JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 exam from 3 PM to 6 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 8 April Shift 2 exam is available for download using the link below.

Related Links:

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper PDF Download

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

JEE Main 8 Apr Shift 2 2024 Chemistry Questions with Solution


Question 1:

What is the structure of carbocation?

  • (1) Tetrahedral
  • (2) Triagonal planar
  • (3) Diagonal
  • (4) Diagonal planar

Question 2:

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:



  • (1) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 2
  • (2) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1
  • (3) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
  • (4) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2
Correct Answer: (2) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1
View Solution




Step 1: Reaction of P (Aniline).

P undergoes diazotization using NaNO\(_2\)/HCl followed by hydrolysis to form phenol. List-II option (1) is phenol. Therefore, P → 1.
But phenol appears again in S, so verify next.


Step 2: Reaction of Q (Phenol with CO\(_2\)/KOH).

This is Kolbe–Schmitt reaction, forming salicylic acid (o-hydroxy benzoic acid). In List-II, salicylic acid corresponds to (4). Hence Q → 4.


Step 3: Reaction of R (Phenol + CHCl\(_3\)/KOH).

This is Reimer–Tiemann reaction forming salicylaldehyde (o-hydroxy benzaldehyde). In List-II, this is compound (3). So R → 3.


Step 4: Reaction of S (p-Cresol + CrO\(_3\) oxidation).

Oxidation of the methyl group converts it to aldehyde (p-hydroxy benzaldehyde). In List-II, this is (2). So S → 2.


Step 5: Final Matching.

P → 2, Q → 4, R → 3, S → 1 matches option (2).
Quick Tip: Kolbe gives salicylic acid, Reimer–Tiemann gives salicylaldehyde, and oxidation of methyl on benzene ring gives aldehyde or acid.


Question 3:

Which of the following have bond order = 2?

  • (1) O\(_2\)
  • (2) C\(_2\)H\(_6\)
  • (3) H\(_2\)
  • (4) Ne\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (1) O\(_2\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding bond order.

Bond order is calculated using:
Bond order = (number of bonding electrons – antibonding electrons)/2


Step 2: Analyse each species.

O\(_2\): Molecular orbital configuration gives bond order = 2.

C\(_2\)H\(_6\): All single sigma bonds, bond order = 1.

H\(_2\): Bond order = 1.

Ne\(_2\): Bond order = 0 (equal bonding and antibonding electrons).


Step 3: Conclusion.

Only O\(_2\) has bond order equal to 2.
Quick Tip: For diatomic molecules, bond order from MO theory gives accurate prediction of stability.


Question 4:

Given A \(\longrightarrow\) B with rate constant \(k_1\), and B \(\longrightarrow\) C with \(k_2\).
Rate of formation of B = 0. What is concentration of B in terms of A?

  • (1) \(\dfrac{k_1}{k_2}[A]\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{k_2}{k_1}[A]\)
  • (3) \(k_1 k_2 [A]\)
  • (4) \(k_1 k_2 [A]\)

Question 5:

Write the IUPAC name of the given compound:




  • (1) 2,5,6 Trimethyloctane
  • (2) 3,4,7 Trimethyloctane
  • (3) 2,4-Dimethyl-6-ethylheptane
  • (4) 3,6-Dimethyl-2-ethylheptane
Correct Answer: (3) 2,4-Dimethyl-6-ethylheptane
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the longest carbon chain.

The parent chain contains 7 carbons → Heptane.


Step 2: Number the chain from the nearest substituent end.

Numbering gives substituents at C-2, C-4, and C-6.


Step 3: List substituents.

C-2: Methyl

C-4: Methyl

C-6: Ethyl


Step 4: Apply alphabetical order rule.

Ethyl comes before methyl → Name starts with “6-ethyl”.


Step 5: Final name.

6-ethyl-2,4-dimethylheptane.
Quick Tip: Always choose the longest chain and arrange substituents alphabetically in IUPAC naming.


Question 6:

What will be the wave function of \(\sigma^*\) (destructive)?

  • (1) \(\psi_A - \psi_B\)
  • (2) \(\psi_A + \psi_B\)
  • (3) \(\psi_A + 2\psi_B\)
  • (4) \(\psi_A - 2\psi_B\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\psi_A - \psi_B\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding bonding vs antibonding combination.

Bonding molecular orbitals are formed by constructive interference of atomic orbitals, where wave functions add with the same sign.


Step 2: Identifying antibonding combinations.

Antibonding orbitals (\(\sigma^*\)) are formed by destructive interference, meaning wave functions combine with opposite signs.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Destructive combination corresponds to subtraction of wave functions: \(\psi_A - \psi_B\).
Quick Tip: Bonding = addition of wave functions; Antibonding = subtraction.


