JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 exam from 3 PM to 6 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 6 April Shift 2 exam is available for download using the link below.

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JEE Main 6 Apr Shift 2 2024 Chemistry Questions with Solution


Question 1:

For the reaction \(2P + Q \rightarrow S\), if \(\Delta H = 400\ kJ/mol\) and \(\Delta S = 0.2\ kJ/K\), at what temperature will equilibrium be attained?

  • (1) 500 K
  • (2) 2000 K
  • (3) 1000 K
  • (4) 1500 K
Correct Answer: (2) 2000 K
View Solution




Step 1: At equilibrium, \(\Delta G = 0\).
\[ \Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S = 0 \]

Step 2: Solve for \(T\). \[ T = \frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S} = \frac{400}{0.2} = 2000\ K \]

Thus, equilibrium occurs at 2000 K.
Quick Tip: If \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) are both positive, high temperature favours spontaneity.


Question 2:

An electron in the first excited state of H-atom has energy \(-3.4\ eV\). Find its kinetic energy.

  • (1) 3.4 eV
  • (2) 1.7 eV
  • (3) 6.8 eV
  • (4) 13.6 eV
Correct Answer: (1) 3.4 eV
View Solution




For hydrogen atom: \[ Total energy E = -K.E. \]

Given: \[ E = -3.4\ eV \]

Thus: \[ K.E. = 3.4\ eV \] Quick Tip: In Bohr model, kinetic energy = magnitude of total energy.


Question 3:

How many molecules have central atoms with sp\(^2\) hybridisation?
Given: SiO\(_2\), NH\(_3\), CO\(_2\), SO\(_2\), C\(_2\)H\(_4\), C\(_2\)H\(_2\), C\(_6\)H\(_6\).

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution




Check hybridisation:


- SiO\(_2\): linear (sp) ✗

- NH\(_3\): pyramidal (sp\(^3\)) ✗

- CO\(_2\): linear (sp) ✗

- SO\(_2\): bent (sp\(^2\)) ✓

- C\(_2\)H\(_4\): ethene (sp\(^2\)) ✓

- C\(_2\)H\(_2\): acetylene (sp) ✗

- C\(_6\)H\(_6\): benzene (sp\(^2\)) ✓


Total = 3. Quick Tip: sp\(^2\) hybridisation always corresponds to trigonal planar geometry.


Question 4:

Correct Answer: (1) Phenol
View Solution




Step 1: Diazotisation \[ {C6H5NH2 ->[NaNO2/HCl] C6H5N2+Cl^-} \]

Step 2: Sandmeyer reaction \[ {C6H5N2+Cl^- ->[CuCl/HCl] C6H5Cl} \]

Step 3: Hydrolysis under strong base \[ {C6H5Cl ->[NaOH,\ \Delta] C6H5ONa} \]

Step 4: Acidification \[ {C6H5ONa ->[H^+] C6H5OH} \]

Final product = **phenol**. Quick Tip: Aryl halides convert to phenols using molten NaOH at high temperature.


Question 5:

For the reaction:
{CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) <=> CO2(g)},
find \(K_p/K_c\).

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{(RT)^{1/2}}\)
  • (2) \((RT)^{1/2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{RT}\)
  • (4) \(RT\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



\[ K_p = K_c (RT)^{\Delta n} \]
\[ \Delta n = 1 - \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right) = -\frac{1}{2} \]

Thus: \[ K_p = K_c (RT)^{-1/2} \]
\[ \frac{K_p}{K_c} = \frac{1}{(RT)^{1/2}} \] Quick Tip: For gaseous equilibria, always compute \(\Delta n = n_{products} - n_{reactants}\).


Question 6:

Which statement is incorrect for but-2-ene?

  • (1) It forms two stereoisomers
  • (2) Trans isomer is more stable than cis
  • (3) Dipole moment of trans \(>\) cis
  • (4) Melting point of trans \(>\) cis
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution




cis-but-2-ene has a net dipole moment (same groups on same side).
trans-but-2-ene dipoles cancel → zero dipole.

Thus: \[ \mu_{cis} > \mu_{trans} \]

So statement (3) is incorrect. Quick Tip: cis isomers usually have higher dipole moments due to asymmetry.


Question 7:

Correct increasing order of number of unpaired electrons: Sc, Ti, Cr, Mn, V

  • (1) Cr \(>\) V \(>\) Mn \(>\) Ti \(>\) Sc
  • (2) Mn \(>\) Cr \(>\) V \(>\) Ti \(>\) Sc
  • (3) Cr \(>\) Mn \(>\) V \(>\) Ti \(>\) Sc
  • (4) Cr \(>\) Mn \(>\) Ti \(>\) V \(>\) Sc

Question 8:

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution




Step 1: Nitration of anisole.

{-OCH3 is a strong ortho/para director.
p-Anisole gives major product = **p-nitroanisole**.

Step 2: Bromination with excess Br\(_2\).

{-OCH3 strongly activates ring → tribromination occurs at ortho and para positions.
Product = **2,4,6-tribromo-p-nitroanisole**.

Thus (X) and (Y) correspond to option (1).
Quick Tip: Anisole activates the ring strongly and undergoes electrophilic substitution at o- and p-positions.


Question 9:

Carboxylic acid undergoes the following sequence:




Major product (X) is:

  • (1) R–H
  • (2) R–CHO
  • (3) R–CH\(_2\)COOH
  • (4) R–CH\(_2\)–COOH
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution




Step 1: Reduction of R–COOH.
\[ {R-COOH ->[LiAlH4] R-CH2OH} \]

Step 2: Convert alcohol to alkyl chloride. \[ {R-CH2OH ->[PCl5] R-CH2Cl} \]

Step 3: Nucleophilic substitution. \[ {R-CH2Cl ->[KCN] R-CH2CN} \]

Step 4: Acidic hydrolysis of nitrile. \[ {R-CH2CN ->[H3O^+] R-CH2COOH} \]

Thus final major product is **R–CH\(_2\)COOH**. Quick Tip: A nitrile on acidic hydrolysis always gives a carboxylic acid.


Question 10:

Among VO\(_2^-\), Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\), MnO\(_4^-\), find the magnetic moment of the compound having least oxidizing power.

  • (1) 0 B.M.
  • (2) 1.73 B.M.
  • (3) 2.87 B.M.
  • (4) 4.90 B.M.
Correct Answer: (3) 2.87 B.M.
View Solution




Oxidizing power decreases as: \[ {MnO4^- > Cr2O7^{2-} > VO2^-} \]

Thus VO\(_2^-\) has least oxidizing power.

Step 1: Find oxidation state of V in VO\(_2^-\). \[ x + 2(-2) = -1 \quad\Rightarrow\quad x = +3 \]

V\(^3+\) → \(3d^2\) → 2 unpaired electrons.
\[ \mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)} = \sqrt{2(2+2)} = \sqrt{8} = 2.87\ B.M. \] Quick Tip: Magnetic moment formula: \(\mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)}\) (spin-only).


Question 11:

Arrange in increasing order of wavelength: Li, Cs, Rb, K

  • (1) Li \(>\) Cs \(>\) Rb \(>\) K
  • (2) Rb \(>\) K \(>\) Li \(>\) Cs
  • (3) Li \(>\) Cs \(>\) K \(>\) Rb
  • (4) Cs \(>\) Li \(>\) Rb \(>\) K
Correct Answer: (2) Rb \(>\) K \(>\) Li \(>\) Cs
View Solution




Wavelength \(\lambda\) of emitted radiation \(\propto\) atomic size.
Larger atom → lower energy gap → larger \(\lambda\).

Size order: \[ Cs > Rb > K > Li \]

Thus wavelength increases as: \[ Rb > K > Li > Cs \] Quick Tip: For alkali metals: Energy gap decreases down group → wavelength increases.


Question 12:

A salt gives yellow precipitate with AgNO\(_3\), but is insoluble in NH\(_4\)OH.
Which anion does the salt contain?

  • (1) I\(^-\)
  • (2) Br\(^-\)
  • (3) Cl\(^-\)
  • (4) F\(^-\)
Correct Answer: (1) I\(^-\)
View Solution



\[ {AgI}: yellow ppt, insoluble in NH4OH \]
\[ {AgBr}: pale yellow, partially soluble \] \[ {AgCl}: white, soluble in NH4OH \]

Thus salt contains **I\(^-\)**. Quick Tip: Only AgI is completely insoluble in ammonia.


Question 13:

For a first-order reaction, the ratio \(t_{2/3}/t_{4/5}\) is:

  • (1) 0.34
  • (2) 0.50
  • (3) 0.69
  • (4) 1.00
Correct Answer: (1) 0.34
View Solution




For first-order reactions: \[ t = \frac{2.303}{k} \log\left(\frac{1}{1-x}\right) \]
\[ t_{2/3} = \frac{2.303}{k}\log 3 \] \[ t_{4/5} = \frac{2.303}{k}\log 5 \]
\[ \frac{t_{2/3}}{t_{4/5}} = \frac{\log 3}{\log 5} = 0.34 \] Quick Tip: For first-order kinetics, time ratio depends only on logarithmic terms.


Question 14:

For 3 M aqueous NaCl solution with density = 1.25 g/mL, calculate molality.

  • (1) 2.17 m
  • (2) 2.79 m
  • (3) 3.7 m
  • (4) 3.17 m

Question 15:

Numer of Carbocation which is not Stabilised by Hyper Conjugation


  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5

Question 16:

Select correct statement:

Statement-I: PCl\(_5\) and BrF\(_5\) are sp\(^3\)d hybridised.

Statement-II: SF\(_6\) and [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\) are sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) hybridised.

  • (1) Both statements are correct
  • (2) Both statements are incorrect
  • (3) Only Statement-I correct
  • (4) Only Statement-II correct
Correct Answer: (2) Both statements are incorrect
View Solution




PCl\(_5\): trigonal bipyramidal → sp\(^3\)d → correct.
But BrF\(_5\): square pyramidal → sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) → NOT sp\(^3\)d.
Thus Statement-I is false.

SF\(_6\): octahedral → sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) → correct.
But [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\): undergoes d\(^2\)sp\(^3\) (inner orbital), not sp\(^3\)d\(^2\).

Thus both statements incorrect. Quick Tip: Transition metal complexes rarely use s–p–d hybridisation; they prefer d–sp combinations.


Question 17:




In product (Y), the ratio of oxygen atoms to bromine atoms is \(n \times 10^{-1}\).
Find the value of \(n\).

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 20

Question 18:

In 100 mL H\(_2\)O, \(x \times 10^{-3}\) mL of ethanol (density = 0.8 g/mL) is added.
A colligative property graph is shown.
Using \(K_f (H_2O) = 1.86\ K kg mol^{-1}\), find the value of \(x\).


  • (1) 5420 mL
  • (2) 6810 mL
  • (3) 7728 mL
  • (4) 8200 mL
Correct Answer: (3) 7728 mL
View Solution




Step 1: Depression in freezing point relation.
\[ \Delta T_f = K_f \cdot m \]

Step 2: Find mass of ethanol added.

Volume added = \(x \times 10^{-3}\) mL
Density = 0.8 g/mL
\[ Mass = 0.8x \times 10^{-3}\ g \]

Moles of ethanol: \[ n = \frac{0.8x \times 10^{-3}}{46} \]

Step 3: Mass of solvent.

100 mL water ≈ 100 g = 0.1 kg

Step 4: Molality.
\[ m = \frac{n}{0.1} = \frac{0.8x \times 10^{-3}}{46 \times 0.1} = \frac{0.8x}{46 \times 100} \]

Step 5: Using graph, \(\Delta T_f\) corresponds to P (from graph provided).

Given in solution, solving gives: \[ x = 7728 \]

Thus: \[ x = 7728\ mL \] Quick Tip: Always convert volume → mass → moles before using freezing point depression.


Question 19:

Rate of Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution Reaction (E.A.S.R) for the following compounds is:


  • (1) I \(>\) III \(>\) II \(>\) IV
  • (2) I \(>\) II \(>\) III \(>\) IV
  • (3) IV \(>\) III \(>\) II \(>\) I
  • (4) I = III \(>\) II \(>\) IV
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution




Step 1: Compare activating and deactivating groups.

{-OCH3: Strongly activating (resonance donating).

{-CH3: Weakly activating (hyperconjugation).

{-H: Standard benzene.

{-NO2: Strongly deactivating (–M, –I).

Step 2: Rate order matches strength of activation. \[ {Ph-OCH3} > {Ph-H} > {Ph-CH3} > {Ph-NO2} \]

Thus correct order is: **I \(>\) II \(>\) III \(>\) IV**. Quick Tip: Electron-donating groups increase rate; electron-withdrawing groups slow EAS drastically.


Question 20:

Find the shortest wavelength of Paschen series for hydrogen atom.

  • (1) \( \frac{9}{R} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{16}{R} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{144}{7R} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7R}{144} \)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution




Shortest wavelength = series limit (transition from \( n = \infty \) to \( n_1 = 3 \)).
\[ \frac{1}{\lambda} = R\left(\frac{1}{3^2} - 0\right) \]
\[ \frac{1}{\lambda} = \frac{R}{9} \quad \Rightarrow \quad \lambda = \frac{9}{R} \] Quick Tip: Shortest wavelength of any series corresponds to \( n_2 = \infty \).


Question 21:

Which statements about enzymes are correct?


(1) Enzymes are biocatalysts

(2) Enzymes are non-specific for reactions

(3) Most enzymes are globular proteins

(4) Enzyme oxidase interconverts maltose into glucose

  • (1) 1, 2
  • (2) 2, 4
  • (3) 1, 3
  • (4) 3, 4
Correct Answer: (3) 1, 3
View Solution




- Statement (1): True — enzymes are biological catalysts.
- Statement (2): False — enzymes are highly specific.
- Statement (3): True — nearly all enzymes are globular proteins.
- Statement (4): False — oxidase enzymes catalyze oxidation, not carbohydrate conversion.

Thus **1 and 3** are correct. Quick Tip: Enzymes show high specificity due to their active-site structure.


Question 22:

Match the reaction type with reaction name.


(A) {Na+ + H2O -> NaOH + H2

(B) {N2 + O2 -> 2NO

(C) {NO2 -> NO + NO3^-

(D) {PbCO3 -> PbO + CO2


Name:
(P) Decomposition

(Q) Displacement

(R) Combination

(S) Disproportionation

  • (1) A→Q; B→S; C→R; D→P
  • (2) A→P; B→R; C→S; D→Q
  • (3) A→Q; B→R; C→S; D→P
  • (4) A→P; B→S; C→R; D→Q

Question 23:

How can we convert an electrochemical cell into an electrolytic cell?

  • (1) By changing electrodes
  • (2) By reversing ions in salt bridge
  • (3) By applying opposite lower potential
  • (4) By applying opposite higher potential

Question 24:

In Group 14 of periodic table, which statements are correct?


(A) Covalent radius decreases down the group

(B) Down the group p\(\pi\)–p\(\pi\) bond strength decreases

(C) Electronegativity decreases down the group

(D) Carbon does not show negative oxidation state

  • (1) A, B, C
  • (2) A, B, C, D
  • (3) B, C
  • (4) B, C, D
Correct Answer: (3) B, C
View Solution




(A) False — covalent radius **increases** down group.
(B) True — p\(\pi\)–p\(\pi\) bonding is strong only for lighter elements.
(C) True — electronegativity decreases down group.
(D) False — carbon can show oxidation states from –4 to +4.

Correct: **B and C** only. Quick Tip: Multiple bonding ability decreases sharply down group due to poor orbital overlap.


Question 25:

IUPAC name of \([ {PtBr2(PMe3)2} ]\) is:

  • (1) Dibromido(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
  • (2) Dibromido(trimethylphosphine)platinum(IV)
  • (3) Dibromido(trimethylphosphine)platinate(IV)
  • (4) (trimethylphosphine)Dibromidoplatinum(IV)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution




Oxidation state of Pt: \[ x + 2(-1) = 0 \Rightarrow x = +2 \]

Name ligands alphabetically:
- {Br^- → bromido
- {PMe3 → trimethylphosphine

IUPAC name:
**Dibromido(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)**. Quick Tip: Order ligands alphabetically; anionic ligands end with –ido.


JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

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JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 Chemistry Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 6 April Shift 2 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc..

JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Sectional Time Duration None
Total Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 30 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 25 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper