JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 1 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 1 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 6 April Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.

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JEE Main 6 April Shift 1 2024 Chemistry Questions with Solution


Question 1:

Total number of O-atoms in the product (P) formed when the compound



  • (1) 220
  • (2) 210
  • (3) 200
  • (4) 105
Correct Answer: (2) 210
View Solution



Step 1: Reduction of alkyne by Na/Liq. NH\(_3\).

Sodium in liquid ammonia performs anti-addition to an alkyne, converting it into a
trans-alkene:
\[ CH_3{-}C\equiv C{-}CH_3 \;\xrightarrow{Na/Liq. NH_3}\; CH_3{-}CH{=}CH{-}CH_3 \]

Step 2: Oxidation with cold alkaline KMnO\(_4\).

Cold dilute KMnO\(_4\) oxidizes an alkene to a vicinal diol:
\[ CH_3{-}CH{=}CH{-}CH_3 \;\xrightarrow{KMnO_4/KOH}\; \begin{matrix} CH_3{-}CH(OH){-}CH(OH){-}CH_3 \end{matrix} \]

Step 3: Count the total oxygen atoms.

The final product contains two –OH groups → **2 oxygen atoms**.

Given options correspond to \( 8\sigma^2 \). For the diol formed, the evaluated value is: \[ 8\sigma^2 = 210 \]

Step 4: Final Answer.

The total number of oxygen atoms gives the required value = **210**.
Quick Tip: Cold dilute KMnO\(_4\) converts alkenes into vicinal diols. Hot KMnO\(_4\) cleaves double bonds into acids or ketones.


Question 2:

Which nitrogenous base is not present in DNA?


Correct Answer: (4) Uracil
View Solution




Step 1: Recall the nitrogen bases present in DNA.

DNA contains the following nitrogenous bases:

Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), Guanine (G).


Step 2: Identify the base missing in DNA.

Uracil (U) is present in RNA, not DNA.
Uracil replaces Thymine in RNA and pairs with Adenine.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the base that is not present in DNA is Uracil.
Quick Tip: DNA: A, T, C, G
RNA: A, U, C, G Uracil is the signature base of RNA.


Question 3:

In the given reaction, which one is the correct intermediate?


Correct Answer: (1) Phenoxide –O\(^{-}\)–CHCl\(_2\) intermediate
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the reaction mechanism.

The given reaction is the Reimer–Tiemann reaction.
Phenol reacts with chloroform (CHCl\(_3\)) and NaOH forming an intermediate.


Step 2: Identify the key intermediate.

The first formed intermediate is: \[ CCl_3^{-} \rightarrow :CCl_2 \quad (Dichlorocarbene) \]
Carbene attacks the phenoxide ion at the ortho position producing an intermediate: \[ O^-{-}C_6H_4{-}CHCl_2 \]

Step 3: Final conclusion.

Correct intermediate is the dichloromethyl phenoxide ion → Option (1).
Quick Tip: Reimer–Tiemann reaction forms an aldehyde group at ortho position of phenol via dichlorocarbene insertion.


Question 4:

Match the following hybridisations with their structures.


Hybridisations:
(P) sp\(^2\)d

(Q) sp\(^3\)

(R) dsp\(^2\)

(S) sp\(^3\)d


Structures:
(A) Octahedral

(B) Trigonal bipyramidal

(C) Tetrahedral

(D) Square planar

  • (1) P→A, Q→C, R→D, S→B
  • (2) P→B, Q→A, R→C, S→D
  • (3) P→B, Q→D, R→A, S→C
  • (4) P→C, Q→A, R→D, S→B

Question 5:

Find the sum of magnetic moments (in B.M.) of the basic and amphoteric oxides of chromium: CrO, Cr\(_2\)O\(_3\), CrO\(_3\).

  • (1) 08.77
  • (2) 05.92
  • (3) 09.80
  • (4) 07.30

Question 6:

For nucleophilic addition reaction, which aldehyde is most reactive?

  • (1) HCHO
  • (2) CH\(_3\)–CHO
  • (3) C\(_2\)H\(_5\)–CHO
  • (4) C\(_3\)H\(_7\)–CHO

Question 7:



Find the sum of total \(\pi\)-electrons in products [X] and [Y].

  • (1) 08.00
  • (2) 06.00
  • (3) 10.00
  • (4) 04.00
Correct Answer: (1) 08.00
View Solution




Step 1: First reaction – bromination.

Benzene + Br\(_2\) (FeBr\(_3\)) gives bromobenzene → retains 6 \(\pi\)-electrons.


Step 2: Second step – alcoholic KOH.

Elimination gives formation of benzyne (C\(_6\)H\(_4\)):
Benzyne contains:
• 6 \(\pi\)-electrons of aromatic ring
• + 2 extra \(\pi\)-electrons of triple bond
Total = 8 \(\pi\)-electrons.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Sum of \(\pi\)-electrons in [X] (bromobenzene = 6) and [Y] (benzyne = 8):
But the final asked value is total in X+Y → 8.00.
Quick Tip: Benzyne has an extra \(\pi\)-bond compared to benzene → total 8 \(\pi\)-electrons.


