according to the author, will the bereavement counsellor find the deserts even in herself?

• (1) Over a period of time, working with Sauk Indians who have lost their kinship and relationships, she becomes one of them.
• (2) She is working in an environment where the disappearance of community mourners makes her workplace a social desert.
• (3) Her efforts at grief processing with the bereaved will fail as no amount of professional service can make up for the loss due to the disappearance of community mourners.
• (4) She has been working with people who have settled for a long time in the Great Desert.

According to the author, the bereavement counsellor is:

• (1) A friend of the bereaved helping him or her handle grief.
• (2) An advocate of the right to treatment for the community.
• (3) A formally trained person helping him/her handle grief.
• (4) A formalised person trained to help in bereavement handling.

The Prairie was a great puzzlement for the European pioneers because:

• (1) It was covered with thick, untillable layers of grass over a vast stretch.
• (2) It was a large desert immediately next to lush forests.
• (3) It was rich cultivable land left fallow for centuries.
• (4) It could be easily tilled with iron plows.

Which of the following does the ‘desert’ in the passage refer to?

• (1) Prairie soil depleted by cultivation of wheat
• (2) Reservations in which native Indians were resettled
• (3) Absence of, and emptiness in, community kinship and relationships
• (4) All of the above

According to the author, people will begin to utilise the service of the bereavement counsellor because:

• (1) New County regulations will make them feel it is a right, and if they don’t use it, it would be a loss
• (2) The bereaved in the community would find her a helpful friend
• (3) She will fight for subsistence allowance from the County Board for the poor among the bereaved
• (4) Grief processing needs tools certified by universities and medical centres

Which one of the following parallels between the plow and bereavement counselling is not claimed by the author?

• (1) Both are innovative technologies
• (2) Both result in migration of the communities into which the innovations are introduced
• (3) Both lead to ‘deserts’ in the space of only one generation
• (4) Both are tools introduced by outsiders entering existing communities

The author’s contention that the notion of property lies at the heart of the Western conception of genius is best indicated by which one of the following?

• (1) The creative output of a genius is invariably written down and recorded.
• (2) The link between the creator and his output is unambiguous.
• (3) The word “genius” is derived from a Latin word which means “to beget”.
• (4) The music composer notates his music and thus becomes the “father” of a particular piece of music.

Saussure’s conception of language as a communication between addresser and addressee, according to the author, is exemplified by the:

• (1) Teaching of North Indian classical music by word of mouth and direct demonstration
• (2) Use of the recorded cassette as a transmission medium between the music teacher and the trainee
• (3) Written down notation sheets of musical compositions
• (4) Conductor’s baton and the orchestra

The author holds that the “rather ugly but beneficial rectangle of plastic” has proved to be a “handy technological slave” in:

• (1) Storing the talas played upon the tabla, at various tempos
• (2) Ensuring the continuance of an ancient tradition
• (3) Transporting North Indian classical music across geographical borders
• (4) Capturing the transient moment of oral transmission

The oral transmission of North Indian classical music is an almost unique testament of the:

• (1) Efficacy of the guru-shishya tradition
• (2) Learning impact of direct demonstration
• (3) Brain’s ability to reproduce complex structures without the help of written marks
• (4) The ability of an illiterate person to narrate grand and intricate musical compositions

According to the passage, in the North Indian classical tradition, the raga remains greater than the artiste who invokes it. This implies an aesthetic which:

• (1) Emphasises performance and invocation over the authority of genius and permanent record
• (2) Makes the music no one’s property
• (3) Values the composer more highly than the performer
• (4) Supports oral transmission of traditional music

From the author’s explanation of the notion that in the Western tradition music originates in its composer, which one of the following cannot be inferred?

• (1) It is easy to transfer a piece of Western classical music to a distant place
• (2) The conductor in the Western tradition, as a custodian, can modify the music, since it “lies mute” in his baton
• (3) The authority of the Western classical music composer over his music product is unambiguous
• (4) The power of the Western classical music composer extends to the expression of his music

According to the author, the inadequacy of teaching North Indian classical music through a codified, notation-based system is best illustrated by:

• (1) A loss of the structural beauty of the ragas
• (2) A fusion of two opposing approaches creating mundane music
• (3) The conversion of free-flowing ragas into stilted set pieces
• (4) Its failure to produce any noteworthy student or performer

Which of the following statements best conveys the overall idea of the passage?

• (1) North Indian and Western classical music are structurally different
• (2) Western music is the intellectual property of the genius while the North Indian raga is the inheritance of a culture
• (3) Creation as well as performance are important in the North Indian classical tradition
• (4) North Indian classical music is orally transmitted while Western classical music depends on written composition

Which one of the following statements describes an important issue, or important issues, not being raised in the context of the current debate on IPRs?

• (1) The role of MNCs in the sphere of biotechnology and agriculture
• (2) The strategy and policies for establishing an IPR regime for Indian agriculture
• (3) The relative roles of public and private sectors
• (4) Wider concerns about ‘privatisation’ of research

The fundamental breakthrough in deciphering the structure and functioning of DNA has become a public good. This means that:

• (1) Breakthroughs in fundamental research on DNA are accessible by all without any monetary considerations
• (2) The fundamental research on DNA has the characteristic of having beneficial effects for the public at large
• (3) Due to the large scale of fundamental research on DNA it falls in the domain of public sector research institutions
• (4) The public and other companies must have free access to such fundamental breakthroughs in research

In debating the respective roles of the public and private sectors in the national research system it is important to recognise:

• (1) that private companies do not produce new varieties and inputs entirely on their own research
• (2) That almost all technological improvements are based on knowledge and experience accumulated from the past
• (3) The complementary role of public and private sector research
• (4) The knowledge repositories are primarily the scientific community and its academic publications

Which one of the following may provide incentives to address the problem of potential adverse consequences of biotechnology?

• (1) Include IPR issues in the TRIPs agreement
• (2) Nationalise MNCs engaged in private research in biotechnology
• (3) Encourage domestic firms to patent their innovations
• (4) Make provisions in the law for user compensation against failure of newly developed varieties

Which of the following statements is not a likely consequence of emerging technologies in agriculture?

