JEE Main 2025 April 7 Chemistry Question Paper is available for download. NTA conducted JEE Main 2025 Shift 1 B.Tech Exam on 3rd April 2025 from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM and for JEE Main 2025 B.Tech Shift 2 appearing candidates from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2025 3rd April B.Tech Question Paper was Moderate to Tough.

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JEE Main 2025 April 7 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions

JEE Main 2025 April 7 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper Pdf Download PDF View Solution
jee main april 7 shift 2 chemistry

Question 1:

Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : On hydrolysis, oligo peptides give rise to fewer number of \( \alpha \)-amino acids while proteins give rise to a large number of \( \beta \)-amino acids.

Statement (II) : Natural proteins are denatured by acids which convert the water soluble form of fibrous proteins to their water insoluble form.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 2:

Mixture of 1 g each of chlorobenzene, aniline and benzoic acid is dissolved in 50 mL ethyl acetate and placed in a separating funnel, 5 M NaOH (30 mL) was added in the same funnel. The funnel was shaken vigorously and then kept aside. The ethyl acetate layer in the funnel contains :

  • (1) benzoic acid
  • (2) benzoic acid and aniline
  • (3) benzoic acid and chlorobenzene
  • (4) chlorobenzene and aniline

Question 3:

The hydration energies of \( K^+ \) and \( Cl^- \) are \( -x \) and \( -y \) kJ/mol respectively. If lattice energy of KCl is \( -z \) kJ/mol, then the heat of solution of KCl is :

  • (1) \( +x - y - z \)
  • (2) \( x + y + z \)
  • (3) \( z - (x + y) \)
  • (4) \( -z - (x + y) \)

Question 4:

A(g) \( \rightarrow \) B(g) + C(g) is a first order reaction.





The reaction was started with reactant A only. Which of the following expression is correct for rate constant k ?

  • (1) \( k = \frac{1}{t} \ln \frac{2(P_\infty - P_t)}{P_t} \)
  • (2) \( k = \frac{1}{t} \ln \frac{P_\infty}{P_t} \)
  • (3) \( k = \frac{1}{t} \ln \frac{P_\infty}{2(P_\infty - P_t)} \)
  • (4) \( k = \frac{1}{t} \ln \frac{P_\infty}{(P_\infty - P_t)} \)

Question 5:

"P" is an optically active compound with molecular formula \( C_6H_{12}O \). When "P" is treated with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine, it gives a positive test. However, in presence of Tollens reagent, "P" gives a negative test. Predict the structure of "P".



Question 6:

Choose the incorrect trend in the atomic radii (r) of the elements :

  • (1) \( r_{Br} < r_K \)
  • (2) \( r_{Mg} < r_{Al} \)
  • (3) \( r_{Rb} < r_{Cs} \)
  • (4) \( r_{At} < r_{Cs} \)

Question 7:

Match List-I with List-II





Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Question 8:

The correct statement amongst the following is :

  • (1) The term 'standard state' implies that the temperature is \( 0^\circ C \)
  • (2) The standard state of pure gas is the pure gas at a pressure of 1 bar and temperature 273 K
  • (3) \( \Delta_f H_{298}^\ominus \) is zero for O(g)
  • (4) \( \Delta_f H_{500}^\ominus \) is zero for \( O_2(g) \)

Question 9:

Liquid A and B form an ideal solution. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are 350 and 750 mm Hg respectively at the same temperature. If \( x_A \) and \( x_B \) are the mole fraction of A and B in solution while \( y_A \) and \( y_B \) are the mole fraction of A and B in vapour phase then :

  • (1) \( \frac{x_A}{x_B} < \frac{y_A}{y_B} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{x_A}{x_B} = \frac{y_A}{y_B} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{x_A}{x_B} > \frac{y_A}{y_B} \)
  • (4) \( (x_A - y_A) < (x_B - y_B) \)

Question 10:

'X' is the number of acidic oxides among \( VO_2, V_2O_3, CrO_3, V_2O_5 \) and \( Mn_2O_7 \). The primary valency of cobalt in \( [Co(H_2NCH_2CH_2NH_2)_3]_2 (SO_4)_3 \) is Y. The value of X + Y is :

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 11:

The descending order of basicity of following amines is :





Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) \(B > E > D > A > C\)
  • (2) \(E > D > B > A > C\)
  • (3) \(E > D > A > B > C\)
  • (4) \(E > A > D > C > B\)

Question 12:

Match List-I with List-II





Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Question 13:

Match List-I with List-II





Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

Question 14:

In \( SO_2 \), \( NO_2^- \) and \( N_3^- \) the hybridizations at the central atom are respectively :

  • (1) \( sp^2 \), \( sp^2 \) and \( sp \)
  • (2) \( sp^2 \), \( sp \) and \( sp \)
  • (3) \( sp^2 \), \( sp^2 \) and \( sp^2 \)
  • (4) \( sp \), \( sp^2 \) and \( sp \)

Question 15:

The number of unpaired electrons responsible for the paramagnetic nature of the following complex species are respectively : \( [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}, [FeF_6]^{3-}, [CoF_6]^{3-}, [Mn(CN)_6]^{3-} \)

  • (1) 1, 5, 4, 2
  • (2) 1, 5, 5, 2
  • (3) 1, 1, 4, 2
  • (4) 1, 4, 4, 2

Question 16:

The number of optically active products obtained from the complete ozonolysis of the given compound is :


  • (1) 0
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 4

Question 17:

Given below are two statements :





In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • (3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

Question 18:

The extra stability of half-filled subshell is due to

(A) Symmetrical distribution of electrons

(B) Smaller coulombic repulsion energy

(C) The presence of electrons with the same spin in non-degenerate orbitals

(D) Larger exchange energy

(E) Relatively smaller shielding of electrons by one another

Identify the correct statements

  • (1) (B), (D) and (E) only
  • (2) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only
  • (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B) and (D) only

Question 19:

The correct statements from the following are :

(A) \( Tl^{3+} \) is a powerful oxidising agent

(B) \( Al^{3+} \) does not get reduced easily

(C) Both \( Al^{3+} \) and \( Tl^{3+} \) are very stable in solution

(D) \( Tl^+ \) is more stable than \( Tl^{3+} \)

(E) \( Al^{3+} \) and \( Tl^+ \) are highly stable

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
  • (2) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only
  • (3) (B), (D) and (E) only
  • (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

Question 20:

Given below are two statements :

1 M aqueous solution of each of \( Cu(NO_3)_2 \), \( AgNO_3 \), \( Hg_2(NO_3)_2 \); \( Mg(NO_3)_2 \) are electrolysed using inert electrodes,
Given : \( E^0_{Ag^+/Ag} = 0.80V \), \( E^0_{Hg_2^{2+}/Hg} = 0.79V \), \( E^0_{Cu^{2+}/Cu} = 0.34V \) and \( E^0_{Mg^{2+}/Mg} = -2.37V \)

Statement (I) : With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be Ag, Hg and Cu

Statement (II) : Magnesium will not be deposited at cathode instead oxygen gas will be evolved at the cathode.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 21:

Only litre buffer solution was prepared by adding 0.10 mol each of \( NH_3 \) and \( NH_4Cl \) in deionised water. The change in pH on addition of 0.05 mol of HCl to the above solution is _____ \( \times 10^{-2} \), (Nearest integer) (Given : \( pK_b \) of \( NH_3 = 4.745 \) and \( \log_{10}3 = 0.477 \))


Question 22:

In Dumas' method 292 mg of an organic compound released 50 mL of nitrogen gas (\( N_2 \)) at 300 K temperature and 715 mm Hg pressure. The percentage composition of 'N' in the organic compound is _____ % (Nearest integer) (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm Hg)


Question 23:

Butane reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water following the equation given below:

\[ C_4H_{10}(g) + \frac{13}{2} O_2(g) \rightarrow 4CO_2(g) + 5H_2O(l) \]

If 174.0 kg of butane is mixed with 320.0 kg of \( O_2 \), the volume of water formed in litres is _____. (Nearest integer)


[Given: (a) Molar masses: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16 g \( mol^{-1} \); (b) Density of water = 1 g \( mL^{-1} \)]


Question 24:

The number of paramagnetic metal complex species among
\( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}, [Co(C_2O_4)_3]^{3-}, [MnCl_6]^{3-}, [Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}, [CoF_6]^{3-}, [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-} \) and \( [FeF_6]^{3-} \)

with same number of unpaired electrons is _____.


Question 25:

Identify the structure of the final product (D) in the following sequence of the reactions :





Total number of \( sp^2 \) hybridised carbon atoms in product D is _____.