JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 exam from 3 PM to 6 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 6 April Shift 2 exam is available for download using the link below.
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JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper PDF Download
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JEE Main 6 Apr Shift 2 2024 Chemistry Questions with Solution
For the reaction \(2P + Q \rightarrow S\), if \(\Delta H = 400\ kJ/mol\) and \(\Delta S = 0.2\ kJ/K\), at what temperature will equilibrium be attained?
View Solution
Step 1: At equilibrium, \(\Delta G = 0\).
\[ \Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S = 0 \]
Step 2: Solve for \(T\). \[ T = \frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S} = \frac{400}{0.2} = 2000\ K \]
Thus, equilibrium occurs at 2000 K.
Quick Tip: If \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) are both positive, high temperature favours spontaneity.
An electron in the first excited state of H-atom has energy \(-3.4\ eV\). Find its kinetic energy.
View Solution
For hydrogen atom: \[ Total energy E = -K.E. \]
Given: \[ E = -3.4\ eV \]
Thus: \[ K.E. = 3.4\ eV \] Quick Tip: In Bohr model, kinetic energy = magnitude of total energy.
How many molecules have central atoms with sp\(^2\) hybridisation?
Given: SiO\(_2\), NH\(_3\), CO\(_2\), SO\(_2\), C\(_2\)H\(_4\), C\(_2\)H\(_2\), C\(_6\)H\(_6\).
View Solution
Check hybridisation:
- SiO\(_2\): linear (sp) ✗
- NH\(_3\): pyramidal (sp\(^3\)) ✗
- CO\(_2\): linear (sp) ✗
- SO\(_2\): bent (sp\(^2\)) ✓
- C\(_2\)H\(_4\): ethene (sp\(^2\)) ✓
- C\(_2\)H\(_2\): acetylene (sp) ✗
- C\(_6\)H\(_6\): benzene (sp\(^2\)) ✓
Total = 3. Quick Tip: sp\(^2\) hybridisation always corresponds to trigonal planar geometry.
View Solution
Step 1: Diazotisation \[ {C6H5NH2 ->[NaNO2/HCl] C6H5N2+Cl^-} \]
Step 2: Sandmeyer reaction \[ {C6H5N2+Cl^- ->[CuCl/HCl] C6H5Cl} \]
Step 3: Hydrolysis under strong base \[ {C6H5Cl ->[NaOH,\ \Delta] C6H5ONa} \]
Step 4: Acidification \[ {C6H5ONa ->[H^+] C6H5OH} \]
Final product = **phenol**. Quick Tip: Aryl halides convert to phenols using molten NaOH at high temperature.
For the reaction:
{CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) <=> CO2(g)},
find \(K_p/K_c\).
View Solution
\[ K_p = K_c (RT)^{\Delta n} \]
\[ \Delta n = 1 - \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right) = -\frac{1}{2} \]
Thus: \[ K_p = K_c (RT)^{-1/2} \]
\[ \frac{K_p}{K_c} = \frac{1}{(RT)^{1/2}} \] Quick Tip: For gaseous equilibria, always compute \(\Delta n = n_{products} - n_{reactants}\).
Which statement is incorrect for but-2-ene?
View Solution
cis-but-2-ene has a net dipole moment (same groups on same side).
trans-but-2-ene dipoles cancel → zero dipole.
Thus: \[ \mu_{cis} > \mu_{trans} \]
So statement (3) is incorrect. Quick Tip: cis isomers usually have higher dipole moments due to asymmetry.
Correct increasing order of number of unpaired electrons: Sc, Ti, Cr, Mn, V
View Solution
Step 1: Nitration of anisole.
{-OCH3 is a strong ortho/para director.
p-Anisole gives major product = **p-nitroanisole**.
Step 2: Bromination with excess Br\(_2\).
{-OCH3 strongly activates ring → tribromination occurs at ortho and para positions.
Product = **2,4,6-tribromo-p-nitroanisole**.
Thus (X) and (Y) correspond to option (1).
Quick Tip: Anisole activates the ring strongly and undergoes electrophilic substitution at o- and p-positions.
Carboxylic acid undergoes the following sequence:
Major product (X) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Reduction of R–COOH.
\[ {R-COOH ->[LiAlH4] R-CH2OH} \]
Step 2: Convert alcohol to alkyl chloride. \[ {R-CH2OH ->[PCl5] R-CH2Cl} \]
Step 3: Nucleophilic substitution. \[ {R-CH2Cl ->[KCN] R-CH2CN} \]
Step 4: Acidic hydrolysis of nitrile. \[ {R-CH2CN ->[H3O^+] R-CH2COOH} \]
Thus final major product is **R–CH\(_2\)COOH**. Quick Tip: A nitrile on acidic hydrolysis always gives a carboxylic acid.
Among VO\(_2^-\), Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\), MnO\(_4^-\), find the magnetic moment of the compound having least oxidizing power.
View Solution
Oxidizing power decreases as: \[ {MnO4^- > Cr2O7^{2-} > VO2^-} \]
Thus VO\(_2^-\) has least oxidizing power.
Step 1: Find oxidation state of V in VO\(_2^-\). \[ x + 2(-2) = -1 \quad\Rightarrow\quad x = +3 \]
V\(^3+\) → \(3d^2\) → 2 unpaired electrons.
\[ \mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)} = \sqrt{2(2+2)} = \sqrt{8} = 2.87\ B.M. \] Quick Tip: Magnetic moment formula: \(\mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)}\) (spin-only).
Arrange in increasing order of wavelength: Li, Cs, Rb, K
View Solution
Wavelength \(\lambda\) of emitted radiation \(\propto\) atomic size.
Larger atom → lower energy gap → larger \(\lambda\).
Size order: \[ Cs > Rb > K > Li \]
Thus wavelength increases as: \[ Rb > K > Li > Cs \] Quick Tip: For alkali metals: Energy gap decreases down group → wavelength increases.
A salt gives yellow precipitate with AgNO\(_3\), but is insoluble in NH\(_4\)OH.
Which anion does the salt contain?
View Solution
\[ {AgI}: yellow ppt, insoluble in NH4OH \]
\[ {AgBr}: pale yellow, partially soluble \] \[ {AgCl}: white, soluble in NH4OH \]
Thus salt contains **I\(^-\)**. Quick Tip: Only AgI is completely insoluble in ammonia.
For a first-order reaction, the ratio \(t_{2/3}/t_{4/5}\) is:
View Solution
For first-order reactions: \[ t = \frac{2.303}{k} \log\left(\frac{1}{1-x}\right) \]
\[ t_{2/3} = \frac{2.303}{k}\log 3 \] \[ t_{4/5} = \frac{2.303}{k}\log 5 \]
\[ \frac{t_{2/3}}{t_{4/5}} = \frac{\log 3}{\log 5} = 0.34 \] Quick Tip: For first-order kinetics, time ratio depends only on logarithmic terms.
For 3 M aqueous NaCl solution with density = 1.25 g/mL, calculate molality.
Numer of Carbocation which is not Stabilised by Hyper Conjugation
Select correct statement:
Statement-I: PCl\(_5\) and BrF\(_5\) are sp\(^3\)d hybridised.
Statement-II: SF\(_6\) and [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\) are sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) hybridised.
View Solution
PCl\(_5\): trigonal bipyramidal → sp\(^3\)d → correct.
But BrF\(_5\): square pyramidal → sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) → NOT sp\(^3\)d.
Thus Statement-I is false.
SF\(_6\): octahedral → sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) → correct.
But [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\): undergoes d\(^2\)sp\(^3\) (inner orbital), not sp\(^3\)d\(^2\).
Thus both statements incorrect. Quick Tip: Transition metal complexes rarely use s–p–d hybridisation; they prefer d–sp combinations.
In product (Y), the ratio of oxygen atoms to bromine atoms is \(n \times 10^{-1}\).
Find the value of \(n\).
In 100 mL H\(_2\)O, \(x \times 10^{-3}\) mL of ethanol (density = 0.8 g/mL) is added.
A colligative property graph is shown.
Using \(K_f (H_2O) = 1.86\ K kg mol^{-1}\), find the value of \(x\).
View Solution
Step 1: Depression in freezing point relation.
\[ \Delta T_f = K_f \cdot m \]
Step 2: Find mass of ethanol added.
Volume added = \(x \times 10^{-3}\) mL
Density = 0.8 g/mL
\[ Mass = 0.8x \times 10^{-3}\ g \]
Moles of ethanol: \[ n = \frac{0.8x \times 10^{-3}}{46} \]
Step 3: Mass of solvent.
100 mL water ≈ 100 g = 0.1 kg
Step 4: Molality.
\[ m = \frac{n}{0.1} = \frac{0.8x \times 10^{-3}}{46 \times 0.1} = \frac{0.8x}{46 \times 100} \]
Step 5: Using graph, \(\Delta T_f\) corresponds to P (from graph provided).
Given in solution, solving gives: \[ x = 7728 \]
Thus: \[ x = 7728\ mL \] Quick Tip: Always convert volume → mass → moles before using freezing point depression.
Rate of Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution Reaction (E.A.S.R) for the following compounds is:
View Solution
Step 1: Compare activating and deactivating groups.
{-OCH3: Strongly activating (resonance donating).
{-CH3: Weakly activating (hyperconjugation).
{-H: Standard benzene.
{-NO2: Strongly deactivating (–M, –I).
Step 2: Rate order matches strength of activation. \[ {Ph-OCH3} > {Ph-H} > {Ph-CH3} > {Ph-NO2} \]
Thus correct order is: **I \(>\) II \(>\) III \(>\) IV**. Quick Tip: Electron-donating groups increase rate; electron-withdrawing groups slow EAS drastically.
Find the shortest wavelength of Paschen series for hydrogen atom.
View Solution
Shortest wavelength = series limit (transition from \( n = \infty \) to \( n_1 = 3 \)).
\[ \frac{1}{\lambda} = R\left(\frac{1}{3^2} - 0\right) \]
\[ \frac{1}{\lambda} = \frac{R}{9} \quad \Rightarrow \quad \lambda = \frac{9}{R} \] Quick Tip: Shortest wavelength of any series corresponds to \( n_2 = \infty \).
Which statements about enzymes are correct?
(1) Enzymes are biocatalysts
(2) Enzymes are non-specific for reactions
(3) Most enzymes are globular proteins
(4) Enzyme oxidase interconverts maltose into glucose
View Solution
- Statement (1): True — enzymes are biological catalysts.
- Statement (2): False — enzymes are highly specific.
- Statement (3): True — nearly all enzymes are globular proteins.
- Statement (4): False — oxidase enzymes catalyze oxidation, not carbohydrate conversion.
Thus **1 and 3** are correct. Quick Tip: Enzymes show high specificity due to their active-site structure.
Match the reaction type with reaction name.
(A) {Na+ + H2O -> NaOH + H2
(B) {N2 + O2 -> 2NO
(C) {NO2 -> NO + NO3^-
(D) {PbCO3 -> PbO + CO2
Name:
(P) Decomposition
(Q) Displacement
(R) Combination
(S) Disproportionation
How can we convert an electrochemical cell into an electrolytic cell?
In Group 14 of periodic table, which statements are correct?
(A) Covalent radius decreases down the group
(B) Down the group p\(\pi\)–p\(\pi\) bond strength decreases
(C) Electronegativity decreases down the group
(D) Carbon does not show negative oxidation state
View Solution
(A) False — covalent radius **increases** down group.
(B) True — p\(\pi\)–p\(\pi\) bonding is strong only for lighter elements.
(C) True — electronegativity decreases down group.
(D) False — carbon can show oxidation states from –4 to +4.
Correct: **B and C** only. Quick Tip: Multiple bonding ability decreases sharply down group due to poor orbital overlap.
IUPAC name of \([ {PtBr2(PMe3)2} ]\) is:
View Solution
Oxidation state of Pt: \[ x + 2(-1) = 0 \Rightarrow x = +2 \]
Name ligands alphabetically:
- {Br^- → bromido
- {PMe3 → trimethylphosphine
IUPAC name:
**Dibromido(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)**. Quick Tip: Order ligands alphabetically; anionic ligands end with –ido.
JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)
Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.
| Exam Date and Shift | Chemistry Question Paper |
|---|---|
| JEE Main 2024 Feb 1 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Feb 1 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 31 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 31 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper | Check Here |
Also Check:
| JEE Main 2024 Paper Analysis | JEE Main 2024 Answer Key |
| JEE Main 2024 Cutoff | JEE Main 2024 Marks vs Rank |
JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper by Coaching Institute
| Coaching Institutes | Question Paper with Solutions PDF |
|---|---|
| Aakash BYJUs | Download PDF |
| Vedantu | Download PDF |
| Reliable Institute | To be updated |
| Resonance | To be updated |
| Sri Chaitanya | To be updated |
| FIIT JEE | To be updated |
JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 Chemistry Paper Analysis
JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc..
JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern
| Feature | Question Paper Pattern |
|---|---|
| Examination Mode | Computer-based Test |
| Exam Language | 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu) |
| Sectional Time Duration | None |
| Total Marks | 100 marks |
| Total Number of Questions Asked | 30 Questions |
| Total Number of Questions to be Answered | 25 questions |
| Type of Questions | MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions |
| Section-wise Number of Questions | 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, |
| Marking Scheme | +4 for each correct answer |
| Negative Marking | -1 for each incorrect answer |
Read More:
- JEE Main 2024 question paper pattern and marking scheme
- Most important chapters in JEE Mains 2024, Check chapter wise weightage here









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