JEE Main 8 April Shift 2 question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here for download. NTA conducted JEE Main 8 April Shift 2 exam from 3:00 PM to 6:30 PM. The question paper for JEE Main 8 April Shift 2 includes 90 questions equally divided into Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Candidates must attempt 75 questions in a 3-hour time duration.

Students who are appeared for JEE Main April 8 Shift 2 Exam can check memory based question paper and difficulty level of the exam on this page. JEE Main 2025 April 8 Shift 2 exam is reported to be easy to moderate. Physics and Chemistry had a lot of NCERT- based questions.

JEE Main 2025 is conducted in various cities across the country, with 15 destinations abroad. In JEE Main April 8 Shift 2 students are required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. 

JEE Main 2025 April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

JEE Main 2025 April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper Pdf Download PDF View Solution
JEE MAIN 2025 April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper Pdf Download

Question 1:

If \( \frac{1}{1^4} + \frac{1}{2^4} + \frac{1}{3^4} + \dots \infty = \frac{\pi^4}{90},\) \( \frac{1}{1^4} + \frac{1}{3^4} + \frac{1}{5^4} + \dots \infty = \alpha, \) \( \frac{1}{2^4} + \frac{1}{4^4} + \frac{1}{6^4} + \dots \infty = \beta, \)
then \( \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \) is equal to:

  • (A) 23
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 18

Question 2:

Let the ellipse \( 3x^2 + py^2 = 4 \) pass through the centre \( C \) of the circle \( x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 4y - 11 = 0 \) of radius \( r \). Let \( f_1, f_2 \) be the focal distances of the point \( C \) on the ellipse. Then \( 6f_1 f_2 - r \) is equal to

  • (1) \(70\)
  • (2) \(68\)
  • (3) \(78\)
  • (4) \(74\)

Question 3:

Let \( f(x) \) be a positive function and \[I_1 = \int_{-\frac{1}{2}}^1 2x \, f\left(2x(1-2x)\right) dx\]
and \[I_2 = \int_{-1}^2 f\left(x(1-x)\right) dx.\]
Then the value of \(\frac{I_2}{I_1}\) is equal to ____

  • (1) \(4\)
  • (2) \(6\)
  • (3) \(12\)
  • (4) \(9\)

Question 4:

Let \(\alpha\) be a solution of \(x^2 + x + 1 = 0\), and for some \(a\) and \(b\) in \(\mathbb{R}\), \[ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 16 & 13
-1 & -1 & 2
-2 & -14 & -8 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 4
a
b \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0
0
0 \end{bmatrix}. \]
If \(\frac{4}{\alpha^4} + \frac{m}{\alpha^a} + \frac{n}{\alpha^b} = 3\), then \(m + n\) is equal to _____.

  • (1) \(11\)
  • (2) \(7\)
  • (3) \(8\)
  • (4) \(3\)

Question 5:

Let \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 + p & 2 + p + q
4 & 6 + 2p & 8 + 3p + 2q
6 & 12 + 3p & 20 + 6p + 3q \end{bmatrix} \)
If \( det(adj(adj(3A))) = 2^m \cdot 3^n, \, m, n \in \mathbb{N}, \) then \( m + n \) is equal to:

  • (A) 22
  • (B) 26
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 24

Question 6:

The number of integral terms in the expansion of \[ \left( 5^{\frac{1}{2}} + 7^{\frac{1}{8}} \right)^{1016} \]
is:

  • (1) 130
  • (2) 128
  • (3) 127
  • (4) 129

Question 7:

The value of \[ \cot^{-1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{1 + \tan^2(2)} - 1}{\tan(2)} \right) - \cot^{-1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{1 + \tan^2 \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)} + 1}{\tan \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)} \right) \]
is equal to:

  • (1) \( \pi - \frac{5}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \pi - \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \pi + \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \pi + \frac{5}{2} \)

Question 8:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: \[\lim_{x \to 0} \left( \frac{\tan^{-1} x + \log_e \sqrt{\frac{1+x}{1-x}} - 2x}{x^5} \right) = \frac{2}{5}\]

Statement II: \[\lim_{x \to 1} \left( \frac{2}{x^{1-x}} \right) = \frac{1}{e^2}\]

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 9:

Let \( a \) be the length of a side of a square OABC with O being the origin. Its side OA makes an acute angle \( \alpha \) with the positive \( x \)-axis and the equations of its diagonals are \[\left( \sqrt{3} + 1 \right) x + \left( \sqrt{3} - 1 \right) y = 0\]
and \[\left( \sqrt{3} - 1 \right) x - \left( \sqrt{3} + 1 \right) y + 8\sqrt{3} = 0.\]
Then \( a^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 16

Question 10:

Let the values of \(\lambda\) for which the shortest distance between the lines \[\frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y-2}{3} = \frac{z-3}{4}\]
and \[\frac{x-\lambda}{3} = \frac{y-4}{4} = \frac{z-5}{5}\]
is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}\) be \(\lambda_1\) and \(\lambda_2\). Then the radius of the circle passing through the points \((0, 0), (\lambda_1, \lambda_2)\) and \((\lambda_2, \lambda_1)\) is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5\sqrt{2}}{2}\)

Question 11:

Let \( A = \{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5\} \). Let \( R \) be a relation on \( A \) defined by \((x, y) \in R\) if and only if \(\max\{x, y\} \in \{3, 4\}\). Then among the statements \( (S_1) : \) The number of elements in \( R \) is 18, and \( (S_2) : \) The relation \( R \) is symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive

  • (1) only \( (S_1) \) is true
  • (2) both are true
  • (3) only \( (S_2) \) is true
  • (4) both are false

