JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 9 April Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.

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JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 Chemistry Questions with Solutions


Question 1:

Which of the following are paramagnetic?

O\(_2^-\) , O\(_2^{2-}\) , C\(_2^-\) , CN\(^-\) , N\(_2\) , O\(_2\)

Correct Answer: O\(_2^-\) and O\(_2\)
View Solution




Step 1: Concept of paramagnetism.

A molecule is paramagnetic if it contains at least one unpaired electron. Molecular orbital (MO) theory is used to determine the presence of unpaired electrons.


Step 2: Electron configuration analysis.

O\(_2\) has two unpaired electrons → paramagnetic.

O\(_2^-\) has one unpaired electron → paramagnetic.

O\(_2^{2-}\) has all electrons paired → diamagnetic.

C\(_2^-\) has all electrons paired → diamagnetic.

CN\(^-\) is isoelectronic with CO (all paired) → diamagnetic.

N\(_2\) has all electrons paired → diamagnetic.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Only O\(_2\) and O\(_2^-\) show paramagnetism due to unpaired electrons.
Quick Tip: In MO theory, species with odd electron count or partially filled antibonding orbitals are usually paramagnetic.


Question 2:

What will be the increasing order of energy?


(i) n = 4, \(\ell\) = 0

(ii) n = 4, \(\ell\) = 2

(iii) n = 4, \(\ell\) = 1

(iv) n = 3, \(\ell\) = 2

(v) n = 3, \(\ell\) = 1

  • (1) v < i < iv < iii < ii
  • (2) v < ii < iv < iii < i
  • (3) iv < i < v < iii < ii
  • (4) v < i < iii < iv < ii
Correct Answer: (4) v < i < iii < iv < ii
View Solution




Step 1: Applying the n+\(\ell\) rule.

Lower (n+\(\ell\)) means lower energy. If (n+\(\ell\)) is equal, the orbital with lower n has lower energy.


Step 2: Calculate values.

(i) 4s → n+\(\ell\) = 4+0 = 4

(ii) 4d → 4+2 = 6

(iii) 4p → 4+1 = 5

(iv) 3d → 3+2 = 5

(v) 3p → 3+1 = 4


Step 3: Ordering.

Smallest (n+\(\ell\) = 4): v (3p), i (4s)

Next (n+\(\ell\) = 5): iii (4p), iv (3d); lower n first → iii < iv

Highest (n+\(\ell\) = 6): ii (4d)


Thus: v < i < iii < iv < ii
Quick Tip: Use the n+\(\ell\) rule: lower value means lower energy; if equal, choose smaller n.


Question 3:

Which of the following is ambident ligand?


NO\(_2^-\) , CN\(^-\) , SCN\(^-\) , H\(_2\)O , NH\(_3\) , C\(_2\)O\(_4^{2-}\)

Correct Answer: NO\(_2^-\) , CN\(^-\) , SCN\(^-\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding ambident ligands.

Ambident ligands can coordinate through two different donor atoms.


Step 2: Check each ligand.

NO\(_2^-\) → can bind via N (nitro) or O (nitrito).

CN\(^-\) → can bind via C (cyano) or N (isocyano).

SCN\(^-\) → can bind via S (thiocyanato-S) or N (thiocyanato-N).

H\(_2\)O → only O → not ambident.

NH\(_3\) → only N → not ambident.

C\(_2\)O\(_4^{2-}\) → bidentate, not ambident.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The ligands showing ambidentate behaviour are NO\(_2^-\), CN\(^-\) and SCN\(^-\).
Quick Tip: Ambident ligands attach through two different atoms, unlike bidentate ligands that attach through two atoms simultaneously.


Question 4:

PbS when react with dil. HNO\(_3\) then which of the following will not formed?

  • (1) S
  • (2) N\(_2\)O
  • (3) NO
  • (4) Pb(NO\(_3\))\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (2) N\(_2\)O
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the reaction of PbS with dilute HNO\(_3\).

Dilute nitric acid oxidises sulphide (S\(^{2-}\)) to elemental sulphur (S). Lead sulphide dissolves forming Pb(NO\(_3\))\(_2\). Nitric acid (dilute) reduces mostly to NO gas.


