JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is updated here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 4 April Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.
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JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution
Which of the following is the correct structure of L-Glucose?
How many structural isomers are there in \( C_7H_{16} \)?
Which of the following has the maximum dipole moment?
Which of the following shows only one oxidation state except its elemental state?
Number of species having sp3 hybridised central atom.
Number of complexes having even number of unpaired electrons in d-orbital.
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the question.
The question asks for the number of complexes that have an even number of unpaired electrons in their d-orbitals. These complexes contain transition metal ions with different oxidation states, and the electron configuration depends on the metal and its charge.
Step 2: Analyze the complexes.
For each of the given complexes, we calculate the number of unpaired electrons in the d-orbitals:
(Cu(H2O)6)²⁺: The copper ion in this complex is in the +2 oxidation state, with a d⁹ electron configuration. This gives 1 unpaired electron.
(Fe(H2O)6)³⁺: The iron ion is in the +3 oxidation state, with a d⁵ electron configuration. This gives 5 unpaired electrons.
(Cr(H2O)6)²⁺: The chromium ion is in the +2 oxidation state, with a d⁴ electron configuration. This gives 4 unpaired electrons.
(Ni(H2O)6)²⁺: The nickel ion is in the +2 oxidation state, with a d⁸ electron configuration. This gives 2 unpaired electrons.
Step 3: Conclusion.
The complexes that have an even number of unpaired electrons are [Cu(H2O)6]²⁺, [Cr(H2O)6]²⁺, and [Ni(H2O)6]²⁺, all having even numbers of unpaired electrons (1, 5, and 4 respectively). Therefore, the correct answer is (02.00).
Quick Tip: In transition metal complexes, the number of unpaired electrons can be calculated based on the electron configuration of the metal ion in a given oxidation state. An even number of unpaired electrons corresponds to a stable electron configuration in the context of d-orbitals.
If emf of hydrogen electrode at 25°C is zero in pure water then pressure of H2 in bar
Pressure v/s temperature graph of an ideal gas of equal number of moles of different density is given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the relationship.
The equation for an ideal gas is given by: \[ P = \frac{R \cdot P}{M} \cdot T \]
where \( P \) is the pressure, \( M \) is the molar mass, and \( T \) is the temperature.
Step 2: Analyzing the graph.
From the graph, we observe that as the density increases, the pressure increases at the same temperature. Thus, the slope of the graph will be greater for higher densities.
Step 3: Conclusion.
The graph shows that \( \rho_1 > \rho_2 > \rho_3 \), which indicates that the density of the gas decreases from \( \rho_1 \) to \( \rho_3 \). Therefore, the correct answer is (2) \( \rho_1 > \rho_2 > \rho_3 \).
Quick Tip: In pressure vs temperature graphs for ideal gases, the slope can provide information about the gas's density and other properties. Higher density results in steeper slopes at the same temperature.
Total number of species having single unpaired electron in NO-, CN-, O2-, O2, O22-.
Which of the following is the correct order of 1st ionisation enthalpy?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding ionisation enthalpy.
Ionisation enthalpy is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in the gaseous state. The trend in ionisation enthalpy is affected by atomic size and the effective nuclear charge.
Step 2: Analyzing the electronic configurations.
The electronic configurations of the elements are:
- B: 2s² 2p¹
- Be: 2s²
- O: 2s² 2p⁴
- F: 2s² 2p⁵
- N: 2s² 2p³
Step 3: Explanation of the trend.
The correct order of ionisation enthalpy is (2) because:
- B < Be: B has a higher atomic radius and lower ionisation enthalpy than Be.
- Be < O: O has a higher effective nuclear charge and thus a higher ionisation enthalpy than Be.
- O < F: F has a higher ionisation enthalpy than O because of its higher nuclear charge.
- F < N: N has a half-filled stable configuration, making it harder to ionise than F.
Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct order of 1st ionisation enthalpy is (2) B < Be < O < F < N.
Quick Tip: The ionisation enthalpy increases with an increase in effective nuclear charge and decreases with an increase in atomic radius. Elements with half-filled or fully-filled orbitals have higher ionisation enthalpies.
For any reaction \( K = \frac{K_1 K_2}{K_3} \) and \( E_a1 = 400, E_a2 = 300, E_a3 = 200 \), hence \( E_{overall} \)?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the equation.
We are given the equation for \( E_{overall} \): \[ E_{overall} = E_{a1} + E_{a2} - E_{a3} \]
Step 2: Applying the values.
Substituting the given values of \( E_{a1} = 400, E_{a2} = 300, E_{a3} = 200 \), we get: \[ E_{overall} = 400 + 300 - 200 = 500 \]
Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is (3) 500.
Quick Tip: The overall activation energy for a reaction is calculated by summing up the individual activation energies, considering the energy barriers for each step of the reaction.
If weight of NaCl in 500 ml aqueous solution is 5.85 gm, hence calculate the molarity?
2M, 2 ml solution of KMnO4 is neutralised with 20 ml H2C2O4. Calculate molarity of H2C2O4
View Solution
Step 1: Writing the balanced reaction.
The balanced reaction is: \[ MnO_4^- + C_2O_4^{2-} \rightarrow Mn^{2+} + CO_2 \]
Step 2: Using the stoichiometric relationships.
From the reaction, we know the stoichiometric coefficients:
- \( n_f \) for MnO4 = 5
- \( n_f \) for \(C_2O_4^{2-}\) = 2
The number of moles of KMnO4 is calculated using the formula: \[ moles of KMnO_4 = M \times V \] \[ moles of KMnO_4 = 2 \, M \times 2 \, mL = 4 \, mL \times 2 = 8 \, moles \]
Step 3: Conclusion.
The molarity of H2C2O4 is 0.5 M. Therefore, the correct answer is (00.50).
Quick Tip: Use stoichiometry to calculate the molarity of a substance by balancing the chemical reaction and considering the relationship between the species involved.
De-Broglie wavelength of electron in the 4th orbit of H-Atom is \( x \pi r_0 \), where \( r_0 \) is Bohr’s 1st orbit radius of H-Atom is
Among which of the following decreasing order of basic strength will be
(i) OH-, (ii) H-, (iii) HCOO-, (iv) CH3COO-, (v) —OR
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding basic strength.
Basic strength refers to the ability of a species to accept a proton (H+). The stronger the base, the more readily it accepts a proton.
Step 2: Analyzing the species.
- H- is a very strong base, it is a hydride ion.
- OR- is the alkoxide ion, which is also a strong base.
- OH- is a strong base but weaker than H- and OR-.
- CH3COO- is an acetate ion, which is weaker than OH- due to resonance stabilization.
- HCOO- is a formate ion, which is weaker than acetate due to its smaller resonance effect.
Step 3: Conclusion.
The order of basic strength is: \[ H^- > OR^- > OH^- > CH_3COO^- > HCOO^- \]
Thus, the correct answer is (2) II > V > I > III > IV.
Quick Tip: To determine basic strength, consider the ability of the species to donate electrons, the size of the ion, and resonance stabilization. The more electron-donating the species, the stronger the base.
What type of electrode is calomel?
Total number of elements which do not use all valence electrons in bonding as per their group number among them O, S, F, N, Al, C, Si
View Solution
Step 1: Identifying the valence electrons of each element.
The number of valence electrons for each element is as follows: \[ O = 6, \quad S = 6, \quad F = 7, \quad N = 5, \quad Al = 3, \quad C = 4, \quad Si = 4 \]
Step 2: Analyzing which elements do not use all of their valence electrons in bonding.
- Oxygen (O), Sulfur (S), and Fluorine (F) tend to form bonds using all their valence electrons.
- Nitrogen (N) does not use all of its valence electrons in bonding as it forms 3 bonds, leaving 1 lone pair.
- Aluminum (Al) does not use all of its valence electrons in bonding as it forms 3 bonds, leaving 0 lone pairs.
- Carbon (C) and Silicon (Si) form bonds using all their valence electrons (4 bonds each).
Step 3: Conclusion.
The elements that do not use all of their valence electrons in bonding are N, Al, and Si. Therefore, the correct answer is (03.00).
Quick Tip: To determine whether an element uses all its valence electrons in bonding, check the number of bonds it forms. If the number of bonds is less than the number of valence electrons, the element does not use all of its electrons.
Identify the suitable reagents X and Y for the given below reaction respectively.
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the reaction.
The reaction shown involves the conversion of a halogenated aromatic compound into another halogenated aromatic compound. The typical reagents for such reactions are used in nucleophilic substitution or elimination reactions.
Step 2: Identifying the reagents.
- Alcoholic NaOH/80°C is commonly used for elimination reactions, especially to form alkenes.
- HBr/CH₃COOH is used for electrophilic substitution, typically in the presence of an aromatic ring.
Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct reagents for this reaction are Alcoholic NaOH/80°C and HBr/CH₃COOH. Therefore, the correct answer is (3).
Quick Tip: Alcoholic NaOH is often used in elimination reactions to form alkenes, and HBr is used for electrophilic substitution in aromatic compounds.
Compare ligand strength of \( F^- \), \( OH^- \), \( SCN^- \), CO
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding ligand strength.
Ligand strength refers to the ability of a ligand to donate electrons to a central metal ion. The more electron-donating the ligand, the stronger it is. Ligands like \( CO \) are strong field ligands (SFL), while ligands like \( F^- \) are weak field ligands (WFL).
Step 2: Analyzing the order of ligand strength.
- \( CO \) is a strong field ligand and is the strongest ligand in this list.
- \( OH^- \) is a weaker ligand compared to \( CO \) but stronger than \( F^- \).
- \( SCN^- \) is a weaker ligand compared to \( OH^- \) and \( F^- \).
Thus, the correct order of ligand strength is \( CO > OH^- > F^- > SCN^- \).
Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is (1) \( CO > OH^- > F^- > SCN^- \).
Quick Tip: In ligand field theory, strong field ligands like \( CO \) are better electron donors compared to weak field ligands like \( F^- \).
Which of the following compound will not give the test of nitrogen by the help of Lassaigne’s extract?
K2MnO4 (alkaline medium) \(\rightarrow\) KMnO4 + MnO2
Find the sum of spin-only magnetic moment of central metal ion in both the products (nearest integer).
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the reaction.
The given reaction shows the conversion of \( K_2MnO_4 \) in alkaline medium to \( KMnO_4 \) and \( MnO_2 \). We need to find the sum of the spin-only magnetic moment of the central metal ion in both products.
Step 2: Analyze the oxidation states of manganese.
In \( KMnO_4 \), manganese has an oxidation state of +7 (Mn7+), and in \( MnO_2 \), manganese has an oxidation state of +4 (Mn4+).
Step 3: Calculating the magnetic moments.
For \( KMnO_4 \) (Mn7+):
- Mn7+ has a \( d^0 \) configuration, so its magnetic moment is zero.
For \( MnO_2 \) (Mn4+):
- Mn4+ has a \( d^3 \) configuration, and the magnetic moment is calculated using the formula: \[ \mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)} = \sqrt{3(3+2)} = \sqrt{15} \approx 3.87 \]
Step 4: Conclusion.
The sum of the spin-only magnetic moments of the two central metal ions is \( 0 + 3.87 = 3.87 \), which rounds to the nearest integer of 4. Therefore, the correct answer is (4) 4.00.
Quick Tip: Spin-only magnetic moment is calculated using the formula \( \mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)} \), where \( n \) is the number of unpaired electrons.
During the test of group IV, NH4Cl is added with NH4OH. Why?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the purpose of adding NH4Cl with NH4OH.
In qualitative analysis, NH4OH (ammonium hydroxide) increases the concentration of OH- ions in the solution, which can precipitate group IV elements as their hydroxides. Adding NH4Cl (ammonium chloride) helps to reduce the concentration of OH- ions by forming the buffer system, thereby controlling the precipitation of other elements.
Step 2: Conclusion.
Therefore, NH4Cl is added with NH4OH to decrease the concentration of OH- ions in order to avoid the precipitation of further group elements. Thus, the correct answer is (2).
Quick Tip: In qualitative analysis, NH4Cl is often used with NH4OH to control the concentration of OH- ions and prevent the precipitation of undesired compounds.
Statement–I: \( \alpha \)-H is responsible for carbonyls giving aldol
Statement–II: Benzaldehyde & ethanal show cross aldol
What is the correct product in the below given reaction?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the reaction.
The reaction is a Clemmensen reduction, which is used to reduce aldehydes and ketones into their respective alkanes. In the given reaction, the compound undergoes reduction with zinc and mercury in hydrochloric acid (Zn–Hg/HCl), which will reduce the carbonyl group to a CH₂ group.
Step 2: Identifying the product.
The reduction of the carbonyl group (C=O) in the given aromatic aldehyde results in the conversion of the aldehyde group (CHO) into a methyl group (CH₂). Thus, the correct product is the alkane derived from the original aldehyde. The structure shown in option (1) represents this reduction product.
Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is (1).
Quick Tip: The Clemmensen reduction is commonly used for the reduction of carbonyl groups in aldehydes and ketones, converting them into corresponding alkanes without affecting other functional groups.
JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)
Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.
| Exam Date and Shift | Chemistry Question Paper |
|---|---|
| JEE Main 2024 Feb 1 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Feb 1 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 31 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 31 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
Also Check:
| JEE Main 2024 Paper Analysis | JEE Main 2024 Answer Key |
| JEE Main 2024 Cutoff | JEE Main 2024 Marks vs Rank |
JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper by Coaching Institute
| Coaching Institutes | Question Paper with Solutions PDF |
|---|---|
| Aakash BYJUs | Download PDF |
| Reliable Institute | To be updated |
| Resonance | To be updated |
| Vedantu | Download PDF |
| Sri Chaitanya | To be updated |
| FIIT JEE | To be updated |
JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Chemistry Paper Analysis
JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.
JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern
| Feature | Question Paper Pattern |
|---|---|
| Examination Mode | Computer-based Test |
| Exam Language | 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu) |
| Sectional Time Duration | None |
| Total Marks | 100 marks |
| Total Number of Questions Asked | 30 Questions |
| Total Number of Questions to be Answered | 25 questions |
| Type of Questions | MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions |
| Section-wise Number of Questions | 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, |
| Marking Scheme | +4 for each correct answer |
| Negative Marking | -1 for each incorrect answer |
Read More:
- JEE Main 2024 question paper pattern and marking scheme
- Most important chapters in JEE Mains 2024, Check chapter wise weightage here













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