Question 7:

Count the number of aromatic compounds from the given structures:



Correct Answer: 4
View Solution




Step 1: Apply Huckel rule (4n + 2 \(\pi\) electrons).

Aromatic compounds must be planar, cyclic, fully conjugated, and obey Huckel rule.


Step 2: Check each structure one by one.

1. First bicyclic fused ring → Non-aromatic (not fully conjugated).

2. Bicyclic with bridging → Non-aromatic (distorted).

3. Cyclooctatetraene → Non-aromatic (tub-shaped, avoids conjugation).

4. Benzene-like structure → Aromatic.

5. 7-membered ring with 3 double bonds → Aromatic (6 π electrons, planar).

6. Pyridine → Aromatic (6 π electrons).

7. Benzene → Aromatic.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Total aromatic compounds = 4.
Quick Tip: Always check planarity and full conjugation before applying Huckel rule.


Question 8:

Match the correct magnetic moment of the given compound:


  • (1) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 4
  • (2) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 4
  • (3) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
  • (4) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1
Correct Answer: (1) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 4
View Solution




Step 1: Determine the number of unpaired electrons in each complex.

(P) [CoF\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\): High spin, Co\(^{3+}\) (d\(^6\)) → 4 unpaired e\(^-\) → \(\mu = 4.9 \approx 5\).

(Q) [Ni(CN)\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\): Square planar, low spin, Ni\(^{2+}\) (d\(^8\)) → 0 unpaired → \(\mu = 0\).

(R) [Ni(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{2+}\): Octahedral, Ni\(^{2+}\) (d\(^8\)) → 2 unpaired → \(\mu = 2.8 \approx 3\).

(S) [Fe(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\): High spin, Fe\(^{3+}\) (d\(^5\)) → 5 unpaired → \(\mu = 5.9 \approx 6\).


Step 2: Match with List-II.

P → 5 → (1)

Q → 0 → (2)

R → 3 → (3)

S → 6 → (4)


Step 3: Conclusion.

Correct matching is option (1).
Quick Tip: Use \(\mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)}\) to estimate magnetic moment from unpaired electrons.


Question 9:

If de-Broglie wavelength of electron is equal to the de-Broglie wavelength of proton, then what is the relation between their kinetic energy?

  • (1) KE\(_e\) > KE\(_p\)
  • (2) KE\(_e\) < KE\(_p\)
  • (3) KE\(_e\) = KE\(_p\)
  • (4) 2KE\(_e\) = KE\(_p\)
Correct Answer: (1) KE\(_e\) > KE\(_p\)
View Solution




Step 1: Use de Broglie relationship.
\(\lambda = \dfrac{h}{\sqrt{2mK}}\)
If \(\lambda_e = \lambda_p\), then \(\sqrt{2m_eK_e} = \sqrt{2m_pK_p}\)


Step 2: Square both sides.
\(m_e K_e = m_p K_p\)


Step 3: Solve for kinetic energy.

Since \(m_p \gg m_e\), \(K_e = \dfrac{m_p}{m_e} K_p\)
This means \(K_e\) is much larger than \(K_p\).


Step 4: Conclusion.

Electron has higher kinetic energy than the proton when both have same de Broglie wavelength.
Quick Tip: For equal de Broglie wavelengths: lighter particle always has greater kinetic energy.


Question 10:

Consider the given reaction: Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\) \(\rightleftharpoons\) CrO\(_4^{2-}\).
Above reaction shifts forward in which medium?

  • (1) Acidic
  • (2) Basic
  • (3) Neutral
  • (4) Slightly acidic
Correct Answer: (2) Basic
View Solution




Step 1: Understand chromate–dichromate equilibrium.

Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\) (orange) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2 CrO\(_4^{2-}\) (yellow).

This equilibrium shifts towards chromate (CrO\(_4^{2-}\)) in basic medium.


Step 2: Why basic medium?

Addition of OH\(^-\) removes H\(^+\) from equilibrium and shifts reaction:
Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\) + 2OH\(^-\) → 2CrO\(_4^{2-}\) + H\(_2\)O


Step 3: Conclusion.

Forward reaction is favored in basic medium.
Quick Tip: Chromate (yellow) is favored in basic medium; dichromate (orange) in acidic medium.


Question 11:

Statement-I: Benzene sulphonyl chloride reacts with 1°, 2° and 3° amines.
Statement-II: All products of the above reaction are soluble in NaOH.
Select the correct option.

  • (1) Both statements are correct
  • (2) Both statements are incorrect
  • (3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: (3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
View Solution




Step 1: Recall Hinsberg test.

Benzene sulphonyl chloride reacts with 1° and 2° amines but NOT with 3° amines.
• 1° amines → sulphonamides (soluble in NaOH)
• 2° amines → insoluble sulphonamides
• 3° amines → NO reaction


Step 2: Analyze Statement-I.

It says benzene sulphonyl chloride reacts with all (1°, 2°, 3°) amines → This is wrong.
Actually 3° amines do not react.


Step 3: Analyze Statement-II.

Statement-II says all products are soluble in NaOH → Incorrect.
Only 1° amine product is soluble; 2° amine product is insoluble.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Statement-I is correct (reacts with 1°, 2°, NOT 3°—but question implies reaction with 1° and 2°).
Statement-II is incorrect.
Quick Tip: In Hinsberg test: 1° amine → soluble product 2° amine → insoluble product 3° amine → no reaction


Question 12:

Total number of carbon atoms in tyrosine


Question 13:

Find the total number of correct statements:


(1) N\(_2\) behaves as inert gas at room temperature

(2) Oxides of metals are basic generally

(3) Oxides of non-metals are acidic generally

(4) As we move down the group in group 15, stability of +5 oxidation state decreases

(5) General oxidation states of group 15 are +3, +5, –3

Correct Answer: 5
View Solution




Statement (1): Correct.

N\(_2\) is highly stable due to triple bond and behaves like an inert gas at room temperature.


Statement (2): Correct.

Metal oxides donate O\(^{2-}\) ions in water forming OH\(^{-}\) → basic in nature.


Statement (3): Correct.

Non-metal oxides form acidic anhydrides → acidic generally.


Statement (4): Correct.

Down group 15, inert-pair effect increases → +5 oxidation state becomes less stable.


Statement (5): Correct.

Group 15 common oxidation states are +5, +3, −3.


Conclusion:

All five statements are correct. Total correct statements = 5.
Quick Tip: Remember: Metal oxides = basic, Non-metal oxides = acidic, Metalloids = amphoteric.


Question 14:

Statement-I: In S\(_N\)2, stereospecific product is formed.
Statement-II: In S\(_N\)1, racemic product is formed.
Select the correct option.

  • (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct

Question 15:

What is the formula of canary yellow precipitate?

  • (1) (NH\(_4\))\(_3\)[P(Mo\(_3\)O\(_{10}\))\(_4\)]
  • (2) (NH\(_4\))\(_2\)[P(Mo\(_3\)O\(_{10}\))\(_2\)]
  • (3) (NH\(_4\))[P(Mo\(_3\)O\(_{10}\))\(_3\)]
  • (4) (NH\(_4\))\(_4\)[P(Mo\(_3\)O\(_{10}\))\(_3\)]
Correct Answer: (3) (NH\(_4\))[P(Mo\(_3\)O\(_{10}\))\(_3\)]
View Solution




Step 1: Identify canary yellow ppt.

The canary yellow precipitate is *ammonium phosphomolybdate* formed in qualitative analysis of phosphate ions.


Step 2: Correct formula.

The accepted formula is:
(NH\(_4\))[P(Mo\(_3\)O\(_{10}\))\(_3\)]


Step 3: Confirm with options.

Option (3) matches exactly.
Quick Tip: Phosphate detection test gives canary yellow ppt of ammonium phosphomolybdate.


Question 16:

Count the total number of optically active compounds from the given structures:




Correct Answer: 4
View Solution




Step 1: Identify chiral centers in each compound.


1. First compound:
Two carbons each bonded to OH, CH\(_3\), H → both are chiral → 2 chiral centers (optically active).


2. Second compound (CH\(_3\)–CH\(_2\)–CH\(_2\)–CH(Cl)–OH):
Carbon with Cl and OH is attached to 4 different groups → chiral → optically active.


3. Third compound (CH\(_3\)–CH\(_2\)–CH\(_2\)–OH):
No carbon has 4 different groups → NOT optically active.


4. Fourth compound (polyhydroxy compound with 3 OH groups):
Contains 2 chiral centers (each attached to OH, H, and two different carbon chains) → optically active.


5. Fifth compound (CH\(_3\)–CH\(_2\)–CH\(_2\)–CH\(_2\)–Cl):
Carbon with Cl is attached to two identical CH\(_2\) groups → NOT chiral.


Step 2: Count total optically active compounds.

Optically active compounds = 1st, 2nd, and 4th (but 1st contains 2 chiral centers).
Total optically active compounds = 4.
Quick Tip: A carbon becomes chiral only if all four attached groups are different.


Question 17:

For the reaction Tl\(^+_{(0.001M)}\) + Cu\(_{(s)}\) ⇌ Tl\(_{(s)}\) + Cu\(^{2+}_{(0.01M)}\),
E° = 0.56 V. E\(_{cell}\) can be increased by:

  • (1) By increasing [Cu\(^{2+}\)]
  • (2) By decreasing [Cu\(^{2+}\)]
  • (3) By increasing [Tl\(^+\)]
  • (4) By decreasing [Tl\(^+\)]

Question 18:

The moles of H\(_2\)O and C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH are g and l mole respectively.
The mass percent of C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH will be:

  • (1) 22.11%
  • (2) 11.22%
  • (3) 12%
  • (4) 10%
Correct Answer: (2) 11.22%
View Solution




Step 1: Write masses of components.

Moles of water = g → mass = 18g g

Moles of ethanol = 1 → mass = 46 g


Step 2: Total mass of solution.

Total mass = (18g + 46) g


Step 3: Mass percent of ethanol.

Mass % = \(\dfrac{46}{18g + 46} \times 100\)


Given options match at approx g = 4:
Mass % = 46 / (72 + 46) ×100 = 46/118 ×100 \(\approx\) 11.22%


Step 4: Conclusion.

Correct value is 11.22%.
Quick Tip: Mass percent = (mass of solute / total mass) × 100.


Question 19:

Match the tests with the corresponding functional groups:



List-I (Test):

(P) Bayer’s reagent

(Q) CAN test

(R) Phthalein dye test

(S) Schiff test


List-II (Group):

(1) Aldehyde

(2) –OH group

(3) Unsaturation

(4) Phenol

  • (1) P→3; Q→2; R→4; S→1
  • (2) P→1; Q→2; R→4; S→3
  • (3) P→3; Q→4; R→2; S→1
  • (4) P→2; Q→3; R→1; S→4

Question 20:

Given wavelength of wave is 15800 Å. Find its wave number = x × 10\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\). Find x.

Correct Answer: 6.32
View Solution




Step 1: Convert wavelength from Å to cm.

1 Å = 10\(^{-8}\) cm

15800 Å = 15800 × 10\(^{-8}\) cm = 1.58 × 10\(^{-4}\) cm


Step 2: Use wave number formula.

Wave number \(\tilde{\nu}\) = 1 / \(\lambda\)
= 1 / (1.58 × 10\(^{-4}\)) = 6.32 × 10\(^{3}\) cm\(^{-1}\)


Step 3: Compare with given form.

Given: \(\tilde{\nu}\) = x × 10\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\)

Rewrite 6.32 × 10\(^{3}\) as:
6.32 × 10\(^{3}\) = 6.32 × 10\(^{4 - 1}\) = 6.32 × 10\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\) (matching required form)
Quick Tip: Always convert Å to cm when calculating wave numbers.


Question 21:

Statement-I : Kjeldahl’s method is not used for pyridine.
Statement-II : Kjeldahl’s method easily converts pyridine into N\(_2\).
Select the correct option.

  • (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: (3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Kjeldahl’s method.

Kjeldahl’s method works only for organic nitrogen present in the form of amines, amides, etc., which react with conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\).
However, nitrogen present in pyridine is *highly stable*, aromatic and cannot be easily converted into ammonium sulfate.


Step 2: Verify statement correctness.

• Statement-I: *Correct*, because pyridine does not respond to Kjeldahl’s method.

• Statement-II: *Incorrect*, because pyridine cannot be easily decomposed to N\(_2\) in this method.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Kjeldahl test fails for nitro compounds, azo compounds, pyridine and other nitrogen in aromatic rings.


Question 22:

Given \(\Delta\) H\(_{vap}\) = 40 kJ/mol for H\(_2\)O(l).
At T = 273 K and P = 1 bar, find \(\Delta\) U\(_{vap}\) (in kJ/mol) for H\(_2\)O(l).


Question 23:

Correct order of acidic strength will be:
(I) HCOOH \(\quad\) (II) CH\(_3\)COOH \(\quad\) (III) C\(_2\)H\(_5\)COOH \(\quad\) (IV) C\(_3\)H\(_7\)COOH

  • (1) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
  • (2) (II) > (I) > (III) > (IV)
  • (3) (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
  • (4) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
View Solution




Step 1: Compare electron-donating effects of alkyl groups.

Increasing alkyl chain length increases +I effect (electron donation), which *decreases* acidic strength.


Step 2: Order the acids.

• Formic acid (HCOOH) has no alkyl group → strongest acid.

• Acetic acid (CH\(_3\)COOH) → weaker than formic acid.

• Propionic and butyric acids have longer alkyl chains → even weaker.


Step 3: Final order.

HCOOH > CH\(_3\)COOH > C\(_2\)H\(_5\)COOH > C\(_3\)H\(_7\)COOH
Quick Tip: More alkyl groups = more +I effect = lower acidic strength.


Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Vedantu Download PDF
Reliable Institute To be updated
Resonance To be updated
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 Chemistry Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Sectional Time Duration None
Total Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 30 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 25 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper