JEE Main 2024 5 April Shift 1 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 5 April Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 5 April Shift 1 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 5 April Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.

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JEE Main 2024 5 April Shift 1 Chemistry Questions with Solutions


Question 1:

How many of the following can be prepared by Sandmeyer reaction:



Question 2:

Which of the following is the correct product for the given reaction?








Correct Answer: (1) Product 1
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Wolff-Kishner reduction.

Wolff-Kishner reduction is a reaction that reduces aldehydes and ketones to the corresponding alkanes by using hydrazine (N\(_2\)H\(_4\)) and a base such as KOH in glycol.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

(1) Product 1: This is the correct product as it corresponds to the reduction of a carbonyl group to a methylene group.

(2) Product 2: This is incorrect because it suggests a different type of product, possibly a hydroxylated product.

(3) Product 3: This is incorrect as it suggests an alcohol, which is not the expected outcome of a Wolff-Kishner reduction.

(4) Product 4: This is incorrect because it does not correspond to the reduction of the carbonyl group.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1) Product 1, as it correctly shows the reduction of a carbonyl group to an alkane.
Quick Tip: The Wolff-Kishner reduction is a strong reduction method for converting carbonyl compounds (like aldehydes and ketones) into alkanes, using hydrazine and a base.


Question 3:

Which of the following elements shows maximum oxidation state?

  • (1) Mn
  • (2) Ti
  • (3) Co
  • (4) Na
Correct Answer: (1) Mn
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding maximum oxidation states.

The maximum oxidation state of an element corresponds to the highest number of electrons it can lose in a compound.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

(1) Mn: Manganese has a maximum oxidation state of +7, as seen in compounds like KMnO\(_4\) (potassium permanganate).

(2) Ti: Titanium can have a maximum oxidation state of +4, as seen in TiO\(_2\).

(3) Co: Cobalt typically has a maximum oxidation state of +3 in most of its compounds.

(4) Na: Sodium has a maximum oxidation state of +1, as it typically loses one electron to form Na\(^+\).


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1) Mn, as manganese can show a maximum oxidation state of +7.
Quick Tip: In transition metals, the maximum oxidation state is often observed in the highest oxidation state compound, which can vary depending on the element's electron configuration.


Question 4:

Which of the following has lowest paramagnetic character in +2 oxidation state with water?

  • (1) Fe
  • (2) Co
  • (3) Ni
  • (4) Mn
Correct Answer: (3) Ni
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding paramagnetic character.

Paramagnetism is caused by the presence of unpaired electrons in an atom or ion. The more unpaired electrons, the higher the paramagnetic character.


Step 2: Electron configurations in the +2 oxidation state.

Fe\(^{2+}\): The electron configuration for Fe\(^{2+}\) is \(d^6\), with 4 unpaired electrons.

Co\(^{2+}\): The electron configuration for Co\(^{2+}\) is \(d^7\), with 3 unpaired electrons.

Ni\(^{2+}\): The electron configuration for Ni\(^{2+}\) is \(d^8\), with 2 unpaired electrons.

Mn\(^{2+}\): The electron configuration for Mn\(^{2+}\) is \(d^5\), with 5 unpaired electrons.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The ion with the least number of unpaired electrons is Ni\(^{2+}\), which has the lowest paramagnetic character. Hence, the correct answer is (3) Ni.
Quick Tip: In paramagnetism, the number of unpaired electrons determines the strength of the magnetic character. The fewer unpaired electrons, the weaker the paramagnetic character.


Question 5:

In the Lewis dot structure for NO\(_2^-\), total numbers of valence electrons around nitrogen is:


Question 6:

Find the total numbers of \(\sigma\) and \(\pi\) bonds in ethylene, respectively.

  • (1) 4,1
  • (2) 5,1
  • (3) 4,0
  • (4) 5,0
Correct Answer: (2) 5,1
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the bonding in ethylene.

Ethylene (\(C_2H_4\)) consists of a double bond between two carbon atoms. A double bond consists of one \(\sigma\) bond and one \(\pi\) bond. Each carbon-hydrogen single bond is a \(\sigma\) bond.


Step 2: Counting the bonds.

- The \(\sigma\) bonds: There are 5 \(\sigma\) bonds — 4 between carbon and hydrogen, and 1 between the two carbon atoms.

- The \(\pi\) bond: There is 1 \(\pi\) bond between the two carbon atoms.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The total number of \(\sigma\) bonds is 5, and the total number of \(\pi\) bonds is 1. Hence, the correct answer is (2) 5,1.
Quick Tip: In a double bond, there is always one \(\sigma\) bond and one \(\pi\) bond. \(\sigma\) bonds are formed from head-on overlap, while \(\pi\) bonds arise from sideways overlap.


Question 7:

Which of the following are correct statement(s) for the given species:

O\(^{2-}\), F\(^-\), Na\(^+\), Mg\(^{2+}\)

(a) O\(^{2-}\) is largest in size

(b) Mg\(^{2+}\) is smallest in size

(c) All have same effective nuclear charge

(d) All are isoelectronic

  • (1) a, b and c
  • (2) a, b and d
  • (3) b, c and d
  • (4) a, c and d
Correct Answer: (2) a, b and d
View Solution




Step 1: Analyzing the species.

The species provided are O\(^{2-}\), F\(^-\), Na\(^+\), and Mg\(^{2+}\). These species all have the same number of electrons (10 electrons) and are isoelectronic. Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons, but their sizes vary due to differing nuclear charges.


Step 2: Evaluating the statements.

- (a) O\(^{2-}\) is the largest in size because it has the fewest protons (8 protons) compared to the others, leading to the least effective nuclear charge.

- (b) Mg\(^{2+}\) is the smallest in size because it has the highest effective nuclear charge (12 protons), pulling its electrons closer.

- (c) All have the same effective nuclear charge: This is incorrect, as the effective nuclear charge varies with the number of protons in each species.

- (d) All are isoelectronic: This is correct, as all species have 10 electrons.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct statements are (a), (b), and (d). Hence, the correct answer is (2) a, b and d.
Quick Tip: Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons but different sizes due to differences in nuclear charge. The higher the nuclear charge, the smaller the size.


Question 8:

Find the sum of total number of O atom(s) in A and B.


Correct Answer: 14
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the reaction.

The given reaction involves the transformation of a phenol (C\(_6\)H\(_5\)OH) with concentrated sulfuric acid (H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)) followed by treatment with concentrated nitric acid (HNO\(_3\)). This forms two compounds, A and B.


Step 2: Identifying compound A.

When phenol is treated with concentrated sulfuric acid (H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)), it undergoes sulfonation to form compound A, which is 2-hydroxybenzenesulfonic acid (C\(_6\)H\(_4\)(OH)SO\(_3\)H). In this compound, there are 7 oxygen atoms in total: 2 from the hydroxyl group (OH), 1 from the sulfonic acid group (SO\(_3\)H), and 4 from the sulfonate group.


Step 3: Identifying compound B.

When compound A is treated with concentrated nitric acid (HNO\(_3\)), it undergoes nitration to form compound B, which is 2-hydroxy-5,6-dinitrobenzenesulfonic acid (C\(_6\)H\(_3\)(OH)(NO\(_2\))\(_2\)SO\(_3\)H). In this compound, there are also 7 oxygen atoms: 1 from the hydroxyl group (OH), 2 from the nitro groups (NO\(_2\)), 1 from the sulfonic acid group (SO\(_3\)H), and 3 from the nitro groups attached to the benzene ring.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The total number of oxygen atoms in both compounds A and B is 7 in A and 7 in B, adding up to a total of 14 oxygen atoms. Therefore, the correct answer is (3) 14.
Quick Tip: In reactions involving aromatic compounds, common reactions like sulfonation and nitration involve adding functional groups that contain oxygen. Always count the oxygen atoms from each functional group.


Question 9:

Find the major product in the following reaction:



  • (1) Orthonitrophenol
  • (2) Paranitrophenol
  • (3) Picric acid
  • (4) Metanitrophenol
Correct Answer: (1) Orthonitrophenol
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the reaction.

The reaction involves chlorobenzene, which undergoes a nucleophilic substitution with NaOH at high temperature (620°C), followed by nitration using a mixture of HNO\(_3\) and H\(_2\)SO\(_4\). This forms a nitro group at the ortho position with respect to the hydroxyl group, resulting in ortho-nitrophenol.


Step 2: Conclusion.

The major product formed is ortho-nitrophenol due to the strong activating effect of the hydroxyl group at the ortho position. Hence, the correct answer is (1) Orthonitrophenol.


Quick Tip: In aromatic substitution reactions, electron-donating groups like OH activate the ring, making the ortho and para positions more reactive toward electrophilic substitution.


Question 10:

Which of the following will give a positive Ninhydrin test?

  • (1) Cellulose
  • (2) Starch
  • (3) Polyvinyl chloride
  • (4) Egg albumin

Question 11:

Correct order of boiling point for

(P) Diethyl ether

(Q) n-butanol

(R) n-butane

(S) Ethylmethyl ketone

  • (1) P > Q > R > S
  • (2) Q > S > P > R
  • (3) S > R > Q > P
  • (4) S > Q > P > R
Correct Answer: (2) Q > S > P > R
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the boiling points.

The boiling point of a compound depends on its intermolecular forces. Compounds with stronger intermolecular forces will have higher boiling points.


Step 2: Intermolecular forces and their effects on boiling points.

- (P) Diethyl ether: Diethyl ether has a dipole moment but is not involved in hydrogen bonding. Its boiling point is relatively lower than compounds with hydrogen bonding.

- (Q) n-butanol: n-Butanol has hydrogen bonding, which significantly raises its boiling point.

- (R) n-butane: n-Butane has only London dispersion forces, which are weak, leading to the lowest boiling point.

- (S) Ethylmethyl ketone: Ethylmethyl ketone has dipole-dipole interactions, which are stronger than London dispersion forces but weaker than hydrogen bonding.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct order of boiling points is (Q > S > P > R). Hence, the correct answer is (2) Q > S > P > R.
Quick Tip: When comparing boiling points, remember that hydrogen bonding increases boiling points, followed by dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces.


Question 12:

Assertion: Cis-but-2-ene is polar while trans-but-2-ene is non-polar.

Reason: Dipole moment of trans but-2-ene is zero.

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • (3) A is correct but, R is incorrect.
  • (4) R is correct but, A is incorrect.

Question 13:

Assertion: For group 13 element stability of +1 oxidation state increases down the group.

Reason: Atomic size of Ga is greater than Al.

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (3) If A is true but R is false
  • (4) If A is false but R is true

Question 14:

Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\)(s) + 3CO(g) \(\rightarrow\) 2Fe(s) + 3CO\(_2\)(g)

Equilibrium does not shift according to Le Chatelier's principle.

Which of the following is correct?

  • (1) Removal of CO\(_2\)
  • (2) Addition of CO\(_2\)
  • (3) Removal of CO
  • (4) Addition of Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (4) Addition of Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Le Chatelier's principle.

Le Chatelier's principle states that if a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change in conditions (concentration, pressure, or temperature), the system will shift in a direction that opposes the change.


Step 2: Evaluating the options.

- (1) Removal of CO\(_2\): This would shift the equilibrium to the right to replace the removed CO\(_2\).

- (2) Addition of CO\(_2\): This would shift the equilibrium to the left to counteract the increase in CO\(_2\).

- (3) Removal of CO: This would shift the equilibrium to the left to replace the removed CO.

- (4) Addition of Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\): This would shift the equilibrium to the right, as it provides more reactant for the reaction to proceed. This is consistent with Le Chatelier's principle.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (4) Addition of Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\), as it will shift the equilibrium to the right according to Le Chatelier's principle.
Quick Tip: When a system at equilibrium is disturbed, the equilibrium will shift to counteract the change. Adding more reactant shifts the equilibrium to the right.


Question 15:

Predict the correct order of strength of ligands: Br\(^-\), H\(_2\)O, NH\(_3\)

  • (1) Br\(^-\) < H\(_2\)O < F\(^-\) < NH\(_3\)
  • (2) H\(_2\)O < Br\(^-\) < F\(^-\) < NH\(_3\)
  • (3) Br\(^-\) < F\(^-\) < H\(_2\)O < NH\(_3\)
  • (4) Br\(^-\) < H\(_2\)O < NH\(_3\) < F\(^-\)
Correct Answer: (3) Br\(^-\) < F\(^-\) < H\(_2\)O < NH\(_3\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding ligand strength.

Ligand strength is determined by the ability of the ligand to donate electron pairs to the metal center. The order of strength is influenced by factors such as the charge and size of the ligand.


Step 2: Evaluating the ligands.

