JEE Main 2023 6 April Shift 2 Question Paper is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2023 6 April Shift 2 from 3 PM to 6 PM. Candidates can download the official JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF with Solution and Answer Key for 6 April Shift 2 using the link below.

JEE Main 2023 6 April Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions and Answer Key PDF

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JEE Main 2023 Questions with Solutions

Mathematics
Section – A

Question 1:

If gcd \( (m, n) = 1 \) and \[ 1^2 - 2^2 + 3^2 - 4^2 + \cdots + (2022)^2 - (2023)^2 = 1012 \, m^2 n \]
then \( m^2 - n^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 180
  • (2) 220
  • (3) 200
  • (4) 240

Question 2:

The area bounded by the curves \( y = |x - 1| + |x - 2| \) and \( y = 3 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (2) 4
View Solution



The given equation for \( y \) is \( y = |x - 1| + |x - 2| \). The graph of \( y \) intersects the line \( y = 3 \) at certain points, forming a bounded area.





The area can be calculated by finding the points of intersection of the curves and calculating the area between them. After calculating, we find the area is 4 square units. Quick Tip: To calculate areas between curves involving absolute values, break the integral into parts corresponding to the intervals where the expressions inside the absolute values are positive or negative.


Question 3:

For the system of equations

x + y + z = 6

x + 2y + z = 10

x + 3y + 5z = \(\beta\)

which one of the following is NOT true:

  • (1) System has a unique solution for \( \alpha = 3, \beta \neq 14 \)
  • (2) System has a unique solution for \( \alpha = -3, \beta = 14 \)
  • (3) System has no solution for \( \alpha = 3, \beta = 24 \)
  • (4) System has infinitely many solutions for \( \alpha = 3, \beta = 14 \)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Given the system of equations, we need to analyze the determinant of the coefficient matrix to determine the nature of the solution.

The system is represented by:
\[ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1
1 & 2 & 1
1 & 3 & 5 \end{pmatrix} \]

The determinant of this matrix is calculated as:
\[ \Delta = \left| \begin{matrix} 1 & 1 & 1
1 & 2 & 1
1 & 3 & 5 \end{matrix} \right| \] \[ \Delta = 6(10 - 3\alpha) - (50 - \alpha13) + (30 - 2\beta) \] \[ = 40 - 18\alpha + \alpha\beta - 2\beta \]

For infinite solutions, we get \( \Delta = 0 \), and after solving:
\[ \Delta = 0, \, \Delta x = \Delta y = \Delta z = 0 \]

The value of \( \alpha = 3 \) and \( \beta = 14 \).

For a unique solution, \( \alpha \neq 3 \).

Thus, the correct answer is Option 1. Quick Tip: For systems of equations, the determinant of the coefficient matrix indicates whether the system has a unique solution (non-zero determinant) or infinitely many solutions (zero determinant).


Question 4:

Among the statements:

(S1): \( (\phi \implies \psi) \vee (\neg \phi \implies \psi) \) is a tautology.

(S2): \( (\psi \implies \phi) \implies (\neg \phi \implies \psi) \) is a contradiction.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Only (S2) is True
  • (2) Only (S1) is True
  • (3) Neither (S1) nor (S2) is True
  • (4) Both (S1) and (S2) are True
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution










For statement (S1), the logical expression \( (\phi \implies \psi) \vee (\neg \phi \implies \psi) \) is a tautology because it always holds true for any truth values of \( \phi \) and \( \psi \).
For statement (S2), \( (\psi \implies \phi) \implies (\neg \phi \implies \psi) \) is indeed a contradiction because it does not hold true in any case.
Hence, neither (S1) nor (S2) is true, so the correct answer is option (3). Quick Tip: To identify tautologies and contradictions, construct truth tables for logical expressions and check the validity of the statements.


Question 5:

\(lim_{n} \to \infty \left\{ \left( \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^3} \right) \left( \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^5} \right) \cdots \left( \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^{2n+1}} \right) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (4) 0
View Solution



We are given the product of terms:
\[ P = lim_{n} \to \infty \left\{ \left( \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^3} \right) \left( \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^5} \right) \cdots \left( \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^{2n+1}} \right) \]

First, we analyze the behavior of each term in the product. The smallest term in the product is:
\[ \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^3} \quad and the largest term is \quad \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^{2n+1}} \]

The product is bounded as:
\[ \left( \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^3} \right)^n \leq P \leq \left( \frac{1}{2^2 - 2^{2n+1}} \right)^n \]

The sequence is bounded between 0 and 1. Therefore, the limit of the product as \( n \to \infty \) is 0.

Thus, the final answer is:
\[ P = 0 \] Quick Tip: For infinite products, analyze the smallest and largest terms to determine the behavior of the product as \( n \to \infty \).


Question 6:

Let P be a square matrix such that \(P^2 = I - P\). For \(\alpha, \beta, \gamma, \delta \in \mathbb{N}\), if \(P\alpha + P\beta = \gamma I - 29P\) and \(P\alpha - P\beta = \delta I - 13P\), then \(\alpha + \beta + \gamma - \delta\) is equal to:

  • (A) 40
  • (B) 22
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 18
Correct Answer: (3) 24
View Solution



We are given that \(P^2 = I - P\), so we start by manipulating the equations involving \(\alpha\), \(\beta\), \(\gamma\), and \(\delta\).


From the given equations: \[ P\alpha + P\beta = \gamma I - 29P \] \[ P\alpha - P\beta = \delta I - 13P \]
Add these two equations: \[ 2P\alpha = (\gamma I - 29P) + (\delta I - 13P) \]
Simplifying: \[ 2P\alpha = (\gamma + \delta)I - 42P \]
This gives the relation between \(\alpha\), \(\gamma\), and \(\delta\).

Now subtract the second equation from the first: \[ 2P\beta = (\gamma I - 29P) - (\delta I - 13P) \]
Simplifying: \[ 2P\beta = (\gamma - \delta)I - 16P \]
This gives the relation between \(\beta\), \(\gamma\), and \(\delta\).


Next, solving for \(\alpha + \beta + \gamma - \delta\), we find: \[ \alpha = 8, \quad \beta = 6, \quad \gamma = 18, \quad \delta = 8 \]
Thus: \[ \alpha + \beta + \gamma - \delta = 8 + 6 + 18 - 8 = 24 \] Quick Tip: In problems involving matrices, always try to use matrix identities and properties like \(P^2 = I - P\) to simplify the given equations. Look for relationships between the variables to reduce complexity.


Question 7:

A plane P contains the line of intersection of the plane \(\vec{r}.(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}) = 6\) and \(\vec{r}.(2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+4\hat{k}) = -5\). If P passes through the point (0, 2, -2), then the square of distance of the point (12, 12, 18) from the plane P is:

  • (1) 620
  • (2) 1240
  • (3) 310
  • (4) 155

Question 8:

Let \(f(x)\) be a function satisfying \(f(x) + f(\pi - x) = \pi^2\), for all \(x \in \mathbb{R}\). Then \(\int_0^{\pi} f(x)\sin x \, dx\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi^2}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\pi^2\)
  • (3) \(2\pi^2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi^2}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\pi^2\)
View Solution



We start with the given equation: \[ I = \int_0^{\pi} f(x)\sin x \, dx \quad (1) \]
By applying the property of the function, we get: \[ I = \int_0^{\pi} f(\pi - x)\sin (\pi - x) \, dx = \int_0^{\pi} f(\pi - x) \sin x \, dx \quad (2) \]
Adding (1) and (2): \[ 2I = \int_0^{\pi} \left( f(x) + f(\pi - x) \right) \sin x \, dx \]
Substituting \(f(x) + f(\pi - x) = \pi^2\): \[ 2I = \int_0^{\pi} \pi^2 \sin x \, dx \]
Thus, \[ 2I = \pi^2 \int_0^{\pi} \sin x \, dx = \pi^2 \times 2 \]
So, \[ I = \pi^2 \] Quick Tip: In integral problems involving symmetry, try transforming the limits and using the properties of the functions.


Question 9:

If the coefficients of \(x^7\) in \(\left( ax^2 + \frac{1}{2} bx \right)^{11}\) and \(x^7\) in \(\left( ax - \frac{1}{3} bx^2 \right)\) are equal, then:

  • (1) 64ab = 243
  • (2) 32ab = 729
  • (3) 729ab = 32
  • (4) 243ab = 64
Correct Answer: (3) 729ab = 32
View Solution



The general form of the coefficient of \(x^7\) in \(\left( ax^2 + \frac{1}{2} bx \right)^{11}\) is obtained by using the binomial expansion: \[ r = \frac{11 \times 2 - 7}{3} = 5 \]
Thus, the coefficient of \(x^7\) is given by: \[ Coefficient of x^7 = \binom{11}{6} a^5 \left(\frac{1}{2}b\right)^6 \]
Similarly, for \(\left( ax - \frac{1}{3} bx^2 \right)\), the coefficient of \(x^7\) is: \[ Coefficient of x^7 = \binom{11}{6} a^5 \left(\frac{1}{3}b\right)^6 \]
Equating the two coefficients, we get: \[ ab = \frac{25}{36} \]
Thus, \[ 729ab = 32 \] Quick Tip: When dealing with binomial expansions, carefully apply the binomial theorem to find the desired term. Don't forget to adjust powers of the terms accordingly.


Question 10:

If the tangents at the points P and Q on the circle \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x + y = 5\) meet at the point \(R\left(\frac{9}{4}, 2\right)\), then the area of triangle PQR is:

  • (1) \(\frac{13}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{13}{8}\)

Question 11:

Three dice are rolled. If the probability of getting different numbers on the three dice is \(\frac{p}{q}\), where \(p\) and \(q\) are co-prime, then \(q - p\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 3

Question 12:

In a group of 100 persons, 75 speak English and 40 speak Hindi. Each person speaks at least one of the two languages. If the number of persons, who speak only English is \(\alpha\) and the number of persons who speak only Hindi is \(\beta\), then the eccentricity of the ellipse \(25\left(\beta^2 x^2 + \alpha^2 y^2 \right) = \alpha \beta^2\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{129}}{12}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{117}}{12}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{119}}{12}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{15}}{12}\)

Question 13:

If the solution curve \(f(x, y)\) of the differential equation \((1 + \log x)\frac{dx}{dy} - x \log x = e^y\), \(x > 0\), passes through the points \((1, 0)\) and \((\alpha, 2)\), then \(\alpha^4\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(e^{2e^2}\)
  • (2) \(e^{e^2}\)
  • (3) \(e^{e^e}\)
  • (4) \(e^{2e^2}\)

Question 14:

Let the sets \(A\) and \(B\) denote the domain and range respectively of the function \(f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{|x|}-x}\), where \([x]\) denotes the smallest integer greater than or equal to \(x\). Then among the statements:

  • (1) \(A \cap B = (1, \infty) - N\)
  • (2) \(A \cup B = (1, \infty)\)
  • (3) only (S1) is true
  • (4) both (S1) and (S2) are true

Question 15:

Let \(a \neq b\) be two non-zero real numbers. Then the number of elements in the set \( X = \{z \in \mathbb{C}: \Re(a z^2 + b z) = a and \Re(b z^2 + a z) = b\} \) is equal to:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (1) 0
View Solution



We are given the conditions for the real and imaginary parts of \( z \). Let \( z = x + iy \), where \( x \) and \( y \) are real numbers. By solving the equations for the real parts, we arrive at the conditions: \[ (a z^2 + b z) + (a \overline{z}^2 + b \overline{z}) = 2a x \]
By solving further, we find that the system has no solutions that satisfy the conditions, hence there are 0 solutions. Quick Tip: When dealing with equations involving complex numbers, break them into real and imaginary parts to solve for the unknowns systematically.


Question 16:

The sum of all values of \(\alpha\), for which the points whose position vectors are \(\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\), \(2\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}\), \((\alpha + 1)\hat{i} + 2\hat{k}\) and \(\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}\) are coplanar, is equal to:

  • (1) -2
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 4

Question 17:

Let the line \(L\) pass through the point \( (0, 1, 2) \), intersect the line \(\frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y-2}{3} = \frac{z-3}{4}\) and be parallel to the plane \(2x + y - 3z = 4\). Then the distance of the point \(P(1, -9, 2)\) from the line \(L\) is:

  • (1) 9
  • (2) \(\sqrt{54}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{69}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{74}\)

Question 18:

All the letters of the word PUBLIC are written in all possible orders and these words are written as in a dictionary with serial numbers. Then the serial number of the word PUBLIC is:

  • (1) 580
  • (2) 578
  • (3) 576
  • (4) 582

Question 19:

Let the vectors \(\mathbf{a}, \mathbf{b}, \mathbf{c}\) represent three coterminous edges of a parallelepiped of volume \(V\). Then the volume of the parallelepiped, whose coterminous edges are represented by \(\mathbf{a} + \mathbf{b} + \mathbf{c}\) and \(\mathbf{a} + 2\mathbf{b} + 3\mathbf{c}\), is equal to:

  • (1) \(2V\)
  • (2) \(6V\)
  • (3) \(3V\)
  • (4) \(V\)

Question 20:

Among the statements:

(S1): \(2023^{2022} - 1999^{2022}\) is divisible by 8

(S2): \(13(13^{n} - 1) - 13\) is divisible by 144 for infinitely many \(n \in \mathbb{N}\)

Then:

  • (1) only (S1) is correct
  • (2) only (S2) is correct
  • (3) both (S1) and (S2) are incorrect
  • (4) both (S1) and (S2) are correct

Section – B

Question 21:

The value of \(\tan 9^\circ - \tan 27^\circ - \tan 63^\circ + \tan 81^\circ\) is ____ :


Question 22:

If \( (20)^{19} + 2(21)(20)^{18} + 3(21)^2 (20)^{17} + \cdots + 20(21)^{19} = k(20)^{19}\), then \(k\) is equal to ____:


Question 23:

Let the eccentricity of an ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\) be reciprocal to that of the hyperbola \(2x^2 - 2y^2 = 1\). If the ellipse intersects the hyperbola at right angles, then square of the length of the latus-rectum of the ellipse is ____:


Question 24:

For \(\alpha, \beta, Z \in \mathbb{C}\) and \(\lambda > 1\), if \(\sqrt{-1}\) is the radius of the circle \(|z - \alpha|^2 + |z - \beta|^2 = 2\lambda\), then \(|\alpha - \beta|\) is equal to:

Correct Answer: (2) 4
View Solution



Using the given conditions, we find: \[ |\alpha - \beta| = 2\lambda \]
Thus, \(\lambda = 2\) and \(|\alpha - \beta| = 4\). Quick Tip: For geometric problems involving complex numbers, break them down into distance and radius calculations for clarity.


Question 25:

Let a curve \(y = f(x)\), \(x \in (0, \infty)\) pass through the points \(P(1, \frac{3}{2})\) and \(Q(a, \frac{1}{2})\). If the tangent at any point R \((b, f(b))\) to the given curve cuts the y-axis at the points S(0, c) such that \(bc = 3\), then \(PQ^2\) is equal to ____:


Question 26:

If the lines \(\frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y-3}{-3} = \frac{z-3}{\alpha}\) and \(\frac{x-4}{5} = \frac{y-1}{2} = \frac{z}{\beta}\) intersect, then the magnitude of the minimum value of \(8\alpha\beta\) is :


Question 27:

Let \( f(x) = \frac{x}{1+x^n} \), \(x \in \mathbb{R} - \{ -1 \}\), \(n \in \mathbb{N}, n > 2\). If \(f^n(x) = n(f(f(\cdots f(x))))(x)\), then \(\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^1 x^{n-2} (f^n(x)) \, dx\) is equal to:

Correct Answer: (1) 0
View Solution



We are given a function and need to compute the integral. Using limit and series expansion: \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^1 x^{n-2} (f^n(x)) \, dx = 0 \] Quick Tip: For integrals involving powers of \(x\), remember that for large \(n\), the integrals typically tend towards 0 for small values of \(x\).


Question 28:

If the mean and variance of the frequency distribution:




are 9 and 15.08 respectively, then the value of \(\alpha^2 + \beta^2 - \alpha\beta\) is:


Question 29:

The number of points, where the curve \( y = x^5 - 20x^3 + 50x + 2 \) crosses the x-axis is :


Question 30:

The number of 4-letter words, with or without meaning, each consisting of 2 vowels and 2 consonants, which can be formed from the letters of the word UNIVERSE without repetition is :


Physics
Section – A

Question 31:

The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K. If r.m.s. speed of gas at 200 K is \(v_0\), then the r.m.s. speed of the gas at 800 K will be:

  • (1) \(4v_0\)
    (2) \(2v_0\)
    (3) \(v_0\)
    (4) \(\frac{v_0}{4}\)

Question 32:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The phase difference of two light waves change if they travel through different media having same thickness, but different indices of refraction.

Reason R: The wavelengths of waves are different in different media.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    (2) A is not correct but R is correct
    (3) A is correct but R is not correct
    (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Question 33:

For an amplitude modulated wave, the minimum amplitude is 3 V, while the modulation index is 60%. The maximum amplitude of the modulated wave is:

  • (1) 10 V
    (2) 12 V
    (3) 15 V
    (4) 5 V

Question 34:

The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to the speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same temperature is:

  • (1) 1 : 4
    (2) 1 : 2
    (3) 1 : 1
    (4) 4 : 1

Question 35:

A dipole comprises of two charged particles of identical magnitude \(q\) and opposite in nature. The mass \(m\) of the positive charged particle is half of the mass of the negative charged particle. The two charges are separated by a distance \(l\). If the dipole is placed in a uniform electric field \(E\), making a very small angle with the electric field, the angular frequency of the oscillations when released is given by:

  • (1) \( \frac{4qE}{3ml} \)
    (2) \( \frac{8qE}{ml} \)
    (3) \( \frac{8qE}{3ml} \)
    (4) \( \frac{4qE}{ml} \)

Question 36:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: When you squeeze one end of a tube to get toothpaste out from the other end, Pascal's principle is observed.

Reason R: A change in the pressure applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted undiminished to every portion of the fluid and to the walls of its container.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is correct but R is not correct
    (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    (3) A is not correct but R is correct
    (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Question 37:

A student is provided with a variable voltage source \(V\), a test resistor \(R_T = 10 \, \Omega\), two identical galvanometers \(G_1\) and \(G_2\), and two additional resistors, \(R_1 = 10M\Omega\) and \(R_2 = 0.001\Omega\). For conducting an experiment to verify ohm’s law, the most suitable circuit is:




Question 38:

A body cools in 7 minutes from 60°C to 40°C. The temperature of the surroundings is 10°C. The temperature of the body after the next 7 minutes is:

  • (1) 30°C
    (2) 34°C
    (3) 32°C
    (4) 28°C

Question 39:

The energy density associated with electric field \(E\) and magnetic field \(B\) of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by \(\epsilon_0\) - permittivity of free space, \(\mu_0\) - permeability of free space:

  • (1) \(U_E = \frac{\epsilon_0 E^2}{2}, U_B = \frac{B^2}{2\mu_0}\)
    (2) \(U_E = \frac{E^2}{2 \epsilon_0}, U_B = \frac{\mu_0 B^2}{2}\)
    (3) \(U_E = \frac{E^2}{2 \epsilon_0}, U_B = \frac{B^2}{2\mu_0}\)
    (4) \(U_E = \epsilon_0 \frac{E^2}{2}, U_B = \mu_0 \frac{B^2}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(U_E = \frac{\epsilon_0 E^2}{2}, U_B = \frac{B^2}{2 \mu_0}\)
View Solution



By theory of electromagnetic waves: \[ U_E = \frac{1}{2} \epsilon_0 E^2 \quad and \quad U_B = \frac{1}{2} \mu_0 B^2 \] Quick Tip: For energy density in electromagnetic waves, remember that the energy is shared equally between the electric and magnetic fields.


Question 40:

The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 100 N. The gravitational force on it when taken at a height, from the surface of earth, equal to one-fourth the radius of the earth is:

  • (1) 64 N
    (2) 25 N
    (3) 100 N
    (4) 50 N

Question 41:

A capacitor of capacitance 150.0 μF is connected to an alternating source of emf given by \(E = 36 \sin (120 \pi t)\) V. The maximum value of current in the circuit is approximately equal to:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2} A\)
    (2) \(2\sqrt{2} A\)
    (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} A\)
    (4) \(2A\)

Question 42:

A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0.2 cm is used to measure the locations of objects on an optical bench. While measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the object pin and the convex lens are placed at 80 cm mark and 1 m mark, respectively. The image of the object pin on the other side of lens coincides with image pin that is kept at 180 cm mark. The % error in the estimation of focal length is:

  • (1) 0.51
  • (2) 1.02
  • (3) 0.85
  • (4) 1.70

Question 43:

Figure shows a part of an electric circuit. The potentials at points a, b, and c are 30 V, 12 V, and 2 V respectively. The current through the 20 Ω resistor will be:


  • (1) 1.0 A
  • (2) 0.2 A
  • (3) 0.4 A
  • (4) 0.6 A

Question 44:

A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that its potential energy \( U = \frac{1}{2}m\omega^2 r^2 \) where \( \omega \) is constant and \( r \) is the distance of the particle from origin. Assuming Bohr's quantization of momentum and circular orbit, the radius of the nth orbit will be proportional to:

  • (1) \( n \)
  • (2) \( n^2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{n} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{n} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \sqrt{n} \)
View Solution



Using Bohr’s postulate: angular momentum \( L = mvr = \frac{nh}{2\pi} \).
Therefore: \[ m r \omega^2 = \frac{nh}{2\pi} \] \[ \Rightarrow r \propto \sqrt{n} \] Quick Tip: Bohr's model applies quantization of angular momentum to describe the radii of orbits in atomic systems. Use this principle to relate radius to quantum number \( n \).


Question 45:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude if the junction is forward biased.

Reason R: Diffusion currents in a p-n junction are from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward biased.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Question 46:

Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

  • (1) The linear speed of a planet revolving around the sun remains constant.
  • (2) The speed of satellite in a given circular orbit remains constant.
  • (3) When a body falls towards earth, the displacement of earth towards the body is negligible.
  • (4) For a planet revolving around the sun in an elliptical orbit, the total energy of the planet remains constant.

Question 47:

A child of mass 5 kg is going round a merry-go-round that makes 1 rotation in 3.14 s. The radius of the merry-go-round is 2 m. The centrifugal force on the child will be :

  • (1) 40 N
  • (2) 100 N
  • (3) 80 N
  • (4) 50 N

Question 48:

As shown in the figure, a particle is moving with constant speed \(\pi \, m/s\). Considering its motion from A to B, the magnitude of the average velocity is :




  • (1) \(\pi \, m/s\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{3} \, m/s\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{3} \, m/s\)
  • (4) \(1.5 \sqrt{3} \, m/s\)

Question 49:

The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are 4.1 eV and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1.24
  • (4) 1.5

Question 50:

A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10.0 m/s along x-direction and accelerates uniformly at the rate of 2.0 m/s\(^2\). The time taken by the particle to reach the velocity of 60.0 m/s is

  • (1) 3s
  • (2) 6s
  • (3) 25s
  • (4) 30s

Section – B

Question 51:

A simple pendulum with length 100 cm and bob of mass 250 g is executing S.H.M. of amplitude 10 cm. The maximum tension in the string is found to be \(\dfrac{x}{40}\) N. The value of \(x\) is


Question 52:

Experimentally it is found that 12.8 eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and an electron. So the orbital radius of the electron in a hydrogen atom is \(\dfrac{9}{x} \times 10^{-10}\) m. The value of \(x\) is


Question 53:

A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 7000 \(AA\) and 5500 \(AA\) is used to obtain interference pattern in Young's double slit experiment. The distance between the slits is 2.5 mm and the distance between the place of slits and the screen is 150 cm. The least distance from the central fringe, where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide, is \(n \times 10^{-5}\) m. The value of \(n\) is


Question 54:

Two concentric circular coils with radii 1 cm and 1000 cm, and number of turns 10 and 200 respectively are placed coaxially with centers coinciding. The mutual inductance of this arrangement will be ____ \(\times 10^8\) H.


Question 55:

As shown in the figure, two parallel plate capacitors having equal plate area of 200 cm\(^2\) are joined in such a way that \(\alpha \neq \beta\). The equivalent capacitance of the combination is \(x \varepsilon_0\) F. The value of \(x\) is



Question 56:

A proton with a kinetic energy of 2.0 eV moves into a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude \(\dfrac{\pi}{2} \times 10^{-3} T\). The angle between the direction of magnetic field and velocity of proton is 60°. The pitch of the helical path taken by the proton is ___ cm.


Question 57:

A body is dropped on ground from a height 'h\(_1\) and after hitting the ground, it rebounds to a height 'h\(_2\). If the ratio of velocities of the body just before and after hitting the ground is 4, then percentage loss in kinetic energy of the body is \(\frac{x}{4}\). The value of \(x\) is


Question 58:

A ring and a solid sphere rotating about an axis passing through their centers have the same radii of gyration. The axis of rotation is perpendicular to the plane of the ring. The ratio of radius of ring to that of sphere is \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{x}}\). The value of \(x\) is


Question 59:

As shown in the figure, the voltmeter reads 2V across a 5 \(\Omega\) resistor. The resistance of the voltmeter is ____ \(\Omega\).


Question 60:

A metal block of mass \(m\) is suspended from a rigid support through a metal wire of diameter 14 mm. The tensile stress developed in the wire under equilibrium state is \(7 \times 10^5 \, Nm^2\). The value of mass \(m\) is ____ kg.


Chemistry
Section – A

Question 61:

Match List I with List II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – II (D) – IV

(2) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – II (D) – III

(3) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – III (D) – II

(4) (A) – I, (B) – III, (C) – IV (D) – II


Question 62:

Formation of which complex, among the following, is not a confirmatory test of \( Pb^{2+} \) ions

(1) lead sulphate

(2) lead nitrate

(3) lead chromate

(4) lead iodide


Question 63:

The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M aqueous Ba(OH)\(_2\) is (Assume complete neutralization)

(1) 5.0 mL

(2) 10.0 mL

(3) 2.5 mL

(4) 7.5 mL


Question 64:

Group–13 elements react with \( O_2 \) in amorphous form to form oxides of type \( M_2O_3 \) (M = element). Which among the following is the most basic oxide?

(1) Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)

(2) Tl\(_2\)O\(_3\)

(3) Ga\(_2\)O\(_3\)

(4) B\(_2\)O\(_3\)


Question 65:

The IUPAC name of \( K_3[Co(C_2O_4)_3] \) is

(1) Potassium tris(oxalate) cobalte(III)

(2) Potassium trioxalatocobalt(III)

(3) Potassium tris(oxalate)cobalt(III)

(4) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III)

Correct Answer: (4) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III)
View Solution

The IUPAC name of \( K_3[Co(C_2O_4)_3] \) is Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III).
Correct Answer: (4) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III)
Quick Tip: When naming coordination compounds, the ligands are named first followed by the metal center. The oxidation state of the metal is included in parentheses in Roman numerals.


Question 66:

If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is \(a_0\), then de Broglie’s wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\pi a_0}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\pi a_0}{3}\)
  • (C) \(6\pi a_0\)
  • (D) \(3\pi a_0\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(6\pi a_0\)
View Solution

N/A Quick Tip: Use the De-Broglie relation \(2\pi r = n\lambda\) to find the wavelength of an electron in any orbit.


Question 67:

The group of chemicals used as pesticide is:

  • (A) Sodium chlorate, DDT, PAN
  • (B) DDT, Aldrin
  • (C) Aldrin, Sodium chlorate, Sodium arsenite
  • (D) Dieldrin, Sodium arsenite, Tetrachlorothene

Question 68:

From the figure of column chromatography given below, identify incorrect statements.



  • (A) Compound ‘c’ is more polar than ‘a’ and ‘b’
  • (B) Compound ‘a’ is least polar
  • (C) Compound ‘b’ comes out of the column before ‘c’ and after ‘a’
  • (D) Compound ‘a’ spends more time in the column
  • Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A, B and D only
  • (2) A, B and C only
  • (3) B and D only
  • (4) B, C and D only

Question 69:

Ion having highest hydration enthalpy among the given alkaline earth metal ions is:

  • (1) Be\(^{2+}\)
  • (2) Ba\(^{2+}\)
  • (3) Ca\(^{2+}\)
  • (4) Sr\(^{2+}\)

Question 70:

The strongest acid from the following is:




Question 71:

In the following reaction, ‘B’ is





Question 72:

Structures of BeCl\(_2\) in solid state, vapour phase and at very high temperature respectively are:

  • (1) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric
  • (2) Dimeric, Polymeric, Monomeric
  • (3) Monomeric, Dimeric, Polymeric
  • (4) Polymeric, Monomeric, Dimeric
Correct Answer: (1) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric
View Solution



In the solid state, BeCl\(_2\) exists as a polymer. In the vapour phase, it forms a chloro-bridged dimer. At very high temperatures (above 1200K), it exists as a monomer.
Quick Tip: BeCl\(_2\) is an example of a molecule whose structure changes depending on temperature, showcasing the effect of temperature on molecular structure.


Question 73:

Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown below:









Question 74:

The product, which is not obtained during the electrolysis of brine solution is:

  • (1) HCl
  • (2) NaOH
  • (3) Cl\(_2\)
  • (4) H\(_2\)

Question 75:

Which one of the following elements will remain as liquid inside pure boiling water?

  • (1) Li
  • (2) Ga
  • (3) Cs
  • (4) Br

Question 76:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as “Assertion A” and the other is labelled as “Reason R”

Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO)\(_4\) and Fe(CO)\(_5\), the metals have zero oxidation state.

Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of \(\pi\)-donor character in addition to the \(\sigma\)-bonding.

In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) A is not correct but R is correct.
  • (2) A is correct but R is not correct.
  • (3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Question 77:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic. It helps in relieving pain without producing sleep.

Statement II: Morphine and its derivatives are obtained from opium poppy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Question 78:

Find out the major product from the following reaction.





Question 79:

During the reaction of permanganate with thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of manganese occurs by value of 3. Identify which of the below medium will favour the reaction.

  • (1) aqueous neutral
  • (2) aqueous acidic
  • (3) both aqueous acidic and neutral
  • (4) both aqueous acidic and faintly alkaline

Question 80:

Element not present in Nessler’s reagent is

  • (1) K
  • (2) N
  • (3) I
  • (4) Hg

Section – B

Question 81:

The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half cells are given below:

NO\(_3^-\) + 4H\(^+\) + 3e\(^-\) \(\rightarrow\) NO(g) + 2H\(_2\)O \quad \(E^0 = 0.97 V\)

V\(^{2+}\) + 2e\(^-\) \(\rightarrow\) V  \(E^0 = -1.19 V\)

Fe\(^{3+}\) + 3e\(^-\) \(\rightarrow\) Fe \(E^0 = -0.04 V\)

Ag\(^+\) + e\(^-\) \(\rightarrow\) Ag(s) \(E^0 = 0.80 V\)

Au\(^{3+}\) + 3e\(^-\) \(\rightarrow\) Au(s) \(E^0 = 1.40 V\)

The number of metal(s) which will be oxidized by NO\(_3^-\) in aqueous solution is __________

Correct Answer:
View Solution



In the given half reactions, metals V, Fe, and Ag will be oxidized by NO\(_3^-\) because their reduction potentials are less than 0.97 V. Thus, three metals will be oxidized by NO\(_3^-\).
Quick Tip: When comparing reduction potentials, metals with lower reduction potentials are more easily oxidized.


Question 82:

Number of crystal system from the following where body centred unit cell can be found is ____

Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, rhombohedral, monoclinic, triclinic


Question 83:

Among the following the number of compounds which will give positive iodoform reaction is ___

(a) 1-Phenylbutan-2-one

(b) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol

(c) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol

(d) 1-Phenylethanol

(e) 3,3-dimethylbutan-2-one

(f) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol


Question 84:

Number of isomeric aromatic amines with molecular formula C\(_8\)H\(_11\)N, which can be synthesized by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis is_____


Question 85:

Consider the following pairs of solution which will be isotonic at the same temperature. The number of pairs of solutions is/are_____

A. 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. Urea

B. 1 M aq. CaCl\(_2\) and 1.5 M aq. KCl

C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl\(_3\) and 2 M aq. Na\(_2\)SO\(_4\)

D. 2.5 M aq. KCl and 1 M aq. Al\(_2\)(SO\(_4\))\(_3\)


Question 86:

The number of colloidal systems from the following, which will have ‘liquid’ as the dispersion medium, is_____

Gem stones, paints, smoke, cheese, milk, hair cream, milk, insecticide sprays, froth, soap lather


Question 87:

In an ice crystal, each water molecule is hydrogen bonded to_____ neighbouring molecules.


Question 88:

Consider the following data:

Heat of combustion of H\(_2\) (g) = -241.8 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)

Heat of combustion of C(s) = -393.5 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)

Heat of combustion of C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH(l) = -1234.7 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)

The heat of formation of C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH(l) is (-) _____ kJ mol\(^{-1}\) (Nearest integer).


Question 89:

The equilibrium composition for the reaction PCl\(_3\) + Cl\(_2\) ⇌ PCl\(_5\) at 298 K is given below:

[PCl\(_3\)] = 0.2 mol L\(^{-1}\), [Cl\(_2\)] = 0.1 mol L\(^{-1}\), [PCl\(_5\)] = 0.40 mol L\(^{-1}\)

If 0.2 mol of Cl\(_2\) is added at the same temperature, the equilibrium concentrations of PCl\(_5\) is _____ × 10\(^{-2}\) mol L\(^{-1}\).


Question 90:

The number of species having a square planar shape from the following is_____

XeF\(_4\), SF\(_4\), SiF\(_4\), BF\(_4\), BrF\(_4\), [Cu(NH\(_3\))\(_4\)]\(^{2+}\), [FeCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\), [PtCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)



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