JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 exam from 3 PM to 6 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the Jan 30 Shift 2 exam is available for download using the link below.

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JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Chemistry Questions with Solution


Question 1:

Why KMnO₄ shows colour?

  • (1) Due to d-d transition
  • (2) Due to metal to ligand charge transfer
  • (3) Due to ligand to metal charge transfer
  • (4) Due to F-center
Correct Answer: (3) Due to ligand to metal charge transfer
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Color Formation.

KMnO₄ (Potassium Permanganate) shows color due to the transition of a nonbonding 2p oxygen electron to the vacant molecular orbital of a tetrahedral complex. This type of transition involves ligand-to-metal charge transfer, which occurs when an electron moves from the ligand (oxygen) to the metal ion (Mn), leading to a characteristic color.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The transition from ligand to metal causes the color in KMnO₄. Quick Tip: Color in transition metal compounds is often due to electronic transitions between d-orbitals or ligand to metal charge transfer.


Question 2:

C is added to solution of A and B, find mole fraction of C.

  • (1) \( \frac{n_c}{(n_A + n_B + n_C)} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{n_c}{(n_A + n_B + n_C)} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{n_c}{(n_A + n_B)} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{n_c}{(n_A + n_B + n_C)} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{n_c}{(n_A + n_B + n_C)} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Mole Fraction Formula.

The mole fraction is given by the formula: \[ Mole fraction of component = \frac{moles of one component}{Total moles of all components}. \]
In this case, for component C: \[ x_C = \frac{n_C}{n_A + n_B + n_C}. \]

Step 2: Conclusion.

The mole fraction of C is \( \frac{n_C}{n_A + n_B + n_C} \), which is the correct answer. Quick Tip: The mole fraction of a component in a solution is the ratio of the moles of that component to the total moles of all components.


Question 3:

IUPAC name of compound:

  • (1) 2-Methylbutyne
  • (2) 3-Methylbut-1-yne
  • (3) 2-Methylbutene
  • (4) 3-Methylbutane
Correct Answer: (2) 3-Methylbut-1-yne
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Structure.

The given compound is \( CH_3 - CH = C - CH_3 \), which is an alkyne with a triple bond between the second and third carbon atoms. The numbering starts from the left to give the lowest possible number to the triple bond.

Step 2: Naming the Compound.

The compound has 4 carbon atoms, which makes it a butyne. The position of the triple bond is at the 1st carbon (counting from the left). A methyl group is attached to the third carbon.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct IUPAC name is 3-Methylbut-1-yne, as the triple bond is at position 1, and the methyl group is at position 3. Quick Tip: When naming organic compounds, always prioritize giving the lowest number to functional groups like triple or double bonds.


Question 4:

Which reagent on reacting with phenol gives salicylaldehyde?

  • (1) \( CO_2 , \, NaOH \)
  • (2) \( CHCl_3 , \, NaOH \)
  • (3) \( CCl_4 , \, NaOH \)
  • (4) \( H_2O, \, H^+ \)

Question 5:

Which of the following has a square pyramidal shape?

  • (1) \( ClF_3 \)
  • (2) \( BrF_5 \)
  • (3) \( XeF_4 \)
  • (4) \( NH_3 \)

Question 6:

Statement I: NH₃ has lower dipole moment than NF₃.

Statement II: In NF₃, the flow of electron is in the same direction.

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
  • (4) Both statement I and statement II are true
Correct Answer: (1) Both statement I and statement II are false
View Solution

Step 1: Dipole Moment in NH₃ and NF₃.

In \( NH₃ \), the nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons and the dipole moment is directed upwards due to the electronegativity difference between nitrogen and hydrogen. In \( NF₃ \), however, the fluorine atoms, being highly electronegative, pull electron density away from nitrogen, but the molecular shape leads to the cancellation of dipole moments. This results in a lower dipole moment in \( NF₃ \) compared to \( NH₃ \), contrary to Statement I.

Step 2: Direction of Electron Flow.

In \( NF₃ \), the electron flow is directed from nitrogen to fluorine because fluorine is more electronegative, not in the same direction as stated in Statement II.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Both statements are false. Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is also incorrect. Quick Tip: The dipole moment in molecules depends on both the electronegativity difference and the molecular geometry.


Question 7:

Identify A and B.

  • (1) \( OH \)
  • (2) \( OH \)
  • (3) \( OH \)
  • (4) \( OH \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{OH} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Reaction.

The first reaction involves the formation of an intermediate in a chemical reaction, likely involving a substitution or addition reaction. The second reaction involves the transformation of the molecule into a different structure with the help of reagents like \( B_2H_6 \), which are typical in hydroboration reactions.

Step 2: Identifying the Products.

Both \( A \) and \( B \) involve hydroboration or related reactions, which typically result in alcohols as the products.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct identification for both \( A \) and \( B \) is \( OH \). Quick Tip: Reactions involving \( B_2H_6 \) typically lead to the formation of alcohols through hydroboration.


Question 8:

What happens when phenol is treated with chloroform in the presence of NaOH at 343 K followed by hydrolysis?

  • (1) Salicylic Acid
  • (2) Salicylaldehyde
  • (3) Benzaldehyde
  • (4) Benzoic acid
Correct Answer: (3) Benzaldehyde
View Solution

Step 1: Reaction Mechanism.

The reaction between phenol and chloroform in the presence of NaOH at 343 K undergoes a reaction known as the Reimer-Tiemann reaction. This reaction leads to the formation of salicylaldehyde.

Step 2: Hydrolysis.

After the reaction with chloroform and NaOH, the product is subjected to hydrolysis, which results in the formation of salicylaldehyde.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The final product is benzaldehyde, formed after the hydrolysis step. Quick Tip: The Reimer-Tiemann reaction is commonly used to introduce a formyl group (-CHO) into an aromatic compound, particularly phenols.


Question 9:

When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 10:

Correct IUPAC name the given compound is:

  • (1) 3-aminobutanenitrile
  • (2) 3-amino cyano butane
  • (3) 2-aminobutanenitrile
  • (4) 1-aminobutanenitrile

Question 11:

Find B:


  • (1) p-hydroxy azobenzene
  • (2) o-hydroxy azobenzene
  • (3) m-hydroxy azobenzene
  • (4) Azodye
Correct Answer: (1) p-hydroxy azobenzene
View Solution

Step 1: Reaction Mechanism.

In this reaction, the amine group (-NH\(_2\)) of the aniline undergoes diazotization with nitrous acid (\( NaNO_2/HCl \)) after the nitration of phenol. This leads to the formation of the azobenzene compound.

Step 2: Product Identification.

The reaction conditions lead to the formation of p-hydroxy azobenzene due to the position of the substituents in the aromatic ring.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct product formed is p-hydroxy azobenzene. Quick Tip: In diazotization reactions, an amine group reacts with nitrous acid to form a diazonium ion, which can then undergo further reactions.


Question 12:

In the given reaction A and B respectively are:
\[ CrO_3 \, Cl_2 + NaOH \quad \rightarrow \quad A + NaCl + H_2O \] \[ H_2SO_4 + A + H_2O_2 \quad \rightarrow \quad B \]

  • (1) Na\(_2\)CrO\(_4\) and CrO\(_5\)
  • (2) CrO\(_3\) and Na\(_2\)CrO\(_3\)
  • (3) CrO\(_4\) and Na\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\)
  • (4) Na\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\) and Na\(_2\)CrO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (1) Na\(_2\)CrO\(_4\) and CrO\(_5\)
View Solution

Step 1: Reaction of CrO\(_3\) and NaOH.

When chromium trioxide (\( CrO_3 \)) reacts with chlorine and sodium hydroxide, sodium chromate (\( Na_2CrO_4 \)) and sodium chloride are produced along with water.

Step 2: Reaction of Sodium Chromate.

When sodium chromate reacts with sulfuric acid and hydrogen peroxide, chromium pentoxide (\( CrO_5 \)) is formed.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is Na\(_2\)CrO\(_4\) and CrO\(_5\). Quick Tip: Chromium compounds like \( CrO_3 \) and \( Na_2CrO_4 \) are important in oxidation reactions, especially in organic synthesis.


Question 13:

_______ is based on the difference in the solubility of different components of a mixture with a solvent.

  • (1) Filtration
  • (2) Sublimation
  • (3) Crystallization
  • (4) Chromatography
Correct Answer: (4) Chromatography
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Chromatography.

Chromatography is a technique used to separate components of a mixture based on their different solubilities in a given solvent. It relies on the differential interaction of the components with the stationary phase and the mobile phase.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, chromatography is the method that separates components based on solubility differences. Quick Tip: Chromatography is used to separate substances in a mixture by passing it through a medium in which components move at different rates.


Question 14:

What is the structure of \( Mn_2(CO)_{10} \)?

  • (1) Two square pyramidal units joined by bridging CO ligands
  • (2) Two square pyramidal units joined by Mn-Mn bond
  • (3) Two tetrahedral units joined by Mn-Mn bond
  • (4) Two square planer units joined by Mn-Mn bond

Question 15:

Statement I: \( H_2Te \) is more acidic than \( H_2S \)

Statement II: \( H_2Te \) has more BDE than \( H_2S \)

  • (1) Statement I and II both are correct
  • (2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
  • (4) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (4) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Acidity.

The acidity of hydrides in Group 16 increases as we go down the group. Since \( H_2Te \) is in the same group as \( H_2S \), but below it, it is more acidic than \( H_2S \), making Statement I correct.

Step 2: Bond Dissociation Enthalpy (BDE).

The BDE of \( H_2Te \) is lower than that of \( H_2S \), meaning Statement II is incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. Quick Tip: The acidity of hydrides increases as the atomic size increases because the bond between hydrogen and the heavier element becomes weaker.


Question 16:

Total optically active compound will be shown by these compound:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the Isomers.

The compound in question is \( 2,3 \)-Dichlorobutane. The optical activity of a compound depends on the presence of chiral centers. For \( 2,3 \)-Dichlorobutane, the number of diastereoisomers and enantiomers can be calculated.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The total number of optically active compounds in this case is calculated to be 3, considering the number of stereoisomers and meso forms. Quick Tip: Optically active compounds must have no symmetry elements that lead to internal compensation, such as in meso forms.


Question 17:

Number of spectral lines in the He\(^+\) for transition from \( n = 5 \) to \( n = 1 \):


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JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 Chemistry Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc. 

JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Sectional Time Duration None
Total Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 30 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 25 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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