JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 exam from 3 PM to 6 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the Jan 29 Shift 2 exam is available for download using the link below.
Related Links:
- JEE Main 2025 Question Paper pdf with solutions
- JEE Main Previous Years Question Paper with Solution PDF
JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper PDF Download
| JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions PDF | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Chemistry Questions with Solutions
Which of the following compounds can show geometrical isomerism (G.I.)?
What is the oxidation number of iron in the complex formed during the brown ring test of nitrate ion?
View Solution
Step 1: Formula of the complex.
The brown ring complex formed is:
\[ [Fe(H_2O)_5NO]SO_4 \]
Step 2: Calculate oxidation number.
Let oxidation state of Fe = x.
In the nitrosyl ligand (NO), oxidation state is +1 when NO is linear (common in brown ring complex).
Total charge of the complex ion = +1 (because SO\(_4^{2-}\) balances it to make the compound neutral).
Thus:
\[ x + 1 = +2 \Rightarrow x = +1 \]
Step 3: Conclusion.
Iron is present in the +1 oxidation state in the brown ring complex.
Quick Tip: In the brown ring complex, NO acts as a linear nitrosyl ligand with an oxidation state of +1, giving Fe its +1 oxidation state.
Which reagent is used to obtain a red colour with Ni\(^{2+}\) ions?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Ni\(^{2+}\) test.
Nickel(II) ions form a characteristic red precipitate with dimethylglyoxime (DMG).
Step 2: Reaction.
\[ 2\,DMG + Ni^{2+} \rightarrow Ni(DMG)_2 + 2H^+ \]
The product is a bright red chelate complex.
Step 3: Conclusion.
Since Ni(DMG)\(_2\) gives a red precipitate, the correct reagent is dimethylglyoxime.
Quick Tip: Ni\(^{2+}\) gives a red precipitate only with dimethylglyoxime — this is one of the most important qualitative inorganic tests.
Phenol is reacted with chloroform in the presence of NaOH and the obtained product is hydrolyzed with acid. The final product formed is:
View Solution
Step 1: Name of reaction.
This is the Reimer–Tiemann reaction, where phenol reacts with CHCl\(_3\) + NaOH to give an aldehyde group at the ortho position.
Step 2: Reaction.
Phenol + CHCl\(_3\) + NaOH → Ortho-formyl phenol (salicylaldehyde) after acidic hydrolysis.
\[ Phenol \xrightarrow[NaOH]{CHCl_3, 343 K} Ortho-formyl phenoxide \xrightarrow[H^+]{} Salicylaldehyde \]
Step 3: Conclusion.
The major final product is salicylaldehyde.
Quick Tip: Reimer–Tiemann reaction converts phenol to salicylaldehyde by introducing –CHO at the ortho position.
Which ion gives a brownish colour with Nessler’s reagent?
View Solution
Step 1: Principle of Nessler’s test.
Nessler’s reagent reacts with ammonia (NH\(_3\)) or ammonium ions (NH\(_4^+\)) to produce a brown precipitate.
Step 2: Reaction.
\[ 2K_2HgI_4 + NH_3 + 3KOH \rightarrow HgO\cdot Hg(NH_2)I + 7KI + 2H_2O \]
This brown precipitate confirms NH\(_4^+\)/NH\(_3\).
Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, ammonium ion gives the characteristic brown coloration.
Quick Tip: Nessler’s reagent detects NH\(_4^+\) or NH\(_3\) by forming a brown precipitate of basic mercuric amido-iodide.
Arrange the following compounds according to increasing pKa value:
a. Phenol
b. Meta-nitrophenol
c. Para-nitrophenol
d. Ethanol
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding pKa.
Lower pKa means stronger acid. Nitro groups are strong electron-withdrawing groups and increase acidity.
Step 2: Compare given acids.
- Nitro phenols are stronger acids than phenol.
- Between meta and para nitrophenol, para is more acidic because of better resonance stabilization.
- Ethanol is the weakest acid (highest pKa).
Thus:
Weakest acid (highest pKa) = Ethanol (d)
Then Phenol (a)
Then Meta-nitrophenol (b)
Strongest acid (lowest pKa) = Para-nitrophenol (c)
Step 3: Final Order (increasing acidity / decreasing pKa):
d > a > b > c
Quick Tip: Electron-withdrawing groups decrease pKa and increase acidity; para position shows stronger effect than meta.
Which among the following ions is the best reducing agent?
IUPAC Name of the compound is
View Solution
Step 1: Identify parent ring and functional groups.
The structure shows a cyclohexene ring with an OH group attached.
Step 2: Numbering the ring.
The OH group receives the lowest possible locant. Numbering starts from OH-bearing carbon.
Double bond gets the next lowest number. Hence position of the double bond = 2.
Step 3: Final IUPAC Name.
Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
Quick Tip: Always give priority to the OH group while numbering rings containing double bonds.
Why does oxygen show anomalous behaviour in group 16 of the periodic table?
How many of the following compounds have zero dipole moment: NH\(_3\), H\(_2\)O, HF, CO\(_2\), SO\(_2\), BF\(_3\), CH\(_4\)?
View Solution
Step 1: Determine molecular shape and symmetry.
NH\(_3\) → trigonal pyramidal → dipole \(\ne\) 0
H\(_2\)O → bent → dipole \(\ne\) 0
HF → polar → dipole \(\ne\) 0
CO\(_2\) → linear \& symmetrical → dipole = 0
SO\(_2\) → bent → dipole \(\ne\) 0
BF\(_3\) → trigonal planar \& symmetrical → dipole = 0
CH\(_4\) → tetrahedral \& symmetrical → dipole = 0
Step 2: Count species with zero dipole moment.
CO\(_2\), BF\(_3\), CH\(_4\) → 3 compounds
Step 3: Final Answer.
There are 3 molecules with zero dipole moment.
Quick Tip: Highly symmetrical molecules (linear, tetrahedral, trigonal planar) usually have zero dipole moment.
Statement 1 (S\(_1\)): Fluorine (F) has the highest electron gain enthalpy (EGE) in its group.
Statement 2 (S\(_2\)): Oxygen (O) has the second most electron gain enthalpy in its group.
View Solution
Step 1: Identify the reaction.
Phenolic –OH groups undergo Reimer–Tiemann formylation with CHCl\(_3\)/NaOH.
Step 2: Mechanism summary.
CHCl\(_3\) + NaOH → Dichlorocarbene (CCl\(_2\)).
This attacks ortho position of phenoxide.
Step 3: Hydrolysis step.
Final acidic hydrolysis converts –CCl\(_2\) into –CHO.
Conclusion: The major product is an ortho-formyl derivative of the cyclohexanol ring.
Quick Tip: Reimer–Tiemann always introduces an aldehyde (–CHO) group ortho to –OH group.
S\(_1\): Rutherford said that mass is concentrated at the centre and charge is distributed.
S\(_2\): Electrons are clustered around the nucleus.
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Rutherford's nuclear model.
He proposed that:
- All mass and positive charge are concentrated at the nucleus.
- Electrons revolve around the nucleus in empty space.
Step 2: Evaluation.
S\(_1\) → true.
S\(_2\) → false, because electrons are NOT clustered; they revolve in orbits.
Conclusion: Only S\(_1\) is correct.
Quick Tip: Rutherford discovered the nucleus; electrons occupy mostly empty space around it.
How many antibonding electrons are present in the 1s and 2p orbitals of a diatomic \(\alpha\) molecule?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify \(\alpha\) molecule.
In JEE terminology, \(\alpha\) usually refers to He\(_2\) molecule (or a similar MO example).
Step 2: MO configuration.
For He\(_2\): 4 electrons total →
\(\sigma\)1s (2), \(\sigma\)1s* (2).
Thus antibonding electrons = 2.
Step 3: Final Answer.
Number of antibonding electrons = 2.
Quick Tip: Bond order = (bonding \(-\) antibonding)/2; negative or zero BO → molecule unstable.
Find the total number of \(\sigma\) and \(\pi\) bonds in 2-formylhex-4-enoic acid.
View Solution
Structure: CH\(_3\)–CH=CH–CH\(_2\)–CH(CHO)–COOH
Step 1: Count \(\pi\) bonds.
C=C → 1
C=O (aldehyde) → 1
C=O (acid) → 1
Total \(\pi\) = 3
Step 2: Count \(\sigma\) bonds.
All single bonds (C–C, C–H, O–H, C–O, C–H).
Sum = 18 \(\sigma\) bonds.
Conclusion: 18 \(\sigma\) and 3 \(\pi\) bonds.
Quick Tip: Every double bond contributes 1 \(\sigma\) + 1 \(\pi\); single bonds contribute only \(\sigma\).
A radioactive substance has a half-life of 36 hours. How much of it remains after 1 day?
View Solution
Step 1: Convert 1 day to hours.
1 day = 24 hours.
Step 2: Apply decay formula.
Fraction remaining = \(\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)^{t/t_{1/2}}\)
\[ \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{24/36} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2/3} \approx 0.63 \]
Step 3: Final Answer.
About 62.5% of the substance remains after 1 day.
Quick Tip: Use \(N = N_0(1/2)^{t/t_{1/2}}\) for half-life decay calculations.
Give the IUPAC name of K\(_2\)[MnO\(_4\)] according to coordination chemistry.
View Solution
Step 1: Identify oxidation state of Mn.
K\(_2\)[MnO\(_4\)]: each O = −2 → O\(_4\) = −8.
Complex ion charge = −2 → Mn = +6.
Step 2: Naming.
Anionic complex → use “-ate” suffix.
Thus name: Potassium manganate(VI).
Quick Tip: Anionic complexes always end with “-ate”—MnO\(_4^{2-\) is manganate; MnO\(_4^{-}\) is permanganate.
Which of the following is a strong reducing agent?
View Solution
Step 1: Concept.
A strong reducing agent is easily oxidized to a more stable oxidation state.
Step 2: Analysis.
Among lanthanides, +2 oxidation states are generally unstable. Ho\(^{2+}\) is extremely unstable and readily oxidizes to Ho\(^{3+}\) (a stable state), making it a strong reducing agent.
Ce\(^{4+}\) is a strong oxidizing agent (not reducing).
Ga\(^{3+\) and Tb\(^{3+}\) are stable and not good reducing agents.
Conclusion: Ho\(^{2+}\) is the strongest reducing agent.
Quick Tip: Unstable +2 lanthanide ions are excellent reducing agents because they oxidize to stable +3 states.
How many antibonding electrons are present in the 1s and 2p orbitals of a diatomic \(\alpha\) molecule?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify \(\alpha\).
In standard JEE problems, \(\alpha\) represents He\(_2\) (the classic MO example).
Step 2: MO configuration of He\(_2\).
Total electrons = 4.
Filling order: \(\sigma\)1s (2), \(\sigma\)1s* (2).
Thus, antibonding electrons = 2.
Conclusion: He\(_2\) contains 2 antibonding electrons.
Quick Tip: He\(_2\) is unstable because antibonding electrons cancel bonding electrons → BO = 0.
Find the molality of 0.8 M H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) solution (density = 1.06 g/cm\(^3\)). Give the answer in \(\times 10^{-3}\) units.
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of molality.
\[ m = \frac{moles of solute}{mass of solvent in kg} \]
Step 2: Given Molarity = 0.8 M.
Means 0.8 moles in 1 L solution.
Step 3: Mass of 1 L solution.
Density = 1.06 g/mL → mass = 1060 g.
Step 4: Mass of solute.
Molecular mass H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) = 98 g/mol.
Mass of 0.8 mol = 0.8 × 98 = 78.4 g.
Step 5: Mass of solvent.
Mass of water = 1060 – 78.4 = 981.6 g = 0.9816 kg.
Step 6: Molality.
\[ m = \frac{0.8}{0.9816} \approx 0.815 \]
Converted into \(10^{-3}\) units:
\[ m = 8.15 \times 10^{-1} = 815 \times 10^{-3} \]
Given solution formula from image:
\[ m = \frac{1000M}{M H_2SO_4 - 1000d} \]
\[ m = \frac{1000 \times 0.8}{0.8 \times 98 \times 10^{3} \times 1.06} \]
Final: \(m \approx 7.48 \times 10^{-3}\) mol/kg.
Quick Tip: Molality depends only on solvent mass, not solution volume — useful for temperature-dependent processes.
Which of the following elements has the highest first ionization energy?
Match the following:
(A) Lyman \hspace{0.5cm (I) IR
(B) Balmer \hspace{0.5cm (II) IR
(C) Paschen \hspace{0.5cm (III) Visible
(D) Pfund \hspace{0.5cm (IV) UV
If standard enthalpy of vaporization of CCl\(_4\) is 30.5 kJ/mol, find the heat absorbed for vaporization of 294 g of CCl\(_4\). (Nearest integer) [Answer in kJ]
View Solution
Step 1: Molar mass of CCl\(_4\).
C = 12 g/mol, Cl = 35.5 g/mol × 4 = 142 g/mol
Molar mass = 12 + 142 = 154 g/mol
Step 2: Convert mass to moles.
\[ Moles = \frac{294}{154} \approx 1.91 \]
Step 3: Heat absorbed.
\[ q = n \Delta H_{vap} \] \[ q = 1.91 \times 30.5 \approx 58.2 kJ \]
Step 4: Nearest integer.
58 kJ.
Quick Tip: Always convert mass to moles before using enthalpy of vaporization or fusion values.
50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is completely neutralized by 25 mL of a NaOH solution. Find the amount of NaOH (in grams) present in 25 mL of this NaOH solution.
View Solution
Step 1: Moles of oxalic acid.
Oxalic acid is dibasic (H\(_2\)C\(_2\)O\(_4\)).
\[ n = M \times V = 0.5 \times 0.050 = 0.025 mol \]
Step 2: Relation with NaOH.
Oxalic acid neutralizes NaOH as: \[ H_2C_2O_4 + 2NaOH \rightarrow Na_2C_2O_4 + 2H_2O \]
Thus 1 mol oxalic acid requires 2 mol NaOH.
Required NaOH moles: \[ n_{NaOH} = 2 \times 0.025 = 0.050 mol \]
Step 3: Mass of NaOH (M = 40 g/mol).
\[ m = 0.05 \times 40 = 2.0 g \]
But this mass is present in 25 mL of solution?
Yes, because that entire 25 mL neutralized the acid.
Therefore, the amount of NaOH in 25 mL = \(\boxed{2.0 g}\).
(If the teacher considered monoacidic mistake, they may use 1 g — but the chemically correct solution is 2 g.)
Quick Tip: Oxalic acid is dibasic → always multiply its moles by 2 to get required NaOH moles.
Match the following:
(A) Starch \hspace{1cm (I) Peptide linkage
(B) Cellulose \hspace{1cm (II) \(\alpha\)-D-glycosidic linkage
(C) Proteins \hspace{1cm (III) \(\beta\)-D-glycosidic linkage
(D) Nucleic acids \hspace{1cm (IV) Nucleotide
A → II
B → III
C → I
D → IV
View Solution
Step 1: Understand biomolecule linkages.
Starch → \(\alpha\)-D-glucose → \(\alpha\)-glycosidic linkage.
Cellulose → \(\beta\)-D-glucose → \(\beta\)-glycosidic linkage.
Proteins → amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
Nucleic acids → polymer of nucleotides.
Step 2: Match.
(A) Starch → (II) \(\alpha\)-D-glycosidic linkage
(B) Cellulose → (III) \(\beta\)-D-glycosidic linkage
(C) Proteins → (I) Peptide linkage
(D) Nucleic acids → (IV) Nucleotide (polymer of)
Quick Tip: Starch = alpha linkage, cellulose = beta linkage, proteins = peptide bonds, nucleic acids = nucleotides.
Also Check:
| JEE Main 2024 Paper Analysis | JEE Main 2024 Answer Key |
| JEE Main 2024 Cutoff | JEE Main 2024 Marks vs Rank |
JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper by Coaching Institute
| Coaching Institutes | Question Paper with Solutions PDF |
|---|---|
| Aakash BYJUs | Download PDF |
| Reliable Institute | To be updated |
| Resonance | To be updated |
| Vedantu | To be updated |
| Sri Chaitanya | To be updated |
| FIIT JEE | To be updated |
JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Chemistry Paper Analysis
JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.
JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern
| Feature | Question Paper Pattern |
|---|---|
| Examination Mode | Computer-based Test |
| Exam Language | 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu) |
| Sectional Time Duration | None |
| Total Marks | 100 marks |
| Total Number of Questions Asked | 30 Questions |
| Total Number of Questions to be Answered | 25 questions |
| Type of Questions | MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions |
| Section-wise Number of Questions | 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, |
| Marking Scheme | +4 for each correct answer |
| Negative Marking | -1 for each incorrect answer |
Read More:
- JEE Main 2024 question paper pattern and marking scheme
- Most important chapters in JEE Mains 2024, Check chapter wise weightage here
| Exam Date and Shift | Question Paper PDF |
|---|---|
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 24 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 27 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 27 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 31 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 31 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 2 | Check Here |










Comments