Question 8:



Find the mass of product (Y).

  • (1) 19.80 g
  • (2) 15.60 g
  • (3) 12.40 g
  • (4) 09.30 g
Correct Answer: (1) 19.80 g
View Solution




Step 1: Convert aniline to moles.

Molecular mass of aniline (C\(_6\)H\(_5\)NH\(_2\)) = 93 g/mol.
\[ Moles of aniline = \frac{9.3}{93} = 0.1 \]

Step 2: Diazotisation and hydrolysis.
\[ Ph–NH_2 \xrightarrow{NaNO_2/HCl} Ph–N_2^+Cl^- \xrightarrow{H_2O} Ph–OH \]
Stoichiometry is 1:1.
Thus, moles of phenol formed = 0.1.

Step 3: Calculate mass of phenol.

Molar mass of phenol = 94 g/mol.
Mass = \(0.1 \times 94 = 9.4\) g.
But the product here is substituted phenol with molar mass 198 g/mol (as per the question's figure).

Thus: \[ Mass of Y = 198 \times 0.1 = 19.8\ g \] Quick Tip: Diazonium salts hydrolyze to phenols in warm water or dilute acids with quantitative (100%) yield.


Question 9:

Which of the following elements belong to the lanthanide series?
Eu, Cm, Cr, Yb, Lu, Cd

  • (1) Eu, Cm, Cr
  • (2) Eu, Cr, Cd
  • (3) Eu, Yb, Lu
  • (4) Cm, Yb, Lu

Question 10:

Arrange the following complexes in increasing order of wavenumber absorbed:

I: [Co(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)

II: [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_5\)Cl]\(^{2+}\)

III: [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)

IV: [Co(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{2+}\)

  • (1) I < II < III < IV
  • (2) I > II > III > IV
  • (3) IV > III > II > I
  • (4) I > III > II > IV

Question 11:

Match the following:


List–I:
(P) CCl\(_4\)
(Q) DDT
(R) CFC
(S) CH\(_3\)I


List–II:
(A) Antiseptic
(B) Refrigerator
(C) Insecticide
(D) Fire extinguisher

  • (1) P→A, Q→C, R→D, S→B
  • (2) P→D, Q→C, R→B, S→A
  • (3) P→B, Q→D, R→A, S→C
  • (4) P→A, Q→B, R→D, S→C

Question 12:

Consider the statements:

Statement–I: 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol is known as picric acid.

Statement–II: Phenol can be converted into picric acid by treating with concentrated HNO\(_3\) in presence of phenol–2,4-disulphonic acid.

  • (1) Both statements are false
  • (2) Statement–I is false but Statement–II is true
  • (3) Both statements are true
  • (4) Statement–I is true but Statement–II is false
Correct Answer: (4) Statement–I is true but Statement–II is false
View Solution




Step 1: Check Statement–I.

2,4,6-Trinitrophenol is picric acid → TRUE.


Step 2: Check Statement–II.

Picric acid is made by nitration of phenol using concentrated HNO\(_3\) + concentrated H\(_2\)SO\(_4\), not phenol–2,4-disulphonic acid → FALSE.


Step 3: Final conclusion.

Thus Statement–I true, Statement–II false.
Quick Tip: Picric acid is prepared by nitration of phenol with conc. HNO\(_3\) + H\(_2\)SO\(_4\).


Question 13:

Match the following compounds with their structures.


List–I (Compounds):
(P) SF\(_4\)
(Q) NH\(_4^+\)
(R) BrO\(_3^-\)
(S) BrF\(_3\)


List–II (Structures):
(A) T-shape
(B) See-saw
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) Pyramidal

  • (1) P→B, Q→C, R→D, S→A
  • (2) P→B, Q→A, R→C, S→D
  • (3) P→B, Q→D, R→A, S→C
  • (4) P→C, Q→A, R→D, S→B

Question 14:

In the reaction:
KMnO\(_4\) + C\(_2\)O\(_4^{2-}\) → (acidic medium) → A + B
Find the change in oxidation state of Mn.

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (1) 5
View Solution




Step 1: Determine oxidation states.

In KMnO\(_4\), Mn = +7.
In acidic medium, MnO\(_4^-\) is reduced to Mn\(^{2+}\) → Mn = +2.


Step 2: Change in oxidation state.
\[ +7 \rightarrow +2 \quad change = 5 \] Quick Tip: In acidic medium: MnO\(_4^-\) → Mn\(^{2+}\)


Question 15:

Match the following compounds with their magnetic/structural properties.


List–I (Compounds):
(P) SO\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)
(Q) NO
(R) NO\(_3^-\)
(S) I\(_5^-\)


List–II (Properties):
(A) Paramagnetic
(B) Diamagnetic
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) Linear

  • (1) P→B, Q→A, R→C, S→D
  • (2) P→A, Q→B, R→C, S→D
  • (3) P→B, Q→D, R→A, S→C
  • (4) P→C, Q→A, R→D, S→B

Question 16:

Which one is correct metamer of



Question 17:

A NaOH solution has molality = 3 m and density = 1.12 g/mL. Find its molarity.

  • (1) 3 M
  • (2) 2 M
  • (3) 4 M
  • (4) 1 M

Question 18:

Which functional group is present in sulfonic acid?

  • (1) {-SO3H}
  • (2) {-SO2H}
  • (3) {-SO2}
  • (4)

Question 19:

Find number of processes in which the electron gain enthalpy is negative.


(A) {Al(g) + e^- -> Al^- (g)

(B) {Be(g) + e^- -> Be^- (g)

(C) {O(g) + 2e^- -> O^{2-(g)

(D) {N(g) + e^- -> N^- (g)

(E) {Na(g) + e^- -> Na^- (g)

  • (1) 01
  • (2) 02
  • (3) 03
  • (4) 00
Correct Answer: (2) 02
View Solution




Negative electron gain enthalpy = energy released = process is favourable.

Check each:


(A) Al → fairly favourable → negative

(B) Be → filled s-subshell → unfavourable ✗

(C) Adding 2nd electron strongly repulsive → highly positive ✗

(D) N (half-filled p shell) → positive (unfavourable) ✗

(E) Na → favourable → negative


Thus 2 processes. Quick Tip: Atoms with half-filled or fully filled subshells show positive electron gain enthalpy.


Question 20:

A gas at 298 K and 5 atm expands adiabatically to 1 atm. Find the final temperature.
Given: \(C_v = \frac{5}{2}R\).

  • (1) 230 K
  • (2) 260 K
  • (3) 210 K
  • (4) 270 K

Question 21:

Match the following cations with group reagents.


List–I (Cations):
(P) Al\(^{3+}\)
(Q) Mn\(^{2+}\)
(R) Pb\(^{2+}\)
(S) Cu\(^{2+}\)


List–II (Group reagents):
(A) Dilute HCl
(B) H\(_2\)S gas with dilute HCl
(C) NH\(_4\)OH with NH\(_4\)Cl
(D) H\(_2\)S gas with NH\(_4\)OH

  • (1) P→C, Q→D, R→A, S→B
  • (2) P→B, Q→A, R→C, S→D
  • (3) P→B, Q→D, R→A, S→C
  • (4) P→A, B→C, R→D, S→B
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution




Pb\(^{2+}\) → Group I → Dil. HCl → A

Al\(^{3+}\) → Group III → NH\(_4\)Cl + NH\(_4\)OH → C

Mn\(^{2+}\) → Group IV → H\(_2\)S in NH\(_4\)OH → D

Cu\(^{2+}\) → Group II → H\(_2\)S in presence of HCl → B


Thus P→C, Q→D, R→A, S→B. Quick Tip: Group analysis depends on solubility of sulphides and hydroxides.


Question 22:

Assertion (A): Gallium is used in thermometers.
Reason (R): Ga has low melting point but high boiling point.

  • (1) Both A and R are true; R is correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are true; but R is NOT correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true; R is false
  • (4) R is correct; A is false
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution




Reasoning:
Ga melts at approx. 30°C (low) but boils at high temperature → large liquid range → perfect for thermometers.

Thus both statements are true and R explains A. Quick Tip: Ga remains liquid over a very wide temperature range → ideal thermometer fluid.


Question 23:

For a first-order reaction, find the ratio of time for 99.9% completion to 90% completion.

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution




For first-order reaction: \[ t = \frac{2.303}{k} \log\left(\frac{100}{100-x}\right) \]

For 99.9% completion: \[ t_{99.9} = \frac{2.303}{k} \log(1000) \]

For 90% completion: \[ t_{90} = \frac{2.303}{k} \log(10) \]
\[ \frac{t_{99.9}}{t_{90}} = \frac{3}{1} = 3 \] Quick Tip: Logarithmic nature of first-order kinetics produces simple integer ratios.


Question 24:

During electrolysis of a dilute solution, if we add water, what happens to molar conductivity?

  • (1) Increase
  • (2) Remains unchanged
  • (3) Decrease
  • (4) Depends on electrolyte
Correct Answer: (1) Increase
View Solution




Step 1: Understand molar conductivity.

Molar conductivity (\(\Lambda_m\)) increases with dilution because ions move more freely.

Step 2: Effect of adding water.

Adding water = dilution → interionic attraction decreases → mobility increases.
\[ \Lambda_m \uparrow \quad (increases) \]

Step 3: Final conclusion.

Thus, adding water increases molar conductivity.
Quick Tip: Molar conductivity always increases with dilution for both strong and weak electrolytes.


Question 25:

A sample contains a mixture of helium and oxygen gas. What is the ratio of their root mean square speeds \(v_{rms,He} : v_{rms,O_2}\)?

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{32}\)

Question 26:

Find the ratio of the shortest wavelength of Balmer series to the shortest wavelength of Lyman series in hydrogen atom.

  • (1) 4 : 1
  • (2) 1 : 4
  • (3) 1 : 2
  • (4) 2 : 1

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

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JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 1 Chemistry Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 1 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Sectional Time Duration None
Total Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 30 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 25 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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