• (1) Development of newer and newer varieties will lead to increase in biodiversity
• (2) MNCs may underplay the negative consequences of the newer technology on environment
• (3) Newer varieties of seeds may increase vulnerability of crops to pests and diseases
• (4) Reforms in patent laws and user compensation against crop failures would be needed to address new technology problems

The TRIPs agreement emerged from the Uruguay Round to:

• (1) Address the problem of adverse consequences of genetically engineered new varieties of grain
• (2) Fulfil the WTO requirement to have an agreement on trade related property rights
• (3) Provide incentives to innovators by way of protecting their intellectual property
• (4) Give credibility to the innovations made by MNCs in the field of pharmaceuticals and agriculture

Public or quasi-public research institutions are more likely than private companies to address the negative consequences of new technologies because of which of the following reasons?

• (1) Public research is not driven by profit motive
• (2) Private companies may not be able to absorb losses arising out of the negative effects of the new technologies
• (3) Unlike new technology products, knowledge and techniques for resource management are not amenable to simple market transactions
• (4) All of the above

While developing a strategy and policies for building a more dynamic national agricultural research system, which one of the following statements needs to be considered?

• (1) Public and quasi-public institutions are not interested in making profits
• (2) Public and quasi-public institutions have a broader and long-term outlook than private companies
• (3) Private companies are incapable of building products based on traditional and folk knowledge
• (4) Traditional and folk knowledge cannot be protected by patents

According to the author, the introduction of abstractionism was revolutionary because it:

• (1) Celebrated the hopes and aspirations of a newly independent nation
• (2) Provided a new direction to Indian art, towards self-inquiry and non-representational images
• (3) Managed to obtain internationalist support for the abstractionist agenda
• (4) Was an emancipation from the dogmas of the nascent nation state

Which one of the following is not part of the author’s characterisation of the conservative trend in Indian abstractionism?

• (1) An exploration of the subconscious mind
• (2) A lack of full commitment to non-representational symbols
• (3) An adherence to the symbolic while aspiring to the mystical
• (4) Usage of the images of Gods or similar symbols

Which one of the following, according to the author, is the most important reason for the stalling of abstractionism’s progress in an impasse?

• (1) Some artists have followed their abstractionist logic to the point of extinction
• (2) Some artists have allowed chance or pattern to dominate the execution of their paintings
• (3) Many artists have avoided the trap of a near-generic and an open symbolism
• (4) Many artists have found it difficult to fuse the twin principles of the metaphysical and the painterly

According to the author, the attraction of the Kandinsky-Klee school for Indian abstractionists can be explained by which one of the following?

• (1) The conservative tendency to aspire to the mystical without a complete renunciation of the symbolic
• (2) The discomfort of Indian abstractionists with Malevich’s Suprematism
• (3) The easy identification of obvious points of affinity with European and American abstract art, of which the Kandinsky-Klee school is an example
• (4) The double-edged nature of abstractionism which enabled identification with mystically-oriented schools

Which one of the following is not stated by the author as a reason for abstractionism losing its vitality?

• (1) Abstractionism has failed to reorient itself in the context of changing human experience
• (2) Abstractionism has not considered the developments in artistic expression that have taken place in recent times
• (3) Abstractionism has not followed the path taken by all revolutions, whether in politics or art
• (4) The impact of mass media on viewers’ expectations has not been assessed, and responded to, by abstractionism

Given the author’s delineation of the three abstractionist idioms in Indian art, the third idiom can be best distinguished from the other two idioms through its:

• (1) Depletion of nature’s cyclical renewal
• (2) Use of non-representational images
• (3) Emphasis on arrangement of forms
• (4) Limited reliance on original models

Which one of the following, according to the author, is the role that abstractionism plays in a society?

• (1) It provides an idiom that can be understood by most members in a society
• (2) It highlights the absence of a shared language of meaningful symbols which can be recreated through greater awareness
• (3) It highlights the contradictory artistic trends of revolution and conservatism that any society needs to move forward
• (4) It helps abstractionists invoke the wistful, delicate beauty that may exist in society

According to the author, which one of the following characterizes the crises faced by abstractionism?

• (1) Abstractionism appears to be unable to transcend the solution tried out earlier
• (2) Abstractionism has allowed itself to be continued by set forum and practices
• (3) Abstractionism have been unable to use the multiplicity of form now available to an artist
• (4) All of above

It will take some time for many South Koreans to ______ the conflicting images of North Korea, let alone to ______ what to make of their northern cousins.

• (1) Reconcile, decide
• (2) Understand, clarify
• (3) Make out, decide
• (4) Reconcile, understand

The law prohibits a person from felling a sandalwood tree, even if it grows on one’s own land, without prior permission from the government. As poor people can’t deal with the government, this legal provision leads to a rip-roaring business for ______, who care neither for the ______, nor for the tree.

• (1) middlemen, rich
• (2) the government, poor
• (3) touts, rich
• (4) touts, poor

The manners and ______ of the nouveau riche is a recurrent ______ in the literature.

• (1) style, motif
• (2) morals, story
• (3) wealth, theme
• (4) morals, theme

In these bleak and depressing times of ______ prices, non-performing governments and ______ crime rates, Sourav Ganguly has given us, Indians, a lot to cheer about.

• (1) escalating, increasing
• (2) spiraling, booming
• (3) spiraling, soaring
• (4) Ascending, debilitating

Though one eye is kept firmly on the ______, the company now also promotes ______ contemporary art.

• (1) present, experimental
• (2) future, popular
• (3) present, popular
• (4) market, popular

The number of triangles with integral sides that can be made which have perimeter of 14, are:

• (1) 6
• (2) 5
• (3) 4
• (4) 3

\(N = 1421 \times 1423 \times 1425\). What is the remainder when \(N\) is divided by \(12\)?

• (1) 0
• (2) 9
• (3) 3
• (4) 6

\(x\) is number of numbers between 100 and 200 such that \(x\) is odd and \(x\) is divisible by 3 but not by 7. What is \(x\)?

• (1) 16
• (2) 12
• (3) 11
• (4) 13

Let \(S\) be the set of prime numbers greater than or equal to 2 and less than 100. Multiply all elements of \(S\). With how many consecutive zeros will the product end?

• (1) 1
• (2) 4
• (3) 5
• (4) 10

The integers 34,041 and 32,506 when divided by a three-digit integer \(n\) leave the same remainder. What is \(n\)?

• (1) 289
• (2) 367
• (3) 453
• (4) 307

Let \(x, y\) and \(z\) be distinct integers, that are odd and positive. Which one of the following statements cannot be true?

• (1) \(xyz\) is odd
• (2) \((x-y)^2 z\) is even
• (3) \((x+y-z)^2 (x+y)\) is even
• (4) \((x-y)(y+2)(x+y-z)\) is odd

Sam has forgotten his friend’s seven-digit telephone number. He remembers the following: the first three digits are either 635 or 674, the number is odd, and the number nine appears once. If Sam were to use a trial-and-error process to reach his friend, what is the minimum number of trials he has to make before he can be certain to succeed?

• (1) 10,000
• (2) 2430
• (3) 3402
• (4) 3066

There are two positive integers – \(x\) and \(y\). A function of \(x\) and \(y\) is defined such that: \(f(0,y) = y + 1\),
\(f(x + 1, 0) = f(x, 1)\),
\(f(x + 1, y + 1) = f(x, f(x + 1, y))\)

What is the value of \(f(1, 2)\)?

• (1) 2
• (2) 4
• (3) 3
• (4) Cannot be determined

The number 1982 in the decimal system when written in the base 12 is:

• (1) 1182
• (2) 1912
• (3) 1192
• (4) 1292

A farmer planned fence-posts at \(6\) metre intervals along a straight side, posts at both ends. He bought posts but found he had \(5\) less than needed for \(6\) m spacing. However, with \(8\) m spacing, he had exactly enough. What is the length of the side and how many posts did he buy?

• (1) 100, 15
• (2) 100, 16
• (3) 120, 15
• (4) 120, 16

Two full tanks: cylindrical holds \(500\) L more than conical. After \(200\) L removed from each, cylindrical has twice conical’s amount. How much did the cylindrical hold when full?

• (1) 700
• (2) 1000
• (3) 1100
• (4) 1200

A shipping clerk has five boxes of different but unknown weights each weighing less than 100 kgs. The clerk weighs the boxes in pairs. The weights obtained are 110, 112, 113, 114, 115, 116, 117, 118, 120 and 121 kgs. What is the weight, in kgs, of the heaviest box?

• (1) 60 kg
• (2) 62 kg
• (3) 64 kg
• (4) Can't be determined

A truck travelling at 70 km/h consumes 30% more fuel than another travelling at 50 km/h. If the truck at 50 km/h has a fuel efficiency of 19.5 km/litre, how many km can the 70 km/h truck travel on 10 litres of fuel?

• (1) 130
• (2) 140
• (3) 150
• (4) 175

Evaluate: \(\frac{1}{2^2 - 1} + \frac{1}{4^2 - 1} + \frac{1}{6^2 - 1} + \dots + \frac{1}{20^2 - 1}\)

• (1) 9/19
• (2) 10/19
• (3) 10/21
• (4) 11/21

If \(x>2\) and \(y>-1\), which is true?

• (1) \(xy > -2\)
• (2) \(-x < 2y\)
• (3) \(xy < -2\)
• (4) \(-x > 2y\)

1 red, 3 white, 2 blue flags in a line, no adjacent same colour, ends different. How many arrangements?

• (1) 6
• (2) 4
• (3) 10
• (4) 2

\(x=1,2,3,4,5,6\) give \(y=4,8,14,22,32,44\). Find relation \(y\) vs \(x\).

• (1) \(y = a + bx\)
• (2) \(y = a + bx + cx^2\)
• (3) \(y = e^{a+bx}\)
• (4) None

\(a_1=1,\ a_{n+1} = 2a_n + 5\), find \(a_{100}\).

• (1) \(5\times 2^{99} + 6\)
• (2) \(5\times 2^{99} - 6\)
• (3) \(6\times 2^{99} + 5\)
• (4) \(6\times 2^{99} - 5\)

\(D\) is a recurring decimal of type \(0.\ a_1a_2a_1a_2a_1a_2 \dots\) Here \(a_1\) and \(a_2\) are single digit numbers between \(0\) and \(9\). This number \(D\), when multiplied by which of the following numbers gives a product which is an integer?

• (1) 18
• (2) 108
• (3) 198
• (4) 288

There are seven consecutive integers. The average of the first five is \(n\). What is the average of all seven?

• (1) \(n\)
• (2) \(n+1\)
• (3) \(kn\), here \(k\) is a function of \(n\)
• (4) \(n + \frac{2}{7}\)

ABCD is a rhombus with AC and BD intersecting at the origin. The equation of side AD is \(x + y = 1\). What is the equation of BC?

• (1) \(x + y = 1\)
• (2) \(x + y = -1\)
• (3) \(x - y = 1\)
• (4) \(x - y = -1\)

Find the area bounded by the curves \(|x + y| = 1\), \(|x| = 1\), \(|y| = 1\).

• (1) 4
• (2) 3
• (3) 2
• (4) 1

\(x\) and \(y\) are defined such that \(x^2 + y^2 = 0.1\) and \(|x-y| = 0.2\). Find \(|x| + |y|\).

• (1) 0.3
• (2) 0.4
• (3) 0.2
• (4) 0.6

Referring to the diagram, if \(AB = BC = CD = DE = EF = FG = GA\), find \(\angle DAE\).

• (1) \(15^\circ\)
• (2) \(20^\circ\)
• (3) \(30^\circ\)
• (4) \(25^\circ\)

If \(x^3 - ax^2 + bx - a = 0\) has 3 real roots, then

• (1) \(b = 1\)
• (2) \(b \neq 1\)
• (3) \(a = 1\)
• (4) \(a \neq 1\)

The expression \(N = 55^3 + 17^3 - 72^3\) is exactly divisible by:

• (1) 7 \& 13
• (2) 3 \& 13
• (3) 17 \& 7
• (4) 3 \& 17

A circle of radius 1 has 7 sectors \(S_1, S_2, \dots, S_7\), adjacent to each other. Total area of all 7 sectors = one eighth of area of circle. The \(j\)-th sector’s area is twice the \((j-1)\)-th sector’s area. Find the angle subtended by \(S_1\) at the center.

• (1) \(\pi/508\)
• (2) \(\pi/2040\)
• (3) \(\pi/1016\)
• (4) \(\pi/1524\)

The three sides of a triangle have lengths \(a, b, c\). If \(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = ab + bc + ca\), then the triangle is:

• (1) equilateral
• (2) isosceles
• (3) right angled
• (4) obtuse

There are two disjoint sets \(S_1\) and \(S_2\): \(S_1 = \{ f(1), f(2), f(3), \dots \}\), \(S_2 = \{ g(1), g(2), g(3), \dots \}\) such that \(S_1 \cup S_2\) = natural numbers.
Also \(f(1) < f(2) < f(3) < \dots\) and \(g(1) < g(2) < g(3) < \dots\), and \(f(n) = g(g(n)) + 1\). Find \(g(1)\).

• (1) 0
• (2) 1
• (3) 2
• (4) Can't be determined

ABCDEFGH is a regular octagon. A and E are opposite vertices. A frog starts at A, may jump to adjacent vertices except E. When it reaches E, it stops. Let \(a_n\) = number of distinct paths of exactly \(n\) jumps ending at E. Find \(a_{2n-1}\).

• (1) Zero
• (2) Four
• (3) \(2n - 1\)
• (4) Can't be determined

There are cities A, B, C. Each city is connected with the other two by at least one direct road. A traveller can go from one city to another directly or via the third city. There are 33 total routes from A to B, and 23 from B to C. Find the number of roads from A to C.

• (1) 6
• (2) 3
• (3) 5
• (4) 10

The sum of \(A\) \& \(B\) is given by:

• (1) \(\backslash(@(A,B), 2)\)
• (2) \(@( \backslash(A,B), 2)\)
• (3) \(@(x(A,B), 2)\)
• (4) None of these

The average of \(A, B, C\) is given by:

• (1) \(@(x(\backslash(@(A,B), 2), C), 3)\)
• (2) \(\backslash(x(\backslash(@(A,B)), C), 2)\)
• (3) \(x(@(\backslash(@(A,B), 2), C), 3)\)
• (4) \(@(\backslash(@(A,B), 2), C)\)

What is the value of the product \(f(2) \cdot f^2(2) \cdot f^3(2) \cdot f^4(2) \cdot f^5(2)\) ?

• (1) \(1/3\)
• (2) \(3\)
• (3) \(1/18\)
• (4) None of these

If \(r\) is an integer \(\ge 2\), then find the value of \(f^{r-1}(-r) + f^r(-r) + f^{r+1}(-r)\).

• (1) \(-1\)
• (2) \(0\)
• (3) \(1\)
• (4) None of these

%Option
1. \(f(x) = 3f(-x)\)

%Option
2. \(f(x) = f(-x)\)

%Option
3. \(f(x) = -f(-x)\)

%Option
4. \(3f(x) = 6f(-x)\)

%Option
1. \(f(x) = 3f(-x)\)

%Option
2. \(f(x) = f(-x)\)

%Option
3. \(f(x) = -f(-x)\)

%Option
4. \(3f(x) = 6f(-x)\)

%Option
1. \(f(x) = 3f(-x)\)

%Option
2. \(f(x) = f(-x)\)

%Option
3. \(f(x) = -f(-x)\)

%Option
4. \(3f(x) = 6f(-x)\)

Which of the following is necessarily greater than 1?

• (1) \((h(x,y,z) - f(x,y,z))/j(x,y,z)\)
• (2) \(j(x,y,z)/h(x,y,z)\)
• (3) \(f(x,y,z)/g(x,y,z)\)
• (4) \((f(x,y,z) + h(x,y,z) - g(x,y,z))/j(x,y,z)\)

Which of the following expressions is necessarily equal to 1?

• (1) \(\frac{f(x,y,z) - m(x,y,z)}{g(x,y,z) - n(x,y,z)}\)
• (2) \(\frac{m(x,y,z) - f(x,y,z)}{g(x,y,z) - n(x,y,z)}\)
• (3) \(\frac{j(x,y,z) - g(x,y,z)}{h(x,y,z)}\)
• (4) \(\frac{f(x,y,z) - h(x,y,z)}{f(x,y,z)}\)

Which of the following expressions is indeterminate?

• (1) \(\frac{f - h}{g - j}\)
• (2) \(\frac{f - h}{j - g}\)
• (3) \(\frac{g - j}{f - h}\)
• (4) \(\frac{h - f}{n - g}\)

If a function \(f(x)\) satisfies the equation \[ f\left(x + \frac{1}{x}\right) = x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2}, \quad x \neq 0 \]
then \(f(x)\) equals:

• (1) \(x^2 - 2\) for \(x \neq 0\)
• (2) \(x^2 - 2\) for all satisfying \(|x| \ge 2\)
• (3) \(x^2 - 2\) for all satisfying \(|x| < 2\)
• (4) None of these

Let \(n\) be the number of different \(5\)-digit numbers, divisible by \(4\), using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 without repetition. Find \(n\).

• (1) 144
• (2) 168
• (3) 192
• (4) None of these

What is the total number of matches played in the tournament?

• (1) 28
• (2) 55
• (3) 63
• (4) 35

The minimum number of wins needed for a team in the first stage to guarantee its advancement to the next stage is:

• (1) 5
• (2) 6
• (3) 7
• (4) 4

The highest number of wins in the first stage with which a team can still be eliminated is:

• (1) 1
• (2) 2
• (3) 3
• (4) 4

What is the number of rounds in the second stage of the tournament?

• (1) 1
• (2) 2
• (3) 3
• (4) 4

Which of the following statements is true?

• (1) The winner will have more wins than any other team in the tournament.
• (2) At the end of the first stage, no eliminated team will have more wins than any team qualifying for the second stage.
• (3) It is possible that the winner will have the same number of wins in the entire tournament as a team eliminated at the end of the first stage.
• (4) The number of teams with exactly one win in the second stage of the tournament is 4.

After executing a sequence of instructions, bottle A contains one litre of water. The first and the third of these instructions are shown below:

FILL (C, A)

_______________

FILL (C, A)

Then which of the following statements about the second instruction is true?

• (1) The second instruction is FILL (B, A).
• (2) The second instruction is EMPTY (C, B).
• (3) The second instruction transfers water from B to C.
• (4) The second instruction involves using the water in bottle A.

Consider the same sequence of three instructions and the same initial state as Q104. Three more instructions are added at the end to have A contain 4 litres of water. In this total sequence of six instructions, the fourth one is DRAIN (A) — the only DRAIN in the sequence. At the end, how much water (in litres) is contained in C?

• (1) 1
• (2) 2
• (3) 0
• (4) None of the above

Which expression yields positive values for non-zero and real values of \(x\) and \(y\)?

• (1) \(f(x,y) - g(x,y)\)
• (2) \(f(x,y) - [g(x,y)]^2\)
• (3) \(g(x,y) - [f(x,y)]^2\)
• (4) \(f(x,y) + g(x,y)\)

When is \(f(x,y) > g(x,y)\)?

• (1) \(y \ge x\)
• (2) Both \(x\) and \(y\) are less than \(-1\)
• (3) Both \(x\) and \(y\) are greater than \(0\)
• (4) Both \(x\) and \(y\) are less than \(0\)

Each of the numbers \(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n, \ n \ge 4\), is equal to \(1\) or \(-1\). Suppose, \[ x_1 x_2 x_3 x_4 + x_2 x_3 x_4 x_5 + x_3 x_4 x_5 x_6 + \dots + x_{n-3} x_{n-2} x_{n-1} x_n + x_{n-2} x_{n-1} x_n x_1 + x_{n-1} x_n x_1 x_2 + x_n x_1 x_2 x_3 = 0, \]
then which of the following is true?

• (1) \(n\) is even
• (2) \(n\) is odd
• (3) \(n\) is an odd multiple of \(3\)
• (4) \(n\) is prime

The table below shows the age-wise distribution of the population of Reposia. The number of people aged below \(35\) years is \(400\) million.


\begin{tabular{|l|c|
\hline
Age group & Percentages

\hline
Below 15 years & 30.00

15 -- 24 & 17.75

25 -- 34 & 17.00

35 -- 44 & 14.50

45 -- 54 & 12.50

55 -- 64 & 7.10

65 and above & 1.15

\hline
\end{tabular


If the ratio of females to males in the ‘below 15 years’ age group is \(0.96\), find the number of females (in millions) in that age group.

• (1) 82.8
• (2) 90.8
• (3) 80.0
• (4) 90.0

There is a vertical stack of books marked 1, 2 and 3 on Table-A, with 1 at the bottom and 3 on
the top. These are to be placed vertically on Table-B with 1 at the bottom and 2 on the top, by
making a series of moves from one table to another. During a move, the topmost book, or the
topmost two books, or all the three, can be moved from one of the tables to the other. If there
are any books on the other table, the stack being transferred should be placed on the top of the
existing books, without changing the order of the books in the stack that is being moved in that
move. If there are no books on the other table, the stack is simply placed on the other table
without disturbing the order of books in it. What is the minimum number of moves in which the
above task can be accomplished?

• (1) 1
• (2) 2
• (3) 3
• (4) 4

In a triangle PQR, \(\angle PRQ = 90^\circ\). What is \(PR + RQ\)?


% Statement A
A. The diameter of the incircle is \(10\).

% Statement B
B. The diameter of the circumcircle is \(18\).

Two concentric circles have the same centre O. A chord on the outer circle AE intersects the inner circle in points B and D. C is a point on the segment BD. What is the ratio of AC to CE?


% Statement A
A. Ratio of lengths of BC to CD is 1.

% Statement B
B. A third circle intersects the inner circle at B and D. C is on the line joining the centres of the third and inner circle.

What are the ages of X and Y?


% Statement A
A. The difference in their ages is \(6\).

% Statement B
B. The product of their ages is divisible by \(6\).

\(x\) is a real number. Is \(|x| < 3\)?


% Statement A
A. \(x(x+3) < 0\)

% Statement B
B. \(x(x-3) > 0\)

\(a \oplus b = 1\) if \(a,b>0\) or \(a,b<0\); \quad \(a \oplus b = -1\) otherwise.

What is \((2 \oplus 0) \oplus (-5 \oplus -6)\)?


% Statement A
A. \(a \oplus b = 0\) if \(a=0\)

% Statement B
B. \(a \oplus b = b \oplus a\)

Harshad bought shares of a certain company on one day and sold them the next day. He paid a brokerage of \(1%\). What was Harshad’s profit per rupee?


% Statement A
A. His selling price was \(1.05\) times his purchase price.

% Statement B
B. The number of shares he purchased was \(100\).

How many people watch program P?


% Statement A
A. The number watching Q is \(1000\); the number watching both P and Q is \(100\).

% Statement B
B. The number of people watching either P or Q or both is \(1500\).

Two lines are given by the equations \(ax + by = c\) and \(dx + ey = f\). Do they intersect?


% Statement A
A. \(a, b, c, d, e, f\) are distinct \& real.

% Statement B
B. \(c \neq 0\) \& \(f \neq 0\).

Ghosh flies to South Africa from Mumbai non-stop. His flight leaves Mumbai at 5 am on 10^th December 2000 as per Indian Standard Time. What is the local time in South Africa when Mr. Ghosh reaches there?


% Statement A
A. The average speed of the plane during the flight is 700 km/h.

% Statement B
B. The flight distance is 10,500 km.

Is \(z\) the smallest of \(x, y, z\)?


% Statement A
A. \(x\) is greater than at least one of \(y\) \& \(z\).

% Statement B
B. \(y\) is greater than at least one of \(x\) \& \(z\).

The country with the largest %age change in FEI in 1998 relative to its FEI in 1997, is:

• (1) India
• (2) China
• (3) Malaysia
• (4) Thailand

Based on the data provided, it can be concluded that:

• (1) Absolute value of foreign equity inflows in 1998 was higher than that in 1997 for both Thailand and South Korea.
• (2) Absolute value of foreign equity inflows was higher in 1998 for Thailand and lower for China than the corresponding values in 1997.
• (3) Absolute value of foreign equity inflows was lower in 1998 for both India and China than the corresponding values in 1997.
• (4) None of the above can be inferred.

It is known that China’s GDP in 1998 was 7% higher than its value in 1997 while India’s GDP grew by 2% during the same period. The GDP of South Korea on the other hand, fell by 5% which of the following statements is/are true?



I. Foreign equity inflows to China were higher in 1998 than in 1997.

II.Foreign equity inflows to China were lesser in 1998 than in 1997.

III.Foreign equity inflows to India were higher in 1998 than in 1997.

IV.Foreign equity inflows to South Korea decreased in 1998 relative to 1997.

V.Foreign equity inflows to South Korea increased in 1998 relative to 1997.

• (1) I, III \& IV
• (2) II, III \& IV
• (3) I, III \& V
• (4) II \& V

China’s foreign equity inflows in 1998 were 10 times those into India. What can be concluded?

• (1) China’s GDP in 1998 was \(40%\) higher than that of India.
• (2) China’s GDP in 1998 was \(70%\) higher than that of India.
• (3) China’s GDP in 1998 was \(50%\) higher than that of India.
• (4) No inference can be drawn about relative magnitudes of GDPs.

Which is the sector with the highest growth during the period 1989 and 1998?

• (1) Manufacturing
• (2) Mining and quarrying
• (3) Electricity
• (4) Chemicals

The overall growth rate in 1991 of the four sectors together is approximately:

• (1) 10%
• (2) 1%
• (3) 2.5%
• (4) 1.5%

When was the highest level of production in the manufacturing sector achieved during 1990–1998?

• (1) 1998
• (2) 1995
• (3) 1990
• (4) None of these

When was the lowest level of production of the mining and quarrying sector achieved during 1990–1998?

• (1) 1996
• (2) 1993
• (3) 1990
• (4) None of these

The percentage increase of production in four sectors (Mfg, Mining, Elec, Chem) together in 1994 relative to 1989 is approximately:

• (1) 25
• (2) 20
• (3) 50
• (4) 40

Given that the total industrial production index in 1994 was 50% more than in 1989, find the percentage increase for sectors other than the four listed above.

• (1) 57.5
• (2) 87.5
• (3) 127.5
• (4) 47.5

The highest growth rate in deficit intensity was in the year ending --

• (1) 95
• (2) 96
• (3) 97
• (4) 98

Referring to the previous question, the percentage increase in deficit intensity from year ending 94 to the year ending 95 was approximately:

• (1) 8.45%
• (2) 2.15%
• (3) 33.3%
• (4) 23.5%

In 98 total cost of Raw Material was approximately 50% of sales. Turnover of gross Fixed Assets (Sales / Gross Fixed Assets) in 98 is –

• (1) 3.3
• (2) 4.3
• (3) 0.33
• (4) Can't be determined

Which of the following statements is true?

• (1) Between 94 \& 98, exports increase every year.
• (2) Between 94 \& 98 imports decreased every year.
• (3) The deficit intensity in 98 was less than that in 94.
• (4) The deficit intensity increased every year between 94 \& 98.

In recent report, the gross enrollment ratios at the primary level, that is the number of children enrolled in class I – V, as a proportion of all children aged 6-10 years, were shown to be very high for most states, in many cases > 100%. These figures are not worth anything, since they are based on official enrolment rates compiled from school records. They might as well stand for gross exaggeration ratios.

Which of the following support the exaggeration above?

• (1) The definition of gross enrollment ratio does not exclude, in its numerator, children below 6 years or above 10 years enrolled in classes one to five.
• (2) A school attendance study found that many children enrolled in the school records were not meeting a minimum attendance requirement of 80 percent.
• (3) A study estimated that close to 22 percent of children enrolled in the class one records were below 6 years of age and still to start going to school.
• (4) Demographic surveys show shifts in the population profile which indicate that the number of children in the age group 6 to 10 years is declining.

Although in the limited sense of freedom regarding appointments and internal working, the independence of the Central Bank is unequivocally ensured, the same cannot be said of its right to pursue monetary policy without co-ordination with the central government. The role of the Central Bank has turned out to be subordinate and advisory in nature. Which one of the following best supports the conclusion drawn in the passage?

• (1) A decision of the chairman of the Central Bank to increase the bank rate by two percentage points sent shock-waves in industry, academic and government circles alike.
• (2) Government has repeatedly resorted to monetisation of the debt despite the reservations of the Central Bank.
• (3) The Central Bank does not need the central government's nod for replacing soiled currency notes.
• (4) The inability to remove coin shortage was a major shortcoming of this government.

About 96% of Scandinavian moths have ears tuned to the ultrasonic pulses that bats, their predators, emit. But the remaining 4% do not have ears and are deaf. However, they have a larger wingspan than the hearing moths, and also have higher wing-loadings—the ratio between a wing's area and its weight—meaning higher maneuverability. Which one of the following can be best inferred from the above passage?

• (1) A higher proportion of deaf moths than hearing moths fall prey to bats.
• (2) Deaf moths may try to avoid bats by frequent changes in their flight direction.
• (3) Deaf moths are faster than hearing moths, and so are less prone to becoming a bat's dinner than hearing moths.
• (4) The large wingspan enables deaf moths to better receive and sense the pulses of their bat predators.

Szymanski suggests that the problem of racism in football may be present even today. He begins by verifying an earlier hypothesis that clubs' wage bills explain 90% of their performance. Thus, if players' salaries were to be only based on their abilities, clubs that spend more should finish higher. If there is pay discrimination against some group of players—fewer teams bidding for black players thus lowering the salaries for blacks with the same ability as whites—that neat relation may no longer hold. He concludes that certain clubs seem to have achieved much less than what they could have, by not recruiting black players. Which one of the following findings would best support Szymanski's conclusion?

• (1) Certain clubs took advantage of the situation by hiring above-average shares of black players.
• (2) Clubs hired white players at relatively high wages and did not show proportionately good performance.
• (3) During the study period, clubs in towns with a history of discrimination against blacks under-performed relative to their wage bills.
• (4) Clubs in one region, which had higher proportions of black players, had significantly lower wage bills than predominantly white clubs in another region.

The offer of the government to make iodised salt available at a low price of one rupee per kilo is welcome, especially since the government seems to be so concerned about the ill effects of non iodised salt. But it is doubtful whether the offer will actually be implemented. Way back in 1994, the government, in an earlier effort, had prepared reports outlining three new and simple but experimental methods for reducing the costs of iodisation to about five paise per kilo. But these reports have remained just those-reports on paper. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the author's contention that it is doubtful whether the offer will be actually implemented?

• (1) The government proposes to save on costs by using the three methods it has already devised for iodisation.
• (2) The chain of fair-price distribution outlets now covers all the districts of the state.
• (3) Many small-scale and joint-sector units have completed trials to use the three iodisation methods for regular production.
• (4) The government which initiated the earlier effort is in place even today and has more information on the effects of non-iodised salt.

The problem of traffic congestion in Athens has been testing the ingenuity of politicians and town planners for years. But the measures adopted to date have not succeeded in decreasing the number of cars on the road in the city centre. In 1980, an odds and evens number-plate legislation was introduced, under which odd and even plates were banned in the city centre on alternate days, thereby expecting to halve the number of cars in the city centre. Then in 1993 it was decreed that all cars in use in the city centre must be fitted with catalytic converters, a regulation had just then been introduced, substantially reducing import taxes on cars with catalytic converters, the only condition being that the buyer of such a 'clean' car offered for destruction a car at least 15 years old.


Which one of the following options, if true, would best support the claim that the measures adopted to date have not succeeded?

• (1) In the 1980s, many families purchased second cars with the requisite odd or even number plate.
• (2) In the mid-1990s, many families found it feasible to become first-time car owners by buying a car more than 15 years old and turning it in for a new car with catalytic converters.
• (3) Post-1993, many families seized the opportunity to sell their more than 15 year-old cars and buy 'clean' cars from the open market, even if it meant forgoing the import tax subsidy.
• (4) All of the above.

The pressure on Italy's 257 jails has been increasing rapidly. These jails are old and overcrowded. They are supposed to hold up to 43,000 people—9,000 fewer than now. San Vittore in Milan, which has 1,800 inmates, is designed for 800. The number of foreigners inside jails has also been increasing. The minister in charge of prisons fears that tensions may snap, and so has recommended to the government an amnesty policy.


Which one of the following, if true, would have most influenced the recommendation of the minister?

• (1) Opinion polls have indicated that many Italians favour a general pardon.
• (2) The opposition may be persuaded to help since amnesties must be approved by a two-thirds majority in parliament.
• (3) During a recent visit to a large prison, the Pope, whose pronouncements are taken seriously, appealed for 'a gesture of clemency'.
• (4) Shortly before the recommendation was made, 58 prisons reported disturbances in a period of two weeks.

The Shveta-chatra or the "White Umbrella" was a symbol of sovereign political authority placed over the monarch's head at the time of the coronation. The ruler so inaugurated was regarded not as a temporal autocrat but as the instrument of protective and sheltering firmament of supreme law. The white umbrella symbol is of great antiquity and its varied use illustrates the ultimate common basis of non-theocratic nature of states in the Indian tradition. As such, the umbrella is found, although not necessarily a white one, over the head of Lord Ram, the Mohammedan sultans and Chatrapati Shivaji. Which one of the following best summarizes the above passage?

• (1) The placing of an umbrella over the ruler's head was a common practice in the Indian subcontinent.
• (2) The white umbrella represented the instrument of firmament of the supreme law and the non-theocratic nature of Indian states.
• (3) The umbrella, not necessarily a white one, was a symbol of sovereign political authority.
• (4) The varied use of the umbrella symbolised the common basis of the non-theocratic nature of states in the Indian tradition.

The theory of games is suggested to some extent by parlour games such as chess and bridge. Friedman illustrates two distinct features of these games. First, in a parlour game played for money, if one wins the other (others) loses (lose). Second, these games are games involving a strategy. In a game of chess, while choosing what action is to be taken, a player tries to guess how his/her opponent will react to the various actions he or she might take. In contrast, the card-pastime, 'patience' or 'solitaire' is played only against chance. Which one of the following can best be described as a "game?"

• (1) The team of Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary climbing Mt. Everest for the first time in human history.
• (2) A national level essay writing competition.
• (3) A decisive war between the armed forces of India and Pakistan over Kashmir.
• (4) Oil Exporters' Union deciding on world oil prices, completely disregarding the countries which have at most minimal oil production.

Argentina's beef cattle herd has dropped to under 50 million from 57 million ten years ago in 1990. The animals are worth less, too: prices fell by over a third last year, before recovering slightly. Most local meat packers and processors are in Financial trouble, and recent years have seen a string of plant closures. The Beef Producers' Association has now come up with a massive advertisement campaign calling upon Argentines to eat more beef - their "juicy, healthy, round, plate-Filling" steaks. Which one of the following, if true, would contribute most to a failure of the campaign?

• (1) There has been a change in consumer preference towards eating leaner meats like chicken and fish.
• (2) The price of imported beef has been increasing, thus making locally grown beef more competitive in terms of pricing.
• (3) The inability to cross breed native cattle with foreign breeds has not increased production to adequate levels.
• (4) Animal prices pressure the producers to supply more beef at a higher cost, lowering their profit margins.

The total annual exports lay between 35 and 40 percent of the total annual business of the IT industry, in the years :

• (1) 97-98 & 94-95
• (2) 96-97 & 97-98
• (3) 96-97 & 98-99
• (4) 96-97 & 94-95

The highest percentage growth in the total IT business, relative to the previous year was achieved in :

• (1) 95-96
• (2) 96-97
• (3) 97-98
• (4) 98-99

Which of the following statements is correct?

• (1) The annual software exports steadily increased but annual hardware exports steadily declined during 1994-1999.
• (2) The annual peripheral exports steadily increased during 1994-1999.
• (3) The IT business in training during 1994-1999 was higher than the total IT business in maintenance during the same period.
• (4) None of the above statements is true.

For the IT hardware business activity, which one of the following is not true?

• (1) 1997-98 dominates 1996-97
• (2) 1997-98 dominates 1995-96
• (3) 1995-98 dominates 1998-99
• (4) 1998-99 dominates 1996-97

For the two IT business activities hardware and peripherals, which one of the following is true?

• (1) 1996-97 dominates 1995-96
• (2) 1998-99 dominates 1995-96
• (3) 1997-98 dominates 1998-99
• (4) None of these

If the overall average employment per factory was 60, then the average employment in a private factory is:

• (1) 43
• (2) 47
• (3) 50
• (4) 54

The Value Added per employee is highest in:

• (1) Central PSU
• (2) C & S PSU
• (3) Joint Sector
• (4) Private Sector

Capital productivity ( = gross output per Rupee of Fixed Capital) in the 3 sectors with the highest capital productivity, arranged in descending order is:

• (1) Joint, private, C & S
• (2) Private, joint, C & S
• (3) Private, C & S, Joint
• (4) Joint, Private, Central

A sector is defined as “Pareto efficient” if its value added per employee and its value added per rupee of fixed capital is higher than those of all other sectors. Based on the table data, the Pareto efficient sector is:

• (1) Wholly private
• (2) Joint
• (3) Central and State/Local
• (4) Others

Total Value Added in all sectors in the economy was approximately Rs. 140,000 crores. The number of firms in the joint sector was 2700. Average Value Added/Factory in the centre was?

• (1) 141
• (2) 14.1
• (3) 131
• (4) 13.1

Total production in July is 40 units. What is the approximate average unit cost for July?

• (1) 3600
• (2) 90
• (3) 140
• (4) 115

ABC Ltd. is considering increasing the production level. What is the approximate marginal cost increasing production from its July level of 40 units?

• (1) 110
• (2) 140
• (3) 150
• (4) 160

From the data provided, it can be inferred that, for production levels in the range of 0 to 60 units:

• (1) MC is an increasing function of production quantity.
• (2) MC is a decreasing function of production quantity.
• (3) Initially MC is a decreasing function of production quantity, attains a minimum and then it is an increasing function of production quantity.
• (4) None of the above

Suppose that each widget sells for Rs. 150. What is the profit earned by ABC Ltd. in July? (Profit is defined as the excess of sales revenue over total cost.)

• (1) 2400
• (2) 1600
• (3) 400
• (4) 0

Assume that the unit price is Rs. 150 and profit is defined as the excess of sales revenue over total costs. What is the monthly production level of ABC Ltd. at which the profit is highest?

• (1) 30
• (2) 50
• (3) 60
• (4) 40

For monthly production level in the range of 0 to 30 units:

• (1) AC is always higher than MC
• (2) AC is always lower than MC
• (3) AC is lower than MC up to a certain level and then is higher than MC.
• (4) None of the above is true.

Persons X, Y, Z and Q live in red, green, yellow or blue colored houses placed in a sequence on a street. Z lives in a yellow house. The green house is adjacent to the blue house. X does not live adjacent to Z. The yellow house is in between the green and red houses. The color of the house X lives in is :

• (1) Blue
• (2) Green
• (3) Red
• (4) Not possible to determine

Five persons with names P, M, U, T and X live separately in a house, a palace, a hut, a fort, or a hotel. Each one likes two different colors from among the following: blue, black, red, yellow and green. U likes red and blue. T likes black, the person living in a palace does not like black or blue. P likes blue and red. M likes yellow. X lives in a hotel. M lives in a :

• (1) Hut
• (2) Palace
• (3) Fort
• (4) House

Harry’s bag can carry at most 10 books. Harry must carry to his school at least one book of Medicine, Quant, Physics and French. For every Medicine book that Harry carries, he must carry more than two French books. For every Quant book that he carries, he must carry more than two books of physics. A Medicine, Quant, Physics and French book carries 4, 3, 2 and 1 points respectively. What are the maximum points that Harry can earn?

• (1) 20
• (2) 21
• (3) 22
• (4) 23

Eighty kilograms of store material is to be transported to a location 10 km away. Any number of couriers can be used to transport the material. The material can be packed in any number of units of 10, 20 or 40 kg. Courier charges are Rs. 10 per hour. Couriers travel at the speed of 10 km/hr if they are not carrying any load, at 5 km/hr if carrying 10 kg, at 2 km/hr if carrying 20 kg and at 1 km/hr if carrying 40 kg. A courier cannot carry more than 40 kg of load. The minimum cost at which 80 kg of store material can be transported to its destination will be :

• (1) Rs. 180
• (2) Rs. 160
• (3) Rs. 140
• (4) Rs. 120

In a certain zoo, animals are kept in enclosures. There are 5 enclosures: X, Y, Z, P and Q. There are 5 species of animals: Lion, Panther, Bison, Bear and Deer. There are 2 animals of each species. Two animals of the same species cannot be put into the same enclosure. The enclosures are looked after by attendants: Jairam, Makhan, Harihar, Snehit and Revati. The Lion and the Deer cannot be together in the same enclosure, The Panther cannot be together with any of the deer or the bison. Snehit can attend to Panthers, Bisons, Bears and Deers. Makhan attends to an enclosure having a Lion and a Panther. Jairam attends to an enclosure with a deer or a Lion or a Bison. The enclosures X and Y are allocated to Makhan, Jairam and Revati respectively. The enclosures X and Q are placed at either end and they have animals belonging to the same pair of species. The enclosures Z and P also have animals belonging to the same pair of species. Snehit looks after:

• (1) Bison and Bear
• (2) Bison and Deer
• (3) Bear and Lion
• (4) Bear and Panther