- Br\(^-\) is a weak ligand due to its larger size and lower charge density.

- F\(^-\) is stronger than Br\(^-\) due to its smaller size and higher charge density.

- H\(_2\)O is a neutral molecule and is a stronger ligand than halides due to its ability to form hydrogen bonds and donate electron pairs.

- NH\(_3\) is a strong ligand due to its lone pair of electrons and small size.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct order of strength is Br\(^-\) < F\(^-\) < H\(_2\)O < NH\(_3\). Hence, the correct answer is (3).
Quick Tip: In general, smaller and highly charged ligands (like NH\(_3\)) are stronger than larger, less charged ones (like halides).


Question 16:

Molar conductivity of divalent cation and anion are 57 and 73 S cm\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\). The molar conductivity of solution is .........


Question 17:

For the reaction 2A + B \(\rightarrow\) C, the following data is given:


[A] (mol/L) \quad 0.1 \quad 0.4 \quad 0.4

[B] (mol/L) \quad 0.1 \quad 0.1 \quad 0.2

Rate (mol/L/s) \quad 6 \(\times\) 10\(^{-3}\) \quad 12 \(\times\) 10\(^{-3}\) \quad 48 \(\times\) 10\(^{-3}\)


Find the order of reaction.

Correct Answer: (2.5)
View Solution




Step 1: Rate law.

The rate law is given by: \[ Rate = k [A]^x [B]^y \]
Where \(x\) and \(y\) are the orders of reaction with respect to A and B, respectively.

Step 2: Using the given data to find \(x\) (order with respect to A).

Using the first two trials, we compare the rates with respect to the concentration of A, keeping B constant: \[ \frac{6 \times 10^{-3}}{12 \times 10^{-3}} = \frac{[0.1]^x}{[0.4]^x} \]
Simplifying the equation: \[ \frac{1}{2} = \left(\frac{0.1}{0.4}\right)^x = \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^x \]
Taking the logarithm: \[ \frac{1}{2} = \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^x \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 1/2 \]

Step 3: Using the given data to find \(y\) (order with respect to B).

Using the first and third trials, we compare the rates with respect to the concentration of B, keeping A constant: \[ \frac{12 \times 10^{-3}}{48 \times 10^{-3}} = \frac{[0.4]^x [0.1]^y}{[0.4]^x [0.2]^y} \]
Simplifying the equation: \[ \frac{1}{4} = \left(\frac{0.1}{0.2}\right)^y \quad \Rightarrow \quad y = 2 \]

Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the order with respect to A is 0.5 and the order with respect to B is 2. Hence, the overall order of reaction is \(0.5 + 2 = 2.5\). Therefore, the correct answer is (2.5).
Quick Tip: When determining the overall order of reaction, combine the individual orders with respect to each reactant. The order can be fractional if it doesn't follow simple integer values.


Question 18:

Most abundant isotopes of boron has X number of neutrons.

B + O\(_2\) \(\rightarrow\) Oxidation number of boron (Y)

Find X + Y?


Question 19:

Find the spin-only magnetic moment of the strongest oxidizing agent?

  • (1) Ti\(^{2+}\)
  • (2) V\(^{2+}\)
  • (3) Mn\(^{2+}\)
  • (4) Co\(^{3+}\)
Correct Answer: (4) Co\(^{3+}\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the spin-only magnetic moment formula.

The spin-only magnetic moment (\(\mu\)) is given by the formula: \[ \mu = \sqrt{n(n + 2)} \]
Where \(n\) is the number of unpaired electrons. The strongest oxidizing agent will be the one with the highest number of unpaired electrons, as it will have the highest magnetic moment.

Step 2: Evaluating each species.

- Ti\(^{2+}\): \(Ti^{2+}\) has 1 unpaired electron. Thus, \[ \mu = \sqrt{1(1 + 2)} = \sqrt{3} \approx 1.73 \, \mu_B \]
- V\(^{2+}\): \(V^{2+}\) has 3 unpaired electrons. Thus, \[ \mu = \sqrt{3(3 + 2)} = \sqrt{15} \approx 3.87 \, \mu_B \]
- Mn\(^{2+}\): \(Mn^{2+}\) has 5 unpaired electrons. Thus, \[ \mu = \sqrt{5(5 + 2)} = \sqrt{35} \approx 5.92 \, \mu_B \]
- Co\(^{3+}\): \(Co^{3+}\) has 6 unpaired electrons. Thus, \[ \mu = \sqrt{6(6 + 2)} = \sqrt{48} \approx 6.93 \, \mu_B \]

Step 3: Conclusion.

Co\(^{3+}\) has the highest magnetic moment, making it the strongest oxidizing agent. Hence, the correct answer is (4) Co\(^{3+}\).
Quick Tip: The higher the number of unpaired electrons, the stronger the magnetic moment, and typically, the stronger the oxidizing agent.


Question 20:

9.3 gm of \(NH_2\) reacts with excess Br\(_2\) and H\(_2\)O to form white ppt. 24.6 gm of white ppt is obtained.

Find the % yield of the white ppt product.



Correct Answer: (2) 70%
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the stoichiometry of the reaction.

The reaction is between \(NH_2\) and Br\(_2\) in the presence of H\(_2\)O to form a white ppt. The molar masses of the compounds involved are used to determine the number of moles.


Step 2: Calculating moles.

- Moles of \(NH_2\) = \(\frac{9.3}{93} = 0.1\) mol (Molar mass of \(NH_2\) = 93 g/mol)

- Moles of white ppt = \(\frac{24.6}{348} = 0.07\) mol (Molar mass of white ppt = 348 g/mol)


Step 3: Calculating the percentage yield.

The theoretical yield would be 0.1 mol of white ppt, and the actual yield is 0.07 mol. Thus, the percentage yield is: \[ Percentage yield = \frac{0.07}{0.1} \times 100 = 70% \]

Step 4: Conclusion.

The percentage yield of the white ppt product is 70%. Hence, the correct answer is (2) 70%.
Quick Tip: To calculate percentage yield, divide the actual yield by the theoretical yield and multiply by 100.


Question 21:

Which of the following cations will give a green color in reducing flame in borax bead test?

  • (1) Iron
  • (2) Cobalt
  • (3) Manganese
  • (4) Nickel
Correct Answer: (1) Iron
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the borax bead test.

In the borax bead test, certain metal cations produce characteristic colors when heated in a reducing flame. The colors depend on the metal ion and its oxidation state.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Iron: Iron ions produce a green color in the flame due to the formation of iron borate in the borax bead test.

- (2) Cobalt: Cobalt typically gives a blue color in the borax bead test.

- (3) Manganese: Manganese gives a pale brown or pink color.

- (4) Nickel: Nickel produces a green color, but it is not typically the same shade as that produced by iron.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1) Iron, as iron gives a green color in the reducing flame in the borax bead test.
Quick Tip: In the borax bead test, metal ions like iron (Fe\(^2+\)) give a characteristic green color in a reducing flame.


Question 22:

Which postulate of Dalton’s theory is wrong?

  • (1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms.
  • (2) All atoms of a given element have identical properties but different masses.
  • (3) Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in a fixed ratio.
  • (4) Chemical reaction involves rearrangement of atoms.
Correct Answer: (2) All atoms of a given element have identical properties but different masses.
View Solution




Step 1: Dalton's Atomic Theory.

Dalton’s atomic theory was based on several postulates, the first of which stated that all matter is made up of indivisible atoms. Another postulate states that atoms of the same element are identical in mass and properties. However, we know today that this statement is incorrect, as atoms of the same element can have different masses (due to isotopes).


Step 2: Evaluating the postulates.

- (1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms: This is largely true, but later discoveries like subatomic particles (electrons, protons, neutrons) showed that atoms are divisible. However, this does not invalidate Dalton’s basic theory.

- (2) All atoms of a given element have identical properties but different masses: This is false, as isotopes of the same element have different masses.

- (3) Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in a fixed ratio: This is correct.

- (4) Chemical reactions involve the rearrangement of atoms: This is also correct.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The incorrect postulate is (2), which states that all atoms of a given element have identical properties but different masses.
Quick Tip: Isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties but different masses due to differing numbers of neutrons.


Question 23:

The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid at constant volume is \(-321.30 \, K\) at \(27^\circ C\).

The heat of combustion at constant pressure is \((-321.30 - x)\, KJ\). Find the value of \(x\).

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

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JEE Main 2024 5 April Shift 1 Chemistry Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 5 April Shift 1 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Sectional Time Duration None
Total Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 30 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 25 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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