Step 2: Identify products formed.

PbS + 2HNO\(_3\) → Pb(NO\(_3\))\(_2\) + S + 2H\(_2\)O + NO


Step 3: Identify which is NOT formed.

Products actually formed: S, NO, Pb(NO\(_3\))\(_2\)

N\(_2\)O is never produced from dilute nitric acid in this reaction.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Since N\(_2\)O is not formed, option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: Dilute HNO\(_3\) reduces mainly to NO, not to N\(_2\)O or NO\(_2\).


Question 5:

In the light of the given statements, choose the most appropriate answer:


Statement–I: [Co(en)\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)]\(^{+1}\) have 3 G.I.

Statement–II: [Co(en)\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)]\(^{+1}\) have octahedral geometry

  • (1) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are false
  • (2) Statement–I is false but Statement–II is true
  • (3) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are true
  • (4) Statement–I is true but Statement–II is false
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are true
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding geometry.

[Co(en)\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)]\(^{+}\) contains Co(III) with 6 ligands (4 donor atoms from 2 en + 2 Cl). Therefore, complex is octahedral. So Statement–II is true.


Step 2: Number of geometrical isomers.

In an octahedral complex of the type MA\(_2\)B\(_2\)C\(_2\) (here en = A\(_2\), Cl = B), three geometrical isomers exist: cis–cis, cis–trans, and trans–cis. Therefore, 3 GI are possible. Statement–I is true.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Both statements are correct → option (3).
Quick Tip: Complexes of type A\(_2\)B\(_2\) often show 3 geometrical isomers in octahedral geometry.


Question 6:

Which of the following are colourless?


La\(^{3+}\) , Eu\(^{3+}\) , Sm\(^{3+}\) , Nd\(^{2+}\) , Lu\(^{3+}\)

Correct Answer: La\(^{3+}\) and Lu\(^{3+}\)
View Solution




Step 1: Concept of colour in lanthanides.

Lanthanide ions show colour due to unpaired 4f electrons. The ions with 4f\(^0\) or 4f\(^{14}\) configuration are colourless.


Step 2: Check each species.

La\(^{3+}\) → 4f\(^0\) → colourless

Lu\(^{3+}\) → 4f\(^{14}\) → colourless

Eu\(^{3+}\) → 4f\(^6\) → coloured

Sm\(^{3+}\) → 4f\(^5\) → coloured

Nd\(^{2+}\) → 4f\(^4\) → coloured


Step 3: Conclusion.

Only La\(^{3+}\) and Lu\(^{3+}\) are colourless due to fully empty or fully filled 4f subshell.
Quick Tip: Lanthanides are colourless only when 4f shell is either empty (La\(^{3+}\)) or completely filled (Lu\(^{3+}\)).


Question 7:

Correct pair of sp\(^2\) hybridised molecule

  • (1) BF\(_3\), NO\(_2^-\)
  • (2) BF\(_3\), NH\(_2^-\)
  • (3) BF\(_3\), H\(_2\)O
  • (4) H\(_2\)O, NO\(_2^-\)
Correct Answer: (1) BF\(_3\), NO\(_2^-\)
View Solution




Step 1: Identify hybridisation of each species.

BF\(_3\): Boron has 3 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs → trigonal planar → sp\(^2\).

NO\(_2^-\): Nitrogen has 2 bond pairs + 1 lone pair → bent shape but steric number = 3 → sp\(^2\).

NH\(_2^-\): N has 2 bond pairs + 2 lone pairs → steric number = 4 → sp\(^3\).

H\(_2\)O: 2 bond pairs + 2 lone pairs → steric number = 4 → sp\(^3\).


Step 2: Choose the correct sp\(^2\) pair.

Only BF\(_3\) and NO\(_2^-\) both have sp\(^2\) hybridisation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Hence option (1) is the correct pair of sp\(^2\) species.
Quick Tip: Hybridisation = steric number; if steric number is 3, hybridisation is sp\(^2\).


Question 8:

In the light of the given statements, choose the most appropriate answer:


Statement–I: Sulphur exists as monoclinic and rhombic form having S\(_8\) unit but O\(_2\) do not have.

Statement–II: Because \(\pi n\)–\(\pi n\) bond is present in O\(_2\) but not present in sulphur.

  • (1) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are false
  • (2) Statement–I is false but Statement–II is true
  • (3) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are true
  • (4) Statement–I is true but Statement–II is false
Correct Answer: (4) Statement–I is true but Statement–II is false
View Solution




Step 1: Checking Statement–I.

Sulphur exists as S\(_8\) molecules in both monoclinic and rhombic forms. Oxygen does not exist as S\(_8\)-type rings; it exists as O\(_2\) molecules. So Statement–I is true.


Step 2: Checking Statement–II.

The statement claims that O\(_2\) has a \(\pi n\)–\(\pi n\) bond and sulphur does not. But O\(_2\) has a \(\pi\)–\(\pi\) bond (p–p overlap), not \(\pi n\)–\(\pi n\).

Sulphur does not form O\(_2\)-type double bonds due to large atomic size and prefers S–S single bonds forming S\(_8\) rings. So Statement–II is false.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect → option (4).
Quick Tip: Oxygen forms O=O double bonds, but sulphur prefers single S–S bonds forming cyclic S\(_8\) rings.


Question 9:

Statement–I: r = k[A]\(^2\)[B] on doubling concentration rate becomes x times.





Find the value of x + y.


Question 10:

Equal volume of 1 M HCl and 1 M H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) neutralized by dilute NaOH and heat released is x and y kcal respectively. Which is correct?

  • (1) x = y
  • (2) x = 0.5 y
  • (3) x = 0.4 y
  • (4) x = 2y

Question 11:

What is the decreasing order of pKa value for the given phenolic compounds?



  • (1) I > II > III > IV
  • (2) IV > III > I > II
  • (3) IV > III > I > II
  • (4) I > II > IV > III
Correct Answer: (2) IV > III > I > II
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding effect on acidity.

Lower pKa = stronger acid.
Electron-withdrawing groups increase acidity → decrease pKa.
Electron-donating groups decrease acidity → increase pKa.


Step 2: Analyse each group.

Compound IV (p-OCH\(_3\)): +M donating → least acidic → highest pKa.

Compound III (m-NO\(_2\)): NO\(_2\) at meta has –I effect → moderately acidic → moderate pKa.

Compound I (phenol): baseline acidity.

Compound II (p-NO\(_2\)): strong –M \& –I group → most acidic → lowest pKa.


Step 3: Arrange in decreasing pKa.

Highest pKa → lowest acidic: IV > III > I > II.
Quick Tip: Electron-withdrawing groups decrease pKa of phenols; donating groups increase pKa.


Question 12:

How many of the following are essential \(\alpha\)-amino acids?


(1) Histidine

(2) Arginine

(3) Lysine

(4) Valine

(5) Proline

(6) Glutamic acid

(7) Phenyl alanine

(8) Tryptophan

(9) Glycine

Correct Answer: 5
View Solution




Step 1: List of essential amino acids.

Essential amino acids include: Histidine, Lysine, Valine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan, Leucine, Isoleucine, Threonine, Methionine.


Step 2: Match with given list.

Histidine → essential

Arginine → semi-essential (not counted)

Lysine → essential

Valine → essential

Proline → non-essential

Glutamic acid → non-essential

Phenylalanine → essential

Tryptophan → essential

Glycine → non-essential


Step 3: Conclusion.

Total essential amino acids present = 5.
Quick Tip: Remember the mnemonic: PVT TIM HALL → all essential amino acids.


Question 13:

Chemical formula of compound present in tooth enamel?

  • (1) Ca\(_{10}\)(PO\(_4\))\(_6\)F\(_2\)
  • (2) Ca\(_8\)(PO\(_4\))\(_4\)F\(_2\)
  • (3) Ca\(_6\)(PO\(_4\))\(_2\)F\(_2\)
  • (4) Ca\(_8\)(PO\(_4\))\(_6\)F\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (1) Ca\(_{10}\)(PO\(_4\))\(_6\)F\(_2\)
View Solution




Step 1: Identify tooth enamel composition.

Tooth enamel primarily contains fluorapatite, a fluoride-containing hydroxyapatite derivative.


Step 2: Standard formula.

The chemical formula of fluorapatite is Ca\(_{10}\)(PO\(_4\))\(_6\)F\(_2\).


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct option is (1).
Quick Tip: Fluoride replaces OH\(^-\) in hydroxyapatite, strengthening tooth enamel.


Question 14:

Consider the following electronic configurations:

Cu\(^{2+}\) = [Ar] 3d\(^9\) 4s\(^0\)

Cu\(^{+}\) = [Ar] 3d\(^{10}\) 4s\(^0\)


Which option is correct?

  • (1) Cu\(^{2+}\) is more stable in aqueous solution
  • (2) Cu\(^{+}\) is more stable in aqueous solution
  • (3) Cu\(^{+}\) and Cu\(^{2+}\) are equally stable in aqueous solution
  • (4) Depends upon copper salt
Correct Answer: (1) Cu\(^{2+}\) is more stable in aqueous solution
View Solution




Step 1: Analyse electronic configuration.

Cu\(^{+}\) has 3d\(^{10}\) → stable but less hydrated in water.

Cu\(^{2+}\) has 3d\(^9\) → strong hydration due to high charge density.


Step 2: Hydration enthalpy effect.

Cu\(^{2+}\) has very high hydration energy, stabilising it strongly in aqueous medium.

Cu\(^{+}\) readily undergoes disproportionation:

2Cu\(^+\) → Cu\(^{2+}\) + Cu (s).


Step 3: Conclusion.

Cu\(^{2+}\) is more stable in aqueous solutions.
Quick Tip: High hydration enthalpy stabilises higher oxidation states of transition metals in water.


Question 15:

Predict the basic strength order:



  • (1) iii > i > ii
  • (2) i > iii > ii
  • (3) iii > ii > i
  • (4) ii > i > iii
Correct Answer: (2) i > iii > ii
View Solution




Step 1: Compare electron availability for protonation.

(i) Cyclohexylamine: Aliphatic amines are strongly basic → highest basicity.

(ii) Aniline: Lone pair delocalised into benzene ring → least basic.

(iii) Pyridine: Lone pair is not part of aromatic sextet → moderately basic.


Step 2: Arrange in decreasing basic strength.

Aliphatic amine > heterocyclic amine > aromatic amine


Step 3: Conclusion.

Correct basicity order: i > iii > ii.
Quick Tip: Aromatic amines are least basic due to delocalisation of lone pair.


Question 16:

Heat of solution of CuSO\(_4\)(s) and CuSO\(_4\cdot\)5H\(_2\)O(s) is –72 and 12 kJ/mol respectively.
Molar heat of hydration of anhydrous CuSO\(_4\) is:

Correct Answer: 84 kJ/mol
View Solution




Step 1: Write the thermochemical relation.

CuSO\(_4\)(s) + 5H\(_2\)O → CuSO\(_4\cdot\)5H\(_2\)O(s)

The heat of hydration = \(\Delta\)H(soln, hydrated) – \(\Delta\)H(soln, anhydrous).


Step 2: Substitute values.

Heat of solution:

CuSO\(_4\)(s) = –72 kJ/mol

CuSO\(_4\cdot\)5H\(_2\)O(s) = +12 kJ/mol


Heat of hydration = 12 – (–72) = 84 kJ/mol.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the molar heat of hydration is 84 kJ/mol.
Quick Tip: Hydration enthalpy = (heat of solution of hydrated salt) – (heat of solution of anhydrous salt).


Question 17:

Given E\(^\circ\) = 1.33 V.

For Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\) + 14H\(^+\) + 6e\(^-\) → 2Cr\(^{3+}\) + 7H\(_2\)O

How many of the following will oxidise: Fe, Ni, Cr, Cu, Ag, Au?

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution




Step 1: Compare reduction potential.

Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\)/Cr\(^{3+}\) has E\(^\circ\) = +1.33 V → strong oxidising agent.
Any metal with lower reduction potential than 1.33 V gets oxidised.


Step 2: Standard potentials (approx values).

Fe\(^{2+}\)/Fe = –0.44 V → oxidised

Ni\(^{2+}\)/Ni = –0.25 V → oxidised

Cr\(^{3+}\)/Cr = –0.74 V → oxidised

Cu\(^{2+}\)/Cu = +0.34 V → not oxidised

Ag\(^{+}\)/Ag = +0.80 V → not oxidised

Au\(^{3+}\)/Au = +1.50 V → not oxidised


Step 3: Conclusion.

Only Fe, Ni and Cr will oxidise → total = 3.
Quick Tip: A metal is oxidised if its E\(^\circ\) value is lower than the oxidising agent’s E\(^\circ\).


Question 18:






Correct Answer: (1) Benzaldehyde
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the reaction.

CO + HCl + AlCl\(_3\) on benzene produces benzaldehyde.
This is the Gattermann–Koch reaction.


Step 2: Mechanism overview.

CO + HCl + AlCl\(_3\) generate formyl chloride (HCOCl) in situ.
This formyl chloride performs electrophilic substitution on benzene forming benzaldehyde.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The product is benzaldehyde → option (1).
Quick Tip: Gattermann–Koch reaction always converts benzene → benzaldehyde using CO/HCl/AlCl\(_3\).


Question 19:

Identify the correct product for the below given reaction:







Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution




Step 1: First step – Friedel–Crafts acylation.

Benzene reacts with phthalic anhydride in the presence of AlCl\(_3\) forming benzoyl-benzoic acid derivative (P).


Step 2: Second step – Clemmensen reduction (Zn-Hg/HCl).

The carbonyl group is reduced to CH\(_2\) forming ortho-phenyl toluene derivative (Q).


Step 3: Third step – Intramolecular cyclisation with conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\).

The –CH\(_2\) group and the benzene ring undergo intramolecular Friedel–Crafts cyclisation producing a fused bicyclic hydrocarbons system.
This gives tetralin-type compound → option (2).


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct final product is structure (2).
Quick Tip: Phthalic anhydride + benzene + AlCl\(_3\) often leads to fused-ring hydrocarbons after reduction and cyclisation.


Question 20:

Identify electrolyte type for curves I and II from the given graph.



  • (1) Strong electrolyte \hspace{0.2cm} Weak electrolyte
  • (2) Weak electrolyte \hspace{0.2cm} Strong electrolyte
  • (3) Strong electrolyte \hspace{0.2cm} Strong electrolyte
  • (4) Weak electrolyte \hspace{0.2cm} Weak electrolyte
Correct Answer: (1) Strong electrolyte – Weak electrolyte
View Solution




Step 1: Analyse curve I.

Curve I shows nearly constant molar conductivity with decrease in concentration.
This is characteristic of strong electrolytes, which dissociate completely.


Step 2: Analyse curve II.

Curve II shows a steep increase of molar conductivity at low concentration.
This is characteristic of weak electrolytes, whose ionisation increases sharply at low concentration.


Step 3: Conclusion.

I = Strong electrolyte; II = Weak electrolyte.
Quick Tip: Strong electrolytes show slight change in molar conductivity; weak electrolytes show a steep rise at low concentration.


Question 21:

Method of purification of compounds depends on:

  • (1) Impurity
  • (2) Nature of compound and impurity
  • (3) Nature of compound
  • (4) Does not depend on impurity

Question 22:

Identify products P and Q.







Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution




Step 1: Product P from acid-catalysed hydration.

CH\(_3\)–CH=CH\(_2\) (propene) reacts with H\(_2\)O/H\(^+\) via Markovnikov addition.

OH attaches to the more substituted carbon → forms 2-propanol (CH\(_3\)–CH(OH)–CH\(_3\)).


Step 2: Product Q from hydroboration–oxidation.

Hydroboration–oxidation gives anti-Markovnikov alcohol.

Thus OH attaches to terminal carbon → forms 1-propanol (CH\(_3\)–CH\(_2\)–CH\(_2\)OH).


Step 3: Conclusion.

P = 2-propanol, Q = 1-propanol → matches option (2).
Quick Tip: Hydration gives Markovnikov alcohol; hydroboration–oxidation always gives anti-Markovnikov alcohol.


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JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 Chemistry Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Sectional Time Duration None
Total Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 30 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 25 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper