CAT 2003 Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs is available for download.The overall difficulty level of CAT 2003 exam was moderate to tough.CAT 2003 question paper carried 150 questions that were equally distributed in 3 sections- QA, VARC, and DILR. A total of 120 minutes were allotted for the exam. QA was rated the most difficult while the other 2 sections were rated moderate in the 2003 CAT exam.
 

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Question 1:

Comprehension: Directions for questions 1 to 5: Each of the five passages given below is followed by five
questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE 1
The invention of the gas turbine by Frank Whittle in England and Hans von Ohain in
Germany in 1939 signalled the beginning of jet transport. Although the French engineer
Lorin had visualized the concept of jet propulsion more than 25 years earlier, it took
improved materials and the genius of Whittle and von Ohain to recognize the advantage that
a gas turbine offered over a piston engine, including speeds in excess of 350 miles per hour.
Read More The progress from the first flights of liquid propellant rocket and jet-propelled aircraft in
1939 to the first faster-than-sound (supersonic) manned airplane (the Bell X-1) in 1947
happened in less than a decade. This led very rapidly to a series of supersonic fighters and
bombers, the first of which became operational in the 1950s. World War II technology
foundations and emerging Cold War imperatives then led us into space with the launch of
Sputnik in 1957 and the placing of the first man on the moon only 12 years later — a mere
24 years after the end of World War II.
Now a hypersonic flight can take you anywhere in the planet in less than four hours. British
Royal Air Force and Royal Navy and the air forces of several other countries are going to use
a single-engine cousin to the F/A-22, called the F-35 Joint Strike Fighter. These planes
exhibit stealthy angles and coatings that make it difficult for radar to detect them, among
aviation’s most cutting-edge advances in design. The V-22, known as tilt-rotor, part
helicopter, part airplane, takes off vertically, then tilts its engine forward for winged flight. It
provides speed, three times the payload, five times the range of the helicopters it’s meant to
replace. The new fighter, F/A-22 Raptor, with more than a million parts, shows a perfect
assimilation of stealth, speed, avionics and agility.
It seems conventional forms, like the Predator and Global Hawk are pass´e, the stealthy
unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) are in. They are shaped like kites, bats and boomerangs,
all but invisible to the enemy radar and able to remain over hostile territory without any fear
of getting grilled if shot down. Will the UAVs take away pilots’ jobs permanently? Can a
computer-operated machine take a smarter and faster decision in a war-like situation? The
2
new free-flight concept will probably supplement the existing air traffic control system by
computers on each plane to map the altitude, route, weather and other planes; and a decade
from now, there will be no use of radar any more.
How much bigger can the airplanes get? In the ’50s they got speed, in the ’80s they became
stealthy. Now they are getting smarter thanks to computer automation. The change is quite
huge: from the four-seater to the A380 airplane. It seems we are now trading speed for size
as we build a new superjumbo jet, the 555 seater A380, which will fly at almost the same
speed of the Boeing 707, introduced half a century ago, but with an improved capacity,
range, greater fuel economy. A few years down the line will come the truly larger model, to
be known as 747X. In the beginning of 2005, the A380, the world’s first fully double-decked
superjumbo passenger jet, weighing 1.1 million pounds, may carry a load of about 840
passengers.
Barring the early phase, civil aviation has always lagged behind the military technologies (of
jet engines, lightweight composite materials, etc.). There are two fundamental factors behind
the decline in commercial aeronautics in comparison to military aeronautics. There is no
collective vision of our future such as the one that drove us in the past. There is also a need
for a more aggressive pool of airplane design talents to maintain an industry that continues to
find a multibillion dollar-a-year market for its product.
Can the history of aviation technology tell us something about the future of aeronautics?
Have we reached a final state in our evolution to a mature technology in aeronautics? Are the
challenges of coming out with the ‘better, cheaper, faster’ designs somehow inferior to those
that are suited for ‘faster, higher, further’? Safety should improve greatly as a result of the
forthcoming improvements in airframes, engines, and avionics. Sixty years from now,
aircraft will recover on their own if the pilot loses control. Satellites are the key not only to
GPS (global positioning system) navigation but also to in-flight communications, uplinked
weather, and even in-flight e-mail. Although there is some debate about what type of engines
will power future airplanes — lightweight turbines, turbocharged diesels, or both — there is
little debate about how these power plants will be controlled. Pilots of the future can look
forward to more and better on-board safety equipment.

Why might radars not be used a decade from now?

  • (1) Stealth technology will advance so much that it is pointless to use radar to detect aircraft.
  • (2) UAVs can remain over hostile territory without any danger of being detected.
  • (3) Computers on board may enable aircraft to manage safe navigation on their own.
  • (4) It is not feasible to increase the range of radars.
Correct Answer: (1) Stealth technology will advance so much that it is pointless to use radar to detect aircraft.
View Solution

Question 2:

According to the author, commercial aeronautics, in contrast to military aeronautics, has declined because, among other things:

  • (1) Speed and technology barriers are more easily overcome in military aeronautics.
  • (2) The collective vision of the past continues to drive civil and commercial aeronautics.
  • (3) Though the industry has a huge market, it has not attracted the right kind of aircraft designers.
  • (4) There is a shortage of materials, like light weight composites, used in commercial aeronautics.
Correct Answer: (2) The collective vision of the past continues to drive civil and commercial aeronautics.
View Solution

Question 3:

According to the first paragraph of the passage, which of the following statements is NOT false?

  • (1) Frank Whittle and Hans von Ohain were the first to conceive of jet propulsion.
  • (2) Supersonic fighter planes were first used in World War II.
  • (3) No man had travelled faster than sound until the 1950s.
  • (4) The exploitation of jet propulsion for supersonic aviation has been remarkably fast.
Correct Answer: (2) Supersonic fighter planes were first used in World War II.
View Solution

Question 4:

What is the fourth paragraph of the passage, starting, "How much bigger . . .", about?

  • (1) Stealth, speed, avionics, and agility of new aircraft.
  • (2) The way aircraft size has been growing.
  • (3) Use of computer automation in aircraft.
  • (4) Super-jumbo jets that can take more than 500 passengers.
Correct Answer: (2) The way aircraft size has been growing.
View Solution

Question 5:

What is the most noteworthy difference between V-22 and a standard airplane?

  • (1) It can take off vertically.
  • (2) It has winged flight.
  • (3) It has a smaller range of movement.
  • (4) It is designed for helicopter-like functions.
Correct Answer: (1) It can take off vertically.
View Solution

Question 6:
Comprehension: PASSAGE 2
Pure love of learning, of course, was a less compelling motive for those who became
educated for careers other than teaching. Students of law in particular had a reputation for
being materialistic careerists in an age when law was becoming known as the ‘lucrative
science’ and its successful practice the best means for rapid advancement in the government
of both church and state. Medicine too had its profit-making attractions.
Read More Those who did not go on to law or medicine could, if they had been well trained in the arts, gain positions at
royal courts or rise in the clergy. Eloquent testimony to the profit motive behind much of
12th-century education was the lament of a student of Abelard around 1150: ”Christians
educate their sons . . . for gain, in order that the one brother, if he be a clerk, may help his
father and mother and his other brothers, saying that a clerk will have no heir and whatever
he has will be ours and the other brothers.” With the opening of positions in law, government
and the church, education became a means for advancement not only in income but also in
status. Most who were educated were wealthy, but in the 12th century, more often than
before, many were not and were able to rise through the ranks by means of their education.
The most familiar examples are Thomas Becket, who rose from a humble background to
become chancellor of England and then archbishop of Canterbury, and John of Salisbury,
who was born a ‘plebeian’ but because of his reputation for learning died as bishop of
Chartres.
The instances of Becket and John of Salisbury bring us to the most difficult question
concerning 12th-century education: To what degree was it still a clerical preserve? Despite
the fact that throughout the 12th century the clergy had a monopoly of instruction, one of the
outstanding medievalists of our day, R. W. Southern, refers with good reason to the
institutions staffed by the clergy as ‘secular schools’. How can we make sense out of the
paradox that 12th-century schools were clerical and yet ‘secular’?
Let us look at the clerical side first. Not only were all 12th-century teachers except
professionals and craftsmen in church order, but in northern Europe students in schools had
clerical status and looked like priests. Not that all really were priests, but by virtue of being
students all were awarded the legal privileges accorded to the clergy. Furthermore, the large
majority of 12th-century students, outside of the possible exception of Italy, if not already
priests became so after their studies were finished. For these reasons, the term ‘cleric’ was
often used to denote a man who was literate and the term ‘layman’ one who was illiterate.
The English word for cleric, clerk, continued for a long time to be a synonym for student or
for a man who could write, while the French word clerc even today has the connotation of
intellectual.
Despite all this, 12th-century education was taking on many secular qualities in its
environment, goals, and curriculum. Student life obviously became more secular when it
moved out from the monasteries into the bustling towns. Most students wandered from town
to town in search not only of good masters but also of worldly excitement, and as the 12th
century progressed they found the best of each in Paris. More important than environment
was the fact that most students, even though they entered the clergy, had secular goals.
Theology was recognized as the ‘queen of the sciences’, but very few went on to it. Instead
they used their study of the liberal arts as a preparation for law, medicine, government
service, or advancement in the ecclesiastical hierarchy.
This being so, the curriculum of the liberal arts became more sophisticated and more
divorced from religion. Teaching was still almost exclusively in Latin, and the first book
most often read was the Psalter, but further education was no longer similar to that of a choir
school. In particular, the discipline of rhetoric was transformed from a linguistic study into
instruction in how to compose letters and documents; there was a new stress on logic; and in
all the liberal arts and philosophy texts more advanced than those known in the early Middle
Ages were introduced.
Along with this new logic came the translation of Greek and Arabic philosophical and
scientific works. Most important was the translation of almost all the writings of Aristotle, as
well as his sophisticated Arabic commentators, which helped to bring about an intellectual
revolution based on Greek rationalism. On a more prosaic level, contact with Arabs resulted
in the introduction in the 12th century of the arithmetic system and the concept of zero.
Though most westerners first resisted this and made crude jokes about it, the material quickly
became widely accepted as useful. When it was understood, the system they used their study
of liberal arts as preparation for law, medicine, government service, or advancement in the
ecclesiastical hierarchy.

According to the passage, what led to the secularisation of the curriculum of the liberal arts in the 12th century?

  • (1) It was divorced from religion and its influences.
  • (2) Students used it mainly as a base for studying law and medicine.
  • (3) Teaching could no longer be conducted exclusively in Latin.
  • (4) Arabic was introduced into the curriculum.
Correct Answer: (1) It was divorced from religion and its influences.
View Solution

Question 7:

According to the author, in the 12th century, individuals were motivated to get higher education because it

  • (1) was a means for material advancement and higher status.
  • (2) gave people with wealth an opportunity to learn.
  • (3) offered a coveted place for those with a love of learning.
  • (4) directly added to the income levels of people.
Correct Answer: (1) was a means for material advancement and higher status.
View Solution

Question 8:

According to the passage, 12th-century schools were clerical and yet secular because

  • (1) many teachers were craftsmen and professionals who did not form part of the church.
  • (2) while the students had the legal privileges accorded to the clergy and looked like priests, not all were really priests.
  • (3) the term 'cleric' denoted a literate individual rather than a strict association with the church.
  • (4) though the clergy had a monopoly in education, the environment, objectives and curriculum in the schools were becoming secular.
Correct Answer: (4) though the clergy had a monopoly in education, the environment, objectives and curriculum in the schools were becoming secular.
View Solution

Question 9:

What does the sentence 'Christians educate their sons . . . will be ours and the other brothers’ imply?

  • (1) The Christian family was a close-knit unit in the 12th century.
  • (2) Christians educated their sons not so much for the love of learning as for material gain.
  • (3) Christians believed very strongly in educating their sons in the Church.
  • (4) The relationship between Christian parents and their sons was exploitative in the 12th century.
Correct Answer: (2) Christians educated their sons not so much for the love of learning as for material gain.
View Solution

Question 10:

According to which of the following is the most noteworthy trend in education in 12th-century Europe?

  • (1) Secularization of education.
  • (2) Flowering of theology as the queen of the sciences.
  • (3) People showing increasing reluctance to learn.
  • (4) Flourishing of material education over traditional education.
Correct Answer: (1) Secularization of education.
View Solution

Question 11:
Comprehension: At first sight, it looks as though panchayati raj, the lower layer of federalism in our polity, is
as firmly entrenched in our system as is the older and higher layer comprising the Union
Government and the State. Like the democratic institutions at the higher level, those at the
panchayat level, the panchayati raj institutions (PRIs), are written into and protected by the
Constitution. All the essential features, which distinguish a unitary system from a federal
one, are as much enshrined at the lower as at the upper level of our federal system. But look
closely and you will discover a fatal flaw. The letter of the Constitution as well as the spirit
of the present polity have exposed the intra-State level of our federal system to a dilemma of
which the inter-State and Union-State layers are free.
Read More The flaw has many causes. But all of
them are rooted in an historical anomaly, that while the dynamics of federalism and
democracy have given added strength to the rights given to the States in the Constitution,
they have worked against the rights of panchayats.
At both levels of our federal system there is the same tussle between those who have certain
rights and those who try to encroach upon them if they believe they can. Thus, the Union
12
Government was able to encroach upon certain rights given to the States by the Constitution.
It got away with that because the single dominant party system, which characterised
Centre-State relations for close upon two decades, gave the party in power at the Union level
many extra-constitutional political leverages. Second, the Supreme Court had not yet begun
to extend the limits of its power. But all that has changed in recent times. The spurt given to
a multi-party democracy by the overthrow of the Emergency in 1977 became a long-term
trend later on because of the ways in which a vigorously democratic multi-party system
works in a political society which is as assertively pluralistic as Indian society is. It gives
political clout to all the various segments which constitute that society. Secondly, because of
the linguistic reorganisation of States in the 1950s, many of the most assertive segments have
found their most assertive expression as States. Thirdly, with single-party dominance
becoming a thing of the past at the Union level, governments can be formed at that level only
by multi-party coalitions in which State-level parties are major players. This has made it
impossible for the Union Government to do much about anything unless it also carries a
sufficient number of State-level parties with it. Indian federalism is now more real than it
used to be, but an unfortunate side-effect is that India’s panchayati raj system, inaugurated
with such fanfare in the early 1980s, has become less real.
By the time the PRIs came on the scene, most of the political space in our federal system had
been occupied by the Centre in the first 30 years of Independence, and most of what was still
left after that was occupied by the States in the next 20. PRIs might have hoped to wrest
some space from their immediate neighbour, the States, just as the States had wrested some
from the Centre. But having at last managed to checkmate the Centre’s encroachments on
their rights, the States were not about to allow the PRIs to do some encroaching of their own.
By the 1980’s and early 1990s, the only nationally left, the Congress, had gone deeper into a
siege mentality. Finding itself surrounded by State-level parties, it had built walls against
them in stead of winning them over. Next, the States retaliated by blocking Congress
proposals for panchayati raj in Parliament, suspecting that the Centre would try to use
panchayats to by-pass State Governments. The suspicion fed on the fact that the powers
proposed by the Congress for panchayats were very similar to many of the more lucrative
powers of State Governments. State-level leaders also feared, perhaps, that if panchayat-level
leaders captured some of the larger PRIs, such as district-level panchayats, they would exert
pressure on State-level leaders through intra-State multi-party federalism.
It soon became obvious to Congress leaders that there was no way the panchayati raj
amendments they wanted to write into the Constitution would pass muster unless State-level
parties were given their pound of flesh. The amendments were allowed only after it was
agreed that the powers of panchayats could be listed in the Constitution. Illustratively, they
would be defined and endowed on PRIs by the State Legislature acting at its discretion.
This left the door wide open for the States to exert the power of the new political fact that
while the Union and State Governments could afford to ignore panchayats as long as the
MLAs were happy, the Union Government had to be sensitive to the demands of State-level
parties. This has given State-level actors strong beachheads on the shores of both inter-State
and intra-State federalism. By using various administrative devices and non-elected parallel
structures, State Governments have subordinated their PRIs to the State administration and
given the upper hand to State Government officials against the elected heads of PRIs.
Panchayats have become local agencies for implementing schemes drawn up in distant State
capitals. And their own volition has been further circumscribed by a plethora of
‘centrally-sponsored schemes’. These are drawn up by even more distant Central authorities
but at the same time tie up local staff and resources on pain of the schemes being switched
off in the absence of matching local contribution. The ‘foreign aid’ syndrome can be clearly
seen at work behind this kind of ‘grass roots development’.

The central theme of the passage can be best summarized as

  • (1) Our grassroots development at the panchayati level is now driven by the ‘foreign aid’ syndrome.
  • (2) Panchayati raj is firmly entrenched at the lower level of our federal system of governance.
  • (3) A federal polity has not developed since PRIs have not been allowed the necessary political space.
  • (4) The Union Government and State-level parties are engaged in a struggle for the protection of their respective.
Correct Answer: (1) Our grassroots development at the panchayati level is now driven by the ‘foreign aid’ syndrome.
View Solution

Question 12:

The sentence in the last paragraph, "And their own volition has been further circumscribed . . ." refers to

  • (1) the weakening of the local institutions’ ability to plan according to their needs.
  • (2) the increasing demands made on elected local leaders to match central grants with local contributions.
  • (3) the empowering of the panchayat system as implementers of schemes from State capitals.
  • (4) the process by which the prescribed Central schemes are reformulated by local elected leaders.
Correct Answer: (1) the weakening of the local institutions’ ability to plan according to their needs.
View Solution

Question 13:

What is the ‘dilemma’ at the intra-State level mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage?

  • (1) Should the state governments wrest more space from the Union, before considering the panchayati system?
  • (2) Should things similar to those that the States managed to get be extended to panchayats as well?
  • (3) Should the single party system which has withered away be brought back at the level of the States?
  • (4) Should the States get their ‘pound of flesh’ before allowing the Union Government to pass any more laws?
Correct Answer: (1) Should the state governments wrest more space from the Union, before considering the panchayati system?
View Solution

Question 14:

Which of the following most closely describes the ‘fatal flaw’ that the passage refers to?

  • (1) The Supreme Court has not begun to extend the limits of its power.
  • (2) The mechanisms that our federal system uses at the Union Government level to deal with States are imperfect.
  • (3) The instruments that have ensured federalism at one level, have been used to achieve the opposite at another.
  • (4) The Indian Constitution and the spirit of the Indian polity are fatally flawed.
Correct Answer: (3) The instruments that have ensured federalism at one level, have been used to achieve the opposite at another.
View Solution

Question 15:

Which of the following best captures the current state of Indian federalism as described in the passage?

  • (1) Secularization of education.
  • (2) Flowering of theology as the queen of the sciences.
  • (3) People showing increasing reluctance to learn.
  • (4) Flourishing of material education over traditional education.
Correct Answer: (4) Flourishing of material education over traditional education.
View Solution

Question 16:
Comprehension: PASSAGE 4
While I was in class at Columbia, struggling with the esoterica of jury, my father was on a
bricklayer’s scaffold not far up the street, working on a campus building. Once we met up on
the subway going home — he was with his tools, I with my books.
Read More My father wasn’t
interested in Thucydides, and I wasn’t up on arches. My dad has built lots of places in New
York City he can’t get into: colleges, condos, coffee houses. He made his living on the
outside. Once the walls were up, a place took on a different feel for him, as though he wasn’t
welcome anymore. Related by blood, we’re separated by class, my father and I. Being the
white-collar child of a blue-collar parent means being the hinge on the door between two
ways of life. With one foot in the working class, the other in the middle class, people like me
are Straddlers, at home in neither world, living a limbo life.
What drove me to leave what I knew? Born blue-collar, I still never felt completely at home
among the tough guys and anti-intellectual crowd of my neighbourhood in deepest Brooklyn.
I never did completely fit in among the preppies and suburban royalty of Columbia, either.
It’s like that for Straddlers. It was not so smooth jumping from Italian old-world style to US
professional in a single generation. Others who were the first in their families to go to
college, will tell you the same thing: the academy can render you unrecognisable to the very
people who launched you into the world. The ideas and values absorbed in college challenge
the mom-and-pop orthodoxy that passed for truth for 18 years. Limbo kids may eschew
polyester blends for sea-isle cotton, prefer Brice to Kraft slices. They may wear clothes the
neighbourhood raises their eyebrows about. But they still live at home, speak the language of
the house and climb back there at the moment of reward.
But for the white-collar kids of blue-collar parents, the office is not necessarily a sanctuary.
In Corporate America, where the white-collar class is seen as foreign to working-class
people, a Straddler can get lost. Social class counts as the office, even though nobody likes to
admit it. Ultimately, corporate people learn as good middle-class adults, business types say,
how to work with those kids. They follow the way of getting along: diplomacy, nuance, and
politics to grab what they need. It’s also the reason they find following a set of rules laid out
in a manual that blue-collar families never have the chance to do.
People from both the middle class and the college degrees have lived lives filled with what
French sociologist Pierre Bourdieu calls ‘cultural capital’. Growing up in an educated
environment, they had access to Picasso and Mozart, sports and career behind. In a world
where actual French intellectuals are networked: Someone always has an aunt or golfing
buddy with the inside track for an internship or the right dinner-table talk would happen that
day from and with the family, the doctor’s office, the engine executive. Middle-class kids can
grow up with a sense of entitlement and can carry them through their lives. This
belongingness is not just related to having material means, it also has to do with learning and
possessing confidence in your place in the world. Such easy entitlement and direct exposure
to culture in the home is the more original, ‘legitimate’ means of appropriately cultural
capital, Bourdieu tells us. Those of us possessing ‘ill-gotten’ Culture’ can learn, but never as
well. Something is always a little off about us, like an engine with imprecise timing. There’s
a greater method between these class and the institutions in which the middle class works
and operates — universities or corporations. Children find the middle and upper classes have
been speaking about what life is for the culture.

According to the passage, which of the following statements about 'cultural capital' is NOT true?

  • (1) It socializes children early into the norms of middle class institutions.
  • (2) It helps them learn the language of universities and corporations.
  • (3) It creates a sense of enlightenment in middle-class children.
  • (4) It develops bright kids into Straddlers.
Correct Answer: (4) It develops bright kids into Straddlers.
View Solution

Question 17:

According to the passage, the patterns of socialization of working-class children make them most suited for jobs that require

  • (1) diplomacy.
  • (2) compliance with orders.
  • (3) enterprise and initiative.
  • (4) high risk-taking.
Correct Answer: (2) compliance with orders.
View Solution

Question 18:

When Straddlers enter white collar jobs, they get lost because

  • (1) they are thrown into an alien value system.
  • (2) their families have not read the rules in corporate manuals.
  • (3) they have no one to guide them through the corporate maze.
  • (4) they miss the ‘mom and pop orthodoxy.’
Correct Answer: (1) they are thrown into an alien value system.
View Solution

Question 19:

What does the author’s statement, "my father wasn’t interested in Thucydides, and I wasn’t up on arches," illustrate?

  • (1) Original cultural capital.
  • (2) Professional arrogance and social distance.
  • (3) Evolving social transformation.
  • (4) Breakdown of family relationships.
Correct Answer: (1) Original cultural capital.
View Solution

Question 20:

Which of the following statements about Straddlers does the passage NOT support explicitly?

  • (1) Their food preferences may not match those of their parents.
  • (2) They may not keep up some central religious practices of their parents.
  • (3) They have a more fitting role neither in the middle class nor in the working-class.
  • (4) Their political ideologies may differ from those of their parents.
Correct Answer: (3) They have a more fitting role neither in the middle class nor in the working-class.
View Solution

Question 21:
Comprehension: PASSAGE 5
The endless struggle between the flesh and the spirit found an end in Greek art. The Greek
artists were unaware of it. They were spiritual materialists, never denying the importance of
the body and ever seeing in the body a spiritual significance.
Read More Mysticism on the whole was alien to the Greeks, thinkers as they were. Thought and mysticism never go well together and
there is little symbolism in Greek art. Athena was not a symbol of wisdom but an
embodiment of life and her statues were beautiful grave women, whose seriousness might
mark them as wise, but who were marked in no other way. The Apollo Belvedere is not a
22
symbol of the sun, nor the Versailles Artemis of the moon. There could be nothing less akin
to the ways of symbolism than their beautiful, normal humanity. Nor did decoration really
interest the Greeks. In all their art they were preoccupied with what they wanted to express,
not with ways of expressing it, and lovely expression, merely as lovely expression, did not
appeal to them at all.
Greek art is intellectual art, the art of men who were clear and lucid thinkers, and it is
therefore plain art. Artists than whom the world has never seen greater, men endowed with
the spirit’s best gift, found their natural method of expression in the simplicity and clarity
which are the endowment of the uncloaked soul. ”Nothing is excess; everything is regular,”
said the dictum of men who knew how to express. Structure belongs in an especial degree to
the province of the mind in art, and architecture resides here, as Greek architects would say,
“unmistakably.” These great men made a unified whole of the trilogy of Greek tragedy, by a
pure line, the surest, precise, decisive scheme of the Greek statue, from its finest conception
into expression in Greek architecture. The Greek temple is the clearest example, and it shows
courage and religious spirituality in architecture.
A Hindu temple is a complex expression of adornment. The lines of building are completely
hidden by the architectural sculptural figures and ornaments, visible to no one but the
temple-maker in thick masses, break it up into a bewildering series of irregular figures. It is
not a unity but a collection, rich, refined. It continues in unexpected forms as painters build
this way and that as the ornament required. The conclusion indefinitely is not planned but
built this way and that as the creator who has the mystical meaning to give. Greek
architecture was not particularly a means for the artist to inscribe the theory symbols of the
truth.
Again, the gigantic temples of Egypt, those massive immensities of granite which look as if
they power through the firmament were mighty enough to bring them into existence, are
something other than the creation of generous humanity based in beauty. The science and the
spirit are there, but what is there is a stiff, uncouth force, a form that becomes monumental,
overwhelming. It leads to nothingness at all that belongs to man. It is a great idea. The
Egyptian architects were possessed by the consciousness of the willful, irresistible
domination of the ways of nature; they had no thought to give the insignificant details that
would.
Greek architecture of the great age is the expression of men who were, first of all, intellectual
artists, kept firmly within the visible world by their mind, but, secondly to that, lovers of the
human world. The Greeks possessed the world of the pure intellect limited by the spirit. No
other great builders touched anything as simple as this simplicity in the Parthenon straight
columns rise to gain capitals, a gradient is sculptured in bold relief; there is nothing more.
And yet — here is the Greek machine — this absolute simplicity of structure is akin to
massive beauty and grand yet subtle mass. The architects and place would follow. Majestic
but modern, truly Greek. No superhuman force as in Egypt; no strange supernatural shapes
as in India; the Parthenon is the home of humanity at ease, calm, created of itself and high in
its eyes.
The Greek’s final challenge to nature lies in the fullness of their joyous strength. They set
their temples with such a small of all overlooking the whole sky, untied against the circle of
the sky. They would build where no war has happened, raise and ask any grander than all
these. It matters not at all if the temple is larger or small; one never thinks of the size. It
matters how much it is in ruins. A few will still need to recover for their individual work.
However, for Greeks, they would have let stand their stones for centuries for happiness.

"The Greeks flung a challenge to nature in the fullness of their joyous strength." Which of the following best captures the 'challenge' that is being referred to?

  • (1) To build a monument matching the background colours of the sky and the sea.
  • (2) To build a monument bigger than nature's creations.
  • (3) To build monuments that were more appealing to the mind and spirit than nature’s creations.
  • (4) To build a small but architecturally perfect creation.
Correct Answer: (3) To build monuments that were more appealing to the mind and spirit than nature’s creations.
View Solution

Question 22:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Greek architecture, according to the passage?

  • (1) A lack of excess.
  • (2) Simplicity of form.
  • (3) Expression of intellect.
  • (4) Mystic spirituality.
Correct Answer: (4) Mystic spirituality.
View Solution

Question 23:

From the passage, which of the following combinations can be inferred to be correct?

  • (1) Hindu temple = power of nature.
  • (2) Parthenon = simplicity.
  • (3) Egyptian temple = mysticism.
  • (4) Greek temple = symbolism.
Correct Answer: (2) Parthenon = simplicity.
View Solution

Question 24:

According to the passage, what conception of man can be inferred from Egyptian architecture?

  • (1) Man is the centre of creation.
  • (2) Egyptian temples see man from unhuman forces.
  • (3) Temples celebrate man's victory over nature.
  • (4) Man is inconsequential before the tremendous force of nature.
Correct Answer: (4) Man is inconsequential before the tremendous force of nature.
View Solution

Question 25:

According to the passage, which of the following best explains why there is little symbolism in Greek art?

  • (1) The Greeks focused on thought rather than mysticism.
  • (2) The struggle between the flesh and the spirit found an end in Greek art.
  • (3) Greek artists were spiritual materialists.
  • (4) Greek statues were embodiments rather than symbols of qualities.
Correct Answer: (1) The Greeks focused on thought rather than mysticism.
View Solution

Question 26:
Directions for questions 26 to 33:
The sentences given in each question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the
most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.
 

A. The wall does not simply divide Israel from a putative Palestinian state on the basis of the 1967
borders.

B. A chilling omission from the road map is the gigantic ‘separation wall’ now being built in the West
Bank by Israel.

C. It is surrounded by trenches, electric wire and moats; there are watchtowers at regular intervals.

D. It actually takes new tracts of Palestinian and, sometimes five or six kilometres at a stretch.

E. Almost a decade after the end of South African apartheid this ghastly racist wall is going up with
scarcely a peep from Israel’s American allies who are going to pay for most of it.

  • (1) EBCAD
  • (2) BADCE
  • (3) AECDB
  • (4) ECADB
Correct Answer: (3) AECDB
View Solution

Question 27:

A. Luckily the tide of battle moved elsewhere after the American victory at Midway and an Australian
victory over Japan at Milne Bay.

B. It could have been no more than a delaying tactic.

C. The Australian military, knowing the position was hopeless, planned to fall back to the south
east in the hope of defending the main cities.

D. They had captured most of the Solomon Islands and much of New Guinea, and seemed poised
for an invasion.

E. Not many people outside Australia realize how close the Japanese got.

  • (1) ECDBA
  • (2) ECABD
  • (3) EDCBA
  • (4) ECBAD
Correct Answer: (2) ECABD
View Solution

Question 28:

A. Call it the third wave sweeping the Indian media.

B. Now they are starring in a new role, as suave dealmakers who are in a hurry to strike alliances
and agreements.

C. Look around and you will find a host of deals that have been inked or are ready to be finalized.

D. Then the media barons wrested back control from their editors, and turned marketing warriors
with the brand as their missile.

E. The first came with those magnificent men in their mahogany chambers who took on the world
with their mighty fountain pens.

  • (1) ACBED
  • (2) CEBDA
  • (3) CAEBD
  • (4) AEDBC
Correct Answer: (1) ACBED
View Solution

Question 29:

A. The celebrations of economic recovery in Washington may be as premature as that ‘Mission
Accomplished’ banner hung on the USS Abraham Lincoln to hail the end of the Iraq war.

B. Meanwhile, in the real world, the struggles of families and communities continue unabated.

C. Washington responded to the favourable turn in economic news with enthusiasm.

D. The celebrations and high-fives up and down Pennsylvania Avenue are not to be found beyond
the Beltway.

E. When the third quarter GDP showed growth of 7.2% and the monthly unemployment rate dipped
to six per cent euphoria gripped the US capital.

  • (1) ACEDB
  • (2) CEDAB
  • (3) ECABD
  • (4) ECDBA
Correct Answer: (3) ECABD
View Solution

Question 30:

A. To much of the Labour movement, it symbolises the brutality of the upper classes.

B. And to everybody watching, the current mess over foxhunting symbolises the government’s
weakness.

C. To foxhunting’s supporters, Labour’s 1991 manifesto commitment to ban it symbolises the party’s
metropolitan roots and hostility to the countryside.

D. Small issues sometimes have large symbolic power.

E. To those who enjoy thundering across the countryside in red coats after foxes, foxhunting
symbolises the ancient roots of rural lives.

  • (1) DEACB
  • (2) ECDBA
  • (3) CEADB
  • (4) DBAEC
Correct Answer: (1) DEACB
View Solution

Question 31:

A. In the case of King Merolchazzar’s courtship of the Princess of the Outer Isles, there occurs a
regrettable hitch.

B. She acknowledges the gifts, but no word of a meeting date follows.

C. The monarch, hearing good reports of a neighbouring princess, dispatches messengers with
gifts to her court, beseeching an interview.

D. The princess names a date, and a formal meeting takes place; after that everything buzzes
along pretty smoothly.

E. Royal love affairs in olden days were conducted on the correspondence method.

  • (1) ACDBE
  • (2) ABCDE
  • (3) ECADB
  • (4) ECBAD
Correct Answer: (2) ABCDE
View Solution

Question 32:

A. Who can trace to its first beginnings the love of Damon for Pythias, of David for Jonathan, of
Swan for Edgar?

B. Similarly with men.

C. There is about great friendships between man and man a certain inevitability that can only be
compared with the age-old association of ham and eggs.

D. One simply feels that it is one of the things that must be so.

E. No one can say what was the mutual magnetism that brought the deathless partnership of these
wholesome and palatable foodstuffs about.

  • (1) ACBED
  • (2) CDEBA
  • (3) CAEBD
  • (4) AECDB
Correct Answer: (1) ACBED
View Solution

Question 33:

A. Events intervened, and in the late 1930s and 1940s, Germany suffered from ‘over-branding’.

B. The British used to be fascinated by the home of Romanticism.

C. But reunification and the federal government’s move to Berlin have prompted Germany to think
again about its image.

D. The first foreign package holiday was a tour of Germany organized by Thomas Cook in 1855.

E. Since then Germany has been understandably nervous about promoting itself abroad.

  • (1) ACEBD
  • (2) DECAB
  • (3) BDAEC
  • (4) DBAEC
Correct Answer: (4) DBAEC
View Solution

Question 34:

It is important for shipping companies to be clear about the objectives for maintenance and materials
management — as to whether the primary focus is on service level improvement or cost minimization.
Often when certain systems are set in place, the cost minimization objective and associated procedure
become more important than the flexibility required for service level improvement. The problem really
arises since cost minimization tends to focus on out of pocket costs which are visible, while the
opportunity costs, often greater in value, are lost sight of.


A. Shipping companies have to either minimize costs or maximize service quality. If they focus on
cost minimization, they will reduce quality. They should focus on service level improvement, or
else opportunity costs will be lost sight of.

B. Shipping companies should determine the primary focus of their maintenance and materials
management. Focus on cost minimization may reduce visible costs, but ignore greater invisible
costs and impair service quality.

C. Any cost minimization programme in shipping is bound to lower the quality of service. Therefore,
shipping companies must be clear about the primary focus of their maintenance and materials
management before embarking on cost minimization.

D. Shipping companies should focus on quality level improvement rather than cost cutting. Cost
cutting will lead to untold opportunity costs. Companies should have systems in place to make
the service level flexible.

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (4) D
View Solution

Question 35:

Try before you buy. We use this memorable saying to urge you to experience the consequences of an alternative before you choose it, whenever this is feasible. If you are considering buying a van after having always owned sedans, rent one for a week or borrow a friend’s. By experiencing the consequences first hand, they become more meaningful. In addition, you are likely to identify consequences you had not even thought of before. Maybe you will discover that it is difficult to park the van in your small parking space at work, but that, on the other hand, your elderly father has a much easier time getting in and out of it.


(A) If you are planning to buy a van after being used to sedans, borrow a van or rent it and try it before deciding to buy it. Then you may realize that parking a van is difficult while it is easier for your elderly father to get in and out of it.

(B) Before choosing an alternative, experience its consequences if feasible. If, for example, you want to change from sedans to a van, try one before buying it. You will discover aspects you may never have thought of.

(C) Always try before you buy anything. You are bound to discover many consequences. One of the consequences of going in for a van is that it is more difficult to park than sedans at the office car park.

(D) We urge you to try products such as vans before buying them. Then you can experience consequences you have not thought of such as parking problems. But your father may find vans more comfortable than cars.

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (1) A
View Solution

Question 36:

Physically, inertia is a feeling that you just can’t move; mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even if you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish, you just don’t feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and not be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not be able to get angry. Your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you just don’t have the capacity.

Inertia is of two types — physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements.
Mental inertia prevents mental response to events enacted in front of your eyes.


(A) Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitive to tragedies, exploitation, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapitates it.

(B) When you have inertia you don’t act although you see one person exploiting another or one group persecuting another. You don’t get angry because you are incapable.

(C) Inertia is of two types — physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements.

(D) Physical inertia stops your body from moving; mental inertia freezes your energy, and stops your mind from responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front of you.

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C.
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Question 37:

Some decisions will be fairly obvious — 'no-brainers'. Your bank account is low, but you have a two-week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family.

Will you accept your in-laws’ offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course.
(A) Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative’s offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away.
(B) Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in-law and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away.
(C) Easy decisions are called 'no-brainers' because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives.
(D) Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and want a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss’s job when she is away.

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C.
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Question 38:

Help

  • (1) This syrup will help you cold.
  • (2) I can't help the colour of my skin.
  • (3) Ranjit may help himself with the beer in the fridge.
  • (4) Do you really expect me to help you out with cash?
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 39:

Paper

  • (1) Your suggestions look great on the paper, but are absolutely impractical.
  • (2) Do you know how many trees are killed to make a truckload of paper?
  • (3) So far I have been able to paper over the disagreements among my brothers.
  • (4) Dr. Malek will read a paper on criminalization of politics.
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 40:

Service

  • (1) Customers have to service themselves at this canteen.
  • (2) It’s a service lift; don’t get into it.
  • (3) I’m not making enough even to service the loan.
  • (4) Jyoti’s husband has been on active service for three months.
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 41:

Reason

  • (1) Your stand is beyond all reason.
  • (2) Has she given you any reason for her resignation?
  • (3) There is little reason in your pompous advice.
  • (4) How do you deal with a friend who doesn’t listen to a reason?
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 42:

Business

  • (1) I want to do an MBA before going into business.
  • (2) My wife runs a profitable business in this suburb.
  • (3) If we advertise, we will get twice as much business as we have now.
  • (4) How you spend your money is as much my business as yours.
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 43:

The best punctuation is that of which the reader is least conscious; for when punctuation, or lack of it, ................. itself, it is usually because it .................

  • (1) obtrudes ... offends
  • (2) enjoins ... fails
  • (3) conceals ... recedes
  • (4) effaces ... counts
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 44:

The argument that the need for a looser fiscal policy to ............ demand outweighs the need to .............. budget deficits is persuasive.

  • (1) assess ... minimize
  • (2) outstrip ... eliminate
  • (3) stimulate ... control
  • (4) restrain ... conceal
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 45:

The Athenians on the whole were peaceful and prosperous; they had ............ to sit at home and think about the universe and dispute with Socrates, or to travel abroad and ............... the world.

  • (1) leisure ... explore
  • (2) time ... ignore
  • (3) ability ... suffer
  • (4) temerity ... understand
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 46:

Their achievement in the field of literature is described as ...............; sometimes it is even called ...............

  • (1) magnificent ... irresponsible
  • (2) insignificant ... influential
  • (3) significant ... paltry
  • (4) unimportant ... trivial
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 47:

From the time she had put her hair up, every man she had met had grovelled before her and she had acquired a mental attitude toward the other sex which was a blend of ............ and ................

  • (1) admiration ... tolerance
  • (2) indifference ... contempt
  • (3) impertinence ... temperance
  • (4) arrogance ... fidelity
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 48:

This simplified ............. to the decision-making process is a must read for anyone ............... important real estate, personal, or professional decisions.

  • (1) primer ... maximizing
  • (2) tract ... enacting
  • (3) introduction ... under
  • (4) guide ... facing
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 49:

Physicians may soon have ............ to help paralysed people move their limbs by bypassing the ............... nerves that once controlled their muscles.

  • (1) instruments ... detrimental
  • (2) ways ... damaged
  • (3) reason ... involuntary
  • (4) impediments ... complex
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 50:

The Internet is a medium where users have nearly .......... choices and ............. constraints about where to go and what to do.

  • (1) unbalanced ... non-existent
  • (2) embarrassing ... no
  • (3) unlimited ... minimal
  • (4) choking ... shocking
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 51:

The value of the numeral MDCCLXXXVII is

  • (1) 1687
  • (2) 1787
  • (3) 1887
  • (4) 1987
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 52:

The value of the numeral MCMXCIX is

  • (1) 1999
  • (2) 1899
  • (3) 1989
  • (4) 1889
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 53:

Which of the following represent the numeral for 1995?

I. MCMLXXV

II. MCMXCV

III. MVD

IV. MVM

  • (1) Only I and II
  • (2) Only III and IV
  • (3) Only II and IV
  • (4) Only IV
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 54:

Let the radius of each circular park be \(r\), and the distances to be traversed by the sprinters A, B, and C be \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) respectively. Which of the following is true?

  • (1) \(b - a = c - b = \sqrt{3} r\)
  • (2) \(b - a = c - b = \sqrt{3} r\)
  • (3) \(b = \frac{a + c}{2} = (2 + \sqrt{3}) r\)
  • (4) \(c = 2b - a = (2 + \sqrt{3}) r\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(c = 2b - a = (2 + \sqrt{3}) r\)
View Solution

Question 55:

Sprinter A traverses distances \( A_1 A_2 \), \( A_2 A_3 \), and \( A_3 A_4 \) at average speeds of 20, 30, and 15 respectively.

B traverses her entire path at a uniform speed of \( (10\sqrt{3} + 20) \).

C traverses distances \( C_1 C_2 \), \( C_2 C_3 \), and \( C_3 C_4 \), at average speeds of \( \frac{40}{3}(\sqrt{3} + 1) \), \( \frac{40}{3}(\sqrt{3} + 1) \), and 120 respectively. All speeds are in the same unit. Where would B and C be respectively when A finishes her sprint?

  • (1) \( B_1 \), \( C_1 \)
  • (2) \( B_3 \), \( C_3 \)
  • (3) \( B_1 \), \( C_3 \)
  • (4) \( B_1 \), Somewhere between \( C_3 \) and \( C_1 \)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 56:

Sprinters A, B, and C traverse their respective paths at uniform speeds of \( u \), \( v \), and \( w \) respectively. It is known that \( u^2:v^2:w^2 \) is equal to Area A: Area B: Area C, where Area A, Area B, and Area C are the areas of triangles \( A_1 A_2 A_3 \), \( B_1 B_2 B_3 \), and \( C_1 C_2 C_3 \) respectively. Where would A and C be when B reaches point \( B_3 \)?

  • (1) \( A_2 \), \( C_3 \)
  • (2) \( A_3 \), \( C_3 \)
  • (3) \( A_3 \), \( C_2 \)
  • (4) Somewhere between \( A_2 \) and \( A_3 \), Somewhere between \( C_3 \) and \( C_1 \)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 57:

What is the vertical spacing between the two consecutive turns?




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  • (1) \( \frac{h}{n} \, cm \)
  • (2) \( \frac{h}{\sqrt{n}} \, cm \)
  • (3) \( \frac{h}{n^2} \, cm \)
  • (4) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 58:

The same string, when wound on the exterior four walls of a cube of side \( n \, cm \), starting at point C and ending at point D, can give exactly one turn (see figure, not drawn to scale). The length of the string is:


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  • (1) \( \sqrt{2} n \, cm \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{7} n \, cm \)
  • (3) \( n \, cm \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{13} n \, cm \)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 59:

In the set-up of the previous two questions, how is \( h \) related to \( n \)?

  • (1) \( h = \sqrt{2} n \)
  • (2) \( h = \sqrt{7} n \)
  • (3) \( h = n \)
  • (4) \( h = \sqrt{13} n \)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 60:

There are 12 towns grouped into four zones with three towns per zone. It is intended to connect the towns with telephone lines such that every two towns are connected with three direct lines if they belong to the same zone, and with only one direct line otherwise. How many direct telephone lines are required?

  • (1) 72
  • (2) 90
  • (3) 96
  • (4) 144
Correct Answer: (3) 96
View Solution

Question 61:

In the figure (not drawn to scale) given below, P is a point on AB such that \(AP : PB = 4 : 3\). PQ is parallel to AC and QD is parallel to CP. In \(\triangle ARC\), \(\angle ARC = 90^\circ\), and in \(\triangle PQS\), \(\angle PQS = 90^\circ\). The length of QS is 6 cm. What is the ratio of \(AP : PD\)?


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  • (1) 10 : 3
  • (2) 2 : 1
  • (3) 3 : 7
  • (4) 8 : 3
Correct Answer: (4) 8 : 3
View Solution

Question 62:

A car is being driven, in a straight line and at a uniform speed, towards the base of a vertical tower. The top of the tower is observed from the car and, in the process, it takes 10 min for the angle of elevation to change from \(45^\circ\) to \(60^\circ\). After how much more time will this car reach the base of the tower?

  • (1) 1.5 \((\sqrt{3} + 1)\)
  • (2) 2.6 \((\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2})\)
  • (3) 7 \((\sqrt{3} - 1)\)
  • (4) 8 \((\sqrt{3} - 2)\)
Correct Answer: (2) 2.6 \((\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2})\)
View Solution

Question 63:

In the figure (not drawn to scale) given below, if \(AD = CD = BC\) and \(\angle DBC = 96^\circ\), how much is the value of \(\angle DBC\)?


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  • (1) 32\(^\circ\)
  • (2) 84\(^\circ\)
  • (3) 64\(^\circ\)
  • (4) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (3) 64\(^\circ\)
View Solution

Question 64:

If both a and b belong to the set \(\{1, 2, 3, 4\}\), then the number of equations of the form \(ax^2 + bx + 1 = 0\) having real roots is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 12
Correct Answer: (3) 6
View Solution

Question 65:

If \(\log_x x - \log_10 \sqrt{x} = 2 \log_10 10\), then the possible value of \(x\) is given by:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 100
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) 10
View Solution

Question 66:

What is the sum of all two-digit numbers that give a remainder of 3 when they are divided by 7?

  • (1) 666
  • (2) 676
  • (3) 683
  • (4) 777
Correct Answer: (1) 666
View Solution

Question 67:

An intelligence agency forms a code of two distinct digits selected from 0, 1, 2, ..., 9 such that the first digit of the code is non-zero. The code, handwritten on a slip, can however potentially create confusion when read upside down — for example, the code 91 may appear as 16. How many codes are there for which no such confusion can arise?

  • (1) 80
  • (2) 78
  • (3) 71
  • (4) 69
Correct Answer: (2) 78
View Solution

Question 68:

Consider two different cloth-cutting processes. In the first one, \(n\) circular cloth pieces are cut from a square cloth piece of side \(a\) in the following steps: the original square of side \(a\) is divided into \(n\) smaller squares, not necessarily of the same size, then a circle of maximum possible area is cut from each of the smaller squares. In the second process, only one circle of maximum possible area is cut from the square of side \(a\) and the process ends there. The cloth pieces remaining after cutting the circles are scrapped in both the processes. The ratio of the total area of scrap cloth generated in the former to that in the latter is:

  • (1) 1 : 1
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}\) : 1
  • (3) \(\frac{n(4 - \pi)}{4n - \pi}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4n - \pi}{n(4 - \pi)}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{n(4 - \pi)}{4n - \pi}\)
View Solution

Question 69:

In the figure below (not drawn to scale), rectangle ABCD is inscribed in the circle with center at O. The length of side AB is greater than side BC. The ratio of the area of the circle to the area of the rectangle ABCD is \(\pi : \sqrt{3}\). The line segment DE intersects AB at E such that \(\angle DOC = \angle ADE\). The ratio \(AE : AD\) is:


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  • (1) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(1 : 2\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution

Question 70:

If \(\frac{1}{3} \log N + 3 \log M = 1 + \log 1000\), then:

  • (1) \(M^p = \frac{9}{N}\)
  • (2) \(N^q = \frac{9}{M}\)
  • (3) \(M^3 = \frac{3}{N}\)
  • (4) \(N^p = \frac{3}{M}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(M^p = \frac{9}{N}\)
View Solution

Question 71:

Using only 2, 5, 10, 25, and 50 paisa coins, what will be the minimum number of coins required to pay exactly 78 paise, 69 paise and Rs. 1.01 to three different persons?

  • (1) 19
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 22
  • (4) 18
Correct Answer: (2) 20
View Solution

Question 72:

The length of the circumference of a circle equals the perimeter of a triangle of equal sides, and also the perimeter of a square. The areas covered by the circle, triangle, and square are \(c\), \(t\), and \(s\), respectively. Then,

  • (1) \(s > t > c\)
  • (2) \(c > t > s\)
  • (3) \(t > c > s\)
  • (4) \(s > c > t\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(s > t > c\)
View Solution

Question 73:

What is the remainder when \(4^8\) is divided by 6?

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Question 74:

If \(x\) and \(y\) are integers, then the equation \(5x + 19y = 64\) has:

  • (1) no solution for \(x < 300\) and \(y < 0\)
  • (2) no solution for \(x > 250\) and \(y > -100\)
  • (3) a solution for \(250 < x < 300\)
  • (4) a solution for \(-59 < x < -56\)
Correct Answer: (3) a solution for \(250 < x < 300\)
View Solution

Question 75:

What is the sum of \(n\) terms in the series \(\log m + \log \left( \frac{m^2}{n} \right) + \log \left( \frac{m^3}{n^2} \right) + \log \left( \frac{m^4}{n^3} \right) + \dots\)?

  • (1) \(\log \left( \frac{n(n-1)}{m(n+1)} \right)\)
  • (2) \(\log \left( \frac{m^m}{n^n} \right)\)
  • (3) \(\log \left( \frac{m(n-1)}{n(n-1)} \right)\)
  • (4) \(\log \left( \frac{m^{n+1}}{n^n} \right)\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\log \left( \frac{m^m}{n^n} \right)\)
View Solution

Question 76:

Let \(S_1\) be a square of side \(a\). Another square \(S_2\) is formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of \(S_1\). The same process is applied to \(S_1\) to form yet another square \(S_3\), and so on. If \(A_1\), \(A_2\), \(A_3\), \dots are the areas and \(P_1\), \(P_2\), \(P_3\), \dots are the perimeters of \(S_1\), \(S_2\), \(S_3\), \dots, respectively, then the ratio \(\frac{P_1 + P_2 + P_3 + \dots}{A_1 + A_2 + A_3 + \dots}\) equals:

  • (1) \(\frac{1 + \sqrt{5}}{a}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2(2 - \sqrt{2})}{a}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2(2 + \sqrt{2})}{a}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2(1 + \sqrt{2})}{a}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{2(2 + \sqrt{2})}{a}\)
View Solution

Question 77:

If three positive real numbers \(x\), \(y\) and \(z\) satisfy \(y - x = z - y\) and \(x + y = 4\), then what is the minimum possible value of \(y\)?

  • (1) \(2^{1/3}\)
  • (2) \(2^{2/3}\)
  • (3) \(3^{1/4}\)
  • (4) \(2^{4/3}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(2^{2/3}\)
View Solution

Question 78:

In the figure given below (not drawn to scale), A, B and C are three points on a circle with centre O. The chord BA is extended to a point T such that CT becomes a tangent to the circle at point C. If \(\angle \angle ATC = 30^\circ\) and \(\angle ACT = 50^\circ\), then the angle \(\angle ABOA\) is:


% Placeholder for the bar chart image

  • (1) 100°
  • (2) 150°
  • (3) 80°
  • (4) Not possible to determine
Correct Answer: (2) 150°
View Solution

Question 79:

The infinite sum \(1 + \frac{4}{7} + \frac{9}{72} + \frac{16}{73} + \frac{25}{74} + \dots\) equals:

  • (1) 27
  • (2) 21
  • (3) 49
  • (4) 256
Correct Answer: (3) 49
View Solution

Question 80:

Consider the sets \(T_n = \{n, n+1, n+2, n+3, n+4\}\), where \(n = 1, 2, 3, \dots, 96\). How many of these sets contain 6 or any integral multiple thereof (i.e., any one of the numbers 6, 12, 18, ...)?

  • (1) 80
  • (2) 81
  • (3) 82
  • (4) 83
Correct Answer: (2) 81
View Solution

Question 81:

Let ABCDEF be a regular hexagon. What is the ratio of the area of \(\triangle ACE\) to that of the hexagon ABCDEF?

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 82:

The number of roots common between the two equations \(x^3 + 3x^2 + 4x + 5 = 0\) and \(x^4 + 2x^3 + 7x + 3 = 0\) is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (1) 0
View Solution

Question 83:

A real number \(x\) satisfying \(1 - \frac{1}{n} < x \leq 3 + \frac{1}{n}\), for every positive integer \(n\), is best described by:

  • (1) \(1 < x < 4\)
  • (2) \(1 < x \leq 3\)
  • (3) \(0 < x \leq 4\)
  • (4) \(1 \leq x \leq 3\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(1 < x < 4\)
View Solution

Question 84:

If \(n\) is such that \(36 \leq n \leq 72\), then \(x = \frac{n^2 + 2\sqrt{n(n+4)} + 16}{n + 4\sqrt{n + 4}}\) satisfies:

  • (1) \(20 < x < 54\)
  • (2) \(23 < x < 58\)
  • (3) \(25 < x < 64\)
  • (4) \(28 < x < 60\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(25 < x < 64\)
View Solution

Question 85:

If \(13x + 2z = 5y^2\), then:

  • (1) \(x\) is necessarily less than \(y\)
  • (2) \(x\) is necessarily greater than \(y\)
  • (3) \(x\) is necessarily equal to \(y\)
  • (4) None of the above is necessarily true
Correct Answer: (4) None of the above is necessarily true
View Solution

Question 86:

Let \(n(>1)\) be a composite integer such that \(\sqrt{n}\) is not an integer. Consider the following statements:

A: \(n\) has a perfect integer-valued divisor which is greater than 1 and less than \(\sqrt{n}\)

B: \(n\) has a perfect integer-valued divisor which is greater than \(\sqrt{n}\) but less than \(n\)

Then:

  • (1) Both A and B are false
  • (2) A is true but B is false
  • (3) A is false but B is true
  • (4) Both A and B are true
Correct Answer: (4) Both A and B are true
View Solution

Question 87:

If \(|b| \geq |a|\) and \(x = |a| - b\), then which one of the following is necessarily true?

  • (1) \(a - x \leq 0\)
  • (2) \(a - x \geq 0\)
  • (3) \(a - x \geq b\)
  • (4) \(a - x \leq b\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(a - x \leq b\)
View Solution

Question 88:

A piece of paper is in the shape of a right-angled triangle and is cut along a line that is parallel to the hypotenuse, leaving a smaller triangle. There was 35% reduction in the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle. If the area of the original triangle was 34 square inches before the cut, what is the area (in square inches) of the smaller triangle?

  • (1) 16.665
  • (2) 16.565
  • (3) 15.465
  • (4) 14.365
Correct Answer: (1) 16.665
View Solution

Question 89:

Two straight roads R1 and R2 diverge from a point A at an angle of 120°. Ram starts walking from point A along R1 at a uniform speed of 3 km/hr. Shyam starts walking at the same time from A along R2 at a uniform speed of 2 km/hr. They continue walking for 4 hr along their respective roads and reach points B and C on R1 and R2 respectively. There is a straight line connecting B and C. Then Ram returns to point A after walking along the line segments BC and CA. Shyam also returns to A after walking along line segments BC and CA. Their speeds remain unchanged. The time interval (in hours) between Ram's and Shyam's return to the point A is:

  • (1) \(\frac{10\sqrt{19} + 26}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2\sqrt{19} + 10}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{19} + 26}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{19} + 10}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{10\sqrt{19} + 26}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 90:

A square in sheet of side 12 inches is converted into a box with open top in the following steps. The sheet is placed horizontally. Then, equal-sized squares, each of side \(x\) inches, are cut from the four corners of the sheet. Finally, the four resulting sides are bent vertically upwards in the shape of a box. If \(x\) is an integer, then what value of \(x\) maximizes the volume of the box?

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2.4
  • (3) 3.1
  • (4) 4.2
Correct Answer: (3) 3.1
View Solution

Question 91:

If \(a\), \(a+2\) and \(a+4\) are prime numbers, then the number of possible solutions for \(a\) is:

  • (1) one
  • (2) two
  • (3) three
  • (4) more than three
Correct Answer: (1) one
View Solution

Question 92:

Let \(a\), \(b\), \(c\), and \(d\) be integers such that \(a = 6b\), \(a = 12c\), and \(2b = 9d = 12e\). Then which of the following pairs contains a number that is not an integer?

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{a}{27}, \frac{b}{e}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(\frac{a}{36}, \frac{c}{e}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{a}{12}, \frac{b}{18}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{a}{6}, \frac{c}{d}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\left(\frac{a}{27}, \frac{b}{e}\right)\)
View Solution

Question 93:

In a coastal village, every year floods destroy exactly half of the huts. After the flood water recedes, the same number of huts destroyed are rebuilt. The floods occurred consecutively in the last three years — 2001, 2002 and 2003. If floods are expected again in 2004, the number of huts expected to be destroyed is:

  • (1) less than the total number of huts destroyed at the beginning of 2001
  • (2) less than the total number of huts destroyed in 2001 and 2002
  • (3) exactly half the number of huts destroyed in 2002 and 2003
  • (4) more than the number of huts destroyed in 2002 and 2003
Correct Answer: (1) less than the total number of huts destroyed at the beginning of 2001
View Solution

Question 94:

What is the smallest positive integer \(n\) such that \(g^n = e\)?

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (4) 3
View Solution

Question 95:

Upon simplification, \(f \circ f \circ f \circ (f \circ (f \circ f))\) equals:

  • (1) e
  • (2) f
  • (3) g
  • (4) h
Correct Answer: (2) f
View Solution

Question 96:

Upon simplification, \(a^{10} \circ (f \circ (g \circ g)) \circ e^8\) equals:

  • (1) e
  • (2) f
  • (3) g
  • (4) h
Correct Answer: (1) e
View Solution

Question 97:

How many strings of letters can possibly be formed using the above rules?

  • (1) 40
  • (2) 45
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 35
Correct Answer: (3) 30
View Solution

Question 98:

How many strings of letters can possibly be formed using the above rules such that the third letter of the string is e?

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 11
Correct Answer: (1) 8
View Solution

Question 99:

Let \(x\) and \(y\) be positive integers such that \(x\) is prime and \(y\) is composite. Then,

  • (1) \(1 - y - x\) cannot be an even integer
  • (2) \(xy\) cannot be an even integer
  • (3) \(\frac{x + y}{x}\) cannot be an even integer
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{x + y}{x}\) cannot be an even integer
View Solution

Question 100:

A survey on a sample of 25 new cars being sold at a local auto dealer was conducted to see which of the three popular options — air conditioning, radio and power windows were already installed. Following were the observation of the survey:


I. 15 had air conditioning

II. 2 had air conditioning and power windows but no radios

III. 12 had radio

IV. 6 had air conditioning and radio but no power windows

V. 11 had power windows

VI. 4 had radio and power windows

VII. 3 had all three options


What is the number of cars that had none of the options?

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (2) 3
View Solution

Question 101:

The athletes from FRG and USA decided to run a 4 × 100 m relay race for their respective countries with the country having three athletes borrowing the athlete from CZE. Assume that all the athletes run their stretch of the relay race at the same speed as in Decathlon event. How much more time did the FRG relay team take as compared to the USA team?

  • (1) 0.18
  • (2) 0.28
  • (3) 0.38
  • (4) 0.78
Correct Answer: (2) 0.28
View Solution

Question 102:

What is the least that Daley Thompson must get in Score-2 that ensures him a bronze medal?

  • (1) 1.5309
  • (2) 2.5296
  • (3) 3.5271
  • (4) 4.5270
Correct Answer: (3) 3.5271
View Solution

Question 103:

At least how many competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) must Michael Smith have out-jumped in the long jump event?

  • (1) One
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Four
Correct Answer: (2) Two
View Solution

Question 104:

In which year during the period 1996-1999 was Chaidesh’s export of tea, as a proportion of tea produced, the highest?

  • (1) 1996
  • (2) 1997
  • (3) 1998
  • (4) 1999
Correct Answer: (2) 1997
View Solution

Question 105:

In which of the following years was the population of Chaidesh the lowest?

  • (1) 1995
  • (2) 1996
  • (3) 1997
  • (4) 1999
Correct Answer: (1) 1995
View Solution

Question 106:

The area under tea cultivation continuously decreased in all four years from 1996 to 1999, by 10%, 7%, 4%, and 1%, respectively. In which year was tea productivity (production per unit of area) the highest?

  • (1) 1999
  • (2) 1998
  • (3) 1997
  • (4) 1996
Correct Answer: (1) 1999
View Solution

Question 107:

Let us suppose that one bag of cement (50 kg) consumes 100 kg of limestone and 10 units of power. The only other cost item in producing cement is in the form of wages. During 1993-94, limestone, power and wages contributed, respectively, 20%, 25% and 15% to the cement price per bag. The average operating profit (per cent of price per cement bag) earned by a cement manufacturer during 2002-03 is closest to:

  • (1) 40%
  • (2) 39.5%
  • (3) 38.5%
  • (4) 37.5%
Correct Answer: (3) 38.5%
View Solution

Question 108:

Steel manufacturing requires the use of iron ore, power and manpower. The cost of iron ore has followed the All Items index. During 1993-94 power accounted for 30% of the selling price of steel, iron ore for 25%, and wages for 10% of the selling price of steel. Assuming the cost and price data for cement as given in the previous question, the operating profit (per cent of selling price) of an average steel manufacturer in 2002-03 is:

  • (1) more than that of a cement manufacturer
  • (2) less than that of a cement manufacturer
  • (3) is the same as that of a cement manufacturer
  • (4) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (2) less than that of a cement manufacturer
View Solution

Question 109:

Which item experienced continuous price rise during the ten-year period?

  • (1) Power
  • (2) Cement
  • (3) Wages
  • (4) Limestone
Correct Answer: (1) Power
View Solution

Question 110:

Which item(s) experienced only one decline in price during the ten-year period?

  • (1) Steel and limestone
  • (2) Steel and timber
  • (3) Timber and wages
  • (4) Timber and iron ore
Correct Answer: (3) Timber and wages
View Solution

Question 111:

In the consolidated list, what would be the overall rank of the Philippines?

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 33
  • (3) 34
  • (4) 35
Correct Answer: (3) 34
View Solution

Question 112:

In the consolidated list, how many countries would rank below Spain and above Taiwan?

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (2) 8
View Solution

Question 113:

In the consolidated list, which country ranks 37th?

  • (1) South Africa
  • (2) Brazil
  • (3) Turkey
  • (4) Venezuela
Correct Answer: (2) Brazil
View Solution

Question 114:

In the consolidated list, how many countries in Asia will rank lower than every country in South America, but higher than at least one country in Africa?

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (3) 6
View Solution

Question 115:

Which of the following statements is correct?

  • (1) November rainfall exceeds 100 cm in each location.
  • (2) September rainfall exceeds 50 cm in each location.
  • (3) March rainfall is lower than September rainfall in each location.
  • (4) None of these.
Correct Answer: (4) None of these.
View Solution

Question 116:

Locations 6 and 7 differ from all the rest because only in these two locations,

  • (1) April rainfall exceeds March rainfall.
  • (2) Peak rainfall occurs in April.
  • (3) November rainfall is lower than March rainfall.
  • (4) April rainfall is less than 200 cm.
Correct Answer: (1) April rainfall exceeds March rainfall.
View Solution

Question 117:

During 1996-2002, the number of commodities that exhibited a net overall increase and net overall decrease, respectively were:

  • (1) 3 and 3
  • (2) 2 and 4
  • (3) 3 and 4
  • (4) 5 and 1
Correct Answer: (3) 3 and 4
View Solution

Question 118:

The number of commodities that experienced a price decline for two or more consecutive years is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (2) 3
View Solution

Question 119:

For which commodities did a price increase immediately follow a price decline only once in this period?

  • (1) Rice, edible oil and dal
  • (2) Egg and dal
  • (3) Onion only
  • (4) Egg and onion
Correct Answer: (4) Egg and onion
View Solution

Question 120:

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

  • (1) The company with the third lowest profitability in F.Y. 2001-02 has the lowest operating income in F.Y. 2002-03.
  • (2) The company with the highest operating income in the two financial years combined has the lowest operating profit in F.Y. 2002-03.
  • (3) Companies with a higher operating income in F.Y. 2001-02 than in F.Y. 2002-03 have higher profitability in F.Y. 2002-03 than in F.Y. 2001-02.
  • (4) Companies with profitability between 10% and 20% in F.Y. 2001-02 also have operating incomes between 150 crore and 200 crore in F.Y. 2002-03.
Correct Answer: (3) Companies with a higher operating income in F.Y. 2001-02 than in F.Y. 2002-03 have higher profitability in F.Y. 2002-03 than in F.Y. 2001-02.
View Solution

Question 121:

Which company recorded the highest operating profit in F.Y. 2002-03?

  • (1) A
  • (2) C
  • (3) E
  • (4) F
Correct Answer: (1) A
View Solution

Question 122:

What is the approximate average operating profit, in F.Y. 2001-02, of the two companies excluded from the third chart?

  • (1) -7.5 crore
  • (2) 2.5 crore
  • (3) 3.25 crore
  • (4) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (2) 2.5 crore
View Solution

Question 123:

The average operating profit in F.Y. 2002-03 of companies with profitability exceeding 10% in F.Y. 2002-03, is approximately:

  • (1) 17.5 crore
  • (2) 25 crore
  • (3) 27.5 crore
  • (4) 32.5 crore
Correct Answer: (3) 27.5 crore
View Solution

Question 124:

The two states which achieved the largest increases in sex ratio over the period 1901-2001 are:

  • (1) Punjab and HP
  • (2) HP and Kerala
  • (3) Assam and J & K
  • (4) Kerala and J & K
Correct Answer: (2) HP and Kerala
View Solution

Question 125:

Among the states which have a sex ratio exceeding 1000 in 1901, the sharpest decline over the period 1901-2001 was registered in the state of:

  • (1) Goa
  • (2) TN
  • (3) Bihar
  • (4) Orissa
Correct Answer: (3) Bihar
View Solution

Question 126:

Each of the following statements pertains to the number of states with females outnumbering males in a given census year. Which of these statements is NOT correct?

  • (1) This number never exceeded 5 in any census year.
  • (2) This number registered its sharpest decline in 1971.
  • (3) The number of consecutive censuses in which this number remained unchanged never exceeded 3.
  • (4) Prior to the 1971 census, this number was never less than 4.
Correct Answer: (4) Prior to the 1971 census, this number was never less than 4.
View Solution

Question 127:

Congress procession can be allowed

  • (1) only on Thursday
  • (2) only on Friday
  • (3) on either day
  • (4) only if the religious procession is cancelled
Correct Answer: (3) on either day
View Solution

Question 128:

Which of the following is NOT true?

  • (1) Congress and SP can take out their processions on the same day.
  • (2) The CPM procession cannot be allowed on Thursday.
  • (3) The BJP procession can only take place on Friday.
  • (4) Congress and BSP can take out their processions on the same day.
Correct Answer: (4) Congress and BSP can take out their processions on the same day.
View Solution

Question 129:

In a cricket match, the ‘Man of the Match’ award is given to the player scoring the highest number of runs. In case of a tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has taken the higher number of catches is chosen. Even thereafter if there is a tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has dropped fewer catches is selected. Aakash, Biplab, and Chirag who were contenders for the award dropped at least one catch each. Biplab dropped two catches more than Aakash did, scored 50, and took two catches. Chirag got two chances to catch and dropped both. Who was the ‘Man of the Match’?


% Statement A
A. Chirag made 15 runs less than both Aakash and Biplab.

% Statement B
B. The catches dropped less by Biplab are 1 more than the catches taken by Aakash.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 130:

Four friends — A, B, C, and D got the top four ranks in a competitive examination, but A did not get the first, B did not get the second, C did not get the third, and D did not get the fourth rank. Who secured which rank?


% Statement A
A. Neither A nor D were among the first 2.

% Statement B
B. Neither B nor C was third or fourth.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 131:

The members of a local club contributed equally to pay Rs. 600 towards a donation. How much did each one pay?


% Statement A
A. If there had been five fewer members, each one would have paid an additional Rs. 10.

% Statement B
B. There were at least 20 members in the club, and each one paid not more than Rs. 30.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 132:

A family has only one kid. The father says, “After ‘n’ years, my age will be 4 times the age of my kid.” The mother says, “After ‘n’ years, my age will be 3 times that of my kid.” What will be the combined ages of the parents after ‘n’ years?


% Statement A
A. The age difference between the parents is 10 years.

% Statement B
B. After ‘n’ years the kid is going to be twice as old as she is now.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 133:

Which one among the following must have two sources?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (2) B
View Solution

Question 134:

How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer-keys before C could make his answer-key?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Question 135:

Both G and H were sources to:

  • (1) F
  • (2) B
  • (3) I
  • (4) None of the nine
Correct Answer: (1) F
View Solution

Question 136:

Which of the following statements is true?

  • (1) C introduced the wrong answer to question 27.
  • (2) E introduced the wrong answer to question 46.
  • (3) F introduced the wrong answer to question 14.
  • (4) H introduced the wrong answer to question 46.
Correct Answer: (2) E introduced the wrong answer to question 46.
View Solution

Question 137:

Which two groups of people had identical sources?

I. A, D and G

II. E and H

  • (1) Only I
  • (2) Only II
  • (3) Neither I nor II
  • (4) Both I and II
Correct Answer: (4) Both I and II
View Solution

Question 138:

Seventy percent of the employees in a multinational corporation have VCD players, 75% have microwave ovens, 80% have ACS and 85% have washing machines. At least what percentage of employees has all four gadgets?

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 10
  • (4) Cannot be determined
    % Answer \textbf{Answer:} 2
Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 139:

Who among the following arrived third?

  • (1) Shanthi
  • (2) Sridevi
  • (3) Anita
  • (4) Joya
Correct Answer: (2) Sridevi
View Solution

Question 140:

Name the correct pair of husband and wife.

  • (1) Raj and Shanthi
  • (2) Sunil and Sridevi
  • (3) Anil and Sridevi
  • (4) Raj and Anita
Correct Answer: (2) Sunil and Sridevi
View Solution

Question 141:

Of the following pairs, whose daughters go to the same school?

  • (1) Anil and Raman
  • (2) Sunil and Raman
  • (3) Sunil and Anil
  • (4) Raj and Anil
Correct Answer: (3) Sunil and Anil
View Solution

Question 142:

Whose family is known to have more than one kid for certain?

  • (1) Raman's
  • (2) Raj's
  • (3) Anil's
  • (4) Sunil's
Correct Answer: (3) Anil's
View Solution

Question 143:

Based on the responses, which of the two, JP or DG, entered the lounge first?

  • (1) JP
  • (2) DG
  • (3) Both entered together
  • (4) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (1) JP
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Question 144:

Who was sitting with JC when JP entered the lounge?

  • (1) SS
  • (2) SM
  • (3) DG
  • (4) PK
Correct Answer: (2) SM
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Question 145:

How many of the seven members did VR meet on Friday in the lounge?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (4) 5
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Question 146:

Who were the last two faculty members to leave the lounge?

  • (1) JC and DG
  • (2) PK and DG
  • (3) JP and PK
  • (4) JP and DG
Correct Answer: (1) JC and DG
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Question 147:

If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (1) A
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Question 148:

Whose office faces A's office?

  • (1) B
  • (2) C
  • (3) D
  • (4) E
Correct Answer: (2) C
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Question 149:

Who is/are F's neighbour(s)?

  • (1) A only
  • (2) A and D
  • (3) C only
  • (4) B and C
Correct Answer: (2) A and D
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Question 150:

D was heard telling someone to go further down the corridor to the last office on the right. To whose room was he trying to direct that person?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) F
Correct Answer: (4) F
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Also Check:

CAT 2003 Paper Analysis

The below-mentioned table displays the analysis of CAT question paper 2003:

Section Topics No. Of Questions Suggested Time Possible Attempts Possible Scores
1 QA 50 40 min 18-20 16-18
2 VARC 50 35-40 min 28-32 22-24
3 DILR 50 40-45 min 22-24 18-20
Total - 150 120 min 70-75 60-62

CAT 2003 QA Paper Analysis

Go through the below-mentioned table showing the details of QA section based on the number of questions asked-

  • The Arithmetic section carried the maximum weightage in the QA section.
  • Time, Speed, Distance, and Maxima/Minima carried the least weightage.
Topics No. Of Questions
Arithmetic 15
Number System 11
TDS/Time and Work 1
Percentages, SI, CI, and PLD 2
Ratio & Proportion, Pipes 1
Algebra 13
Equations and Inequalities 7
Progressions 2
Functions 3
Maxima/Minima 1

CAT Question Papers of Other Years

Other MBA Exam Question Papers