Question 12:

If \( A \) and \( B \) are two events such that \( P(A) = 0.7 \), \( P(B) = 0.4 \) and \( P\left( A \cap \overline{B} \right) = 0.5 \), where \(\overline{B}\) denotes the complement of \( B \), then \( P\left( B | \left( A \cup \overline{B} \right) \right) \) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 13:

A line passing through the point \( P(a, 0) \) makes an acute angle \( \alpha \) with the positive \( x \)-axis. Let this line be rotated about the point \( P \) through an angle \( \frac{\alpha}{2} \) in the clock-wise direction. If in the new position, the slope of the line is \( 2 - \sqrt{3} \) and its distance from the origin is \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \), then the value of \( 3a^2 \tan^2 \alpha - 2\sqrt{3} \) is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 6

Question 14:

Let \( f(x) = x - 1 \) and \( g(x) = e^x \) for \( x \in \mathbb{R} \). If \[\frac{dy}{dx} = \left( e^{-2\sqrt{x}} g\left(f\left(f(x)\right)\right) - \frac{y}{\sqrt{x}} \right), \, y(0) = 0,\]
then \( y(1) \) is

  • (1) \(\frac{2e-1}{e^3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1-e^2}{e^4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{e-1}{e^4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1-e^3}{e^4}\)

Question 15:

The sum of the squares of the roots of \( |x - 2|^2 + |x - 2| - 2 = 0 \) and the squares of the roots of \( x^2 |x - 3| - 5 = 0 \), is:

  • (1) \(24\)
  • (2) \(26\)
  • (3) \(36\)
  • (4) \(30\)

Question 16:

There are 12 points in a plane, no three of which are in the same straight line, except 5 points which are collinear. Then the total number of triangles that can be formed with the vertices at any three of these 12 points is:

  • (1) \(210\)
  • (2) \(200\)
  • (3) \(230\)
  • (4) \(220\)

Question 17:

The integral \( \int_{-1}^{\frac{3}{2}} \left( \pi^2 x \sin(\pi x) \right) dx \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 2 + 3\pi \)
  • (2) \( 3 + 2\pi \)
  • (3) \( 1 + 3\pi \)
  • (4) \( 4 + \pi \)

Question 18:

Let the function \( f(x) = \frac{x}{3} + \frac{3}{x} + 3 \), \( x \neq 0 \), be strictly increasing in \( (-\infty, \alpha_1) \cup (\alpha_2, \infty) \) and strictly decreasing in \( (\alpha_3, \alpha_4) \cup (\alpha_5, \alpha_s) \). Then \( \sum_{i=1}^{5} \alpha_i^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 36 \)
  • (2) \( 28 \)
  • (3) \( 48 \)
  • (4) \( 40 \)

Question 19:

Let \( \vec{a} = \hat{i} + 2 \hat{j} + \hat{k} \) and \( \vec{b} = 2 \hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k} \). Let \( \hat{c} \) be a unit vector in the plane of the vectors \( \vec{a} \) and \( \vec{b} \) and perpendicular to \( \vec{a} \). Then such a vector \( \hat{c} \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} (\hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k}) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (-\hat{i} + \hat{k}) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} (\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} (-\hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k}) \)

Question 20:

Let \( A = \left\{ \theta \in [0, 2\pi] : \Re\left( \frac{2 \cos \theta + i \sin \theta}{\cos \theta - 3i \sin \theta} \right) = 0 \right\} \). Then \( \sum_{\theta \in A} \theta^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{27}{4} \pi^2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{21}{4} \pi^2 \)
  • (3) \( 6\pi^2 \)
  • (4) \( 8\pi^2 \)

Question 21:

Let the area of the bounded region \( \{(x, y) : 0 \leq 9x \leq y^2, y \geq 3x - 6 \} \) be \( A \). Then \( 6A \) is equal to:


Question 22:

Let \( r \) be the radius of the circle, which touches the \( x \)-axis at point \( (a, 0) \), \( a < 0 \) and the parabola \( y^2 = 9x \) at the point \( (4, 6) \). Then \( r \) is equal to:


Question 23:

Let the domain of the function \( f(x) = \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{4x + 5}{3x - 7} \right) \) be \( [\alpha, \beta] \) and the domain of \( g(x) = \log_2 \left( 2 - 6 \log_2 \left( 2x + 5 \right) \right) \) be \( (\gamma, \delta) \). Then \( |7(\alpha + \beta) + 4(\gamma + \delta)| \) is equal to:


Question 24:

Let the area of the triangle formed by the lines \( \frac{x + 2}{-3} = \frac{y - 3}{3} = \frac{z - 2}{1} \), \( \frac{x - 3}{5} = \frac{y}{-1} = \frac{z - 1}{1} \) be \( A \). Then \( A^2 \) is equal to:


Question 25:

The product of the last two digits of \( (1919)^{1919} \) is:


Question 26:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Work done in moving a test charge between two points inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is zero, no matter which path is chosen.

Reason R: Electrostatic potential inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is constant and is same as that on the surface of the shell.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) A is false but R is true
  • (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (4) A is true but R is false

Question 27:

Water falls from a height of 200 m into a pool. Calculate the rise in temperature of the water assuming no heat dissipation from the water in the pool.
(Take \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \), specific heat of water = 4200 J/(kg K))

  • (1) 0.48 K
  • (2) 0.36 K
  • (3) 0.14 K
  • (4) 0.23 K

Question 28:

Figure shows a current carrying square loop ABCD of edge length is \( a \) lying in a plane. If the resistance of the ABC part is \( r \) and that of the ADC part is \( 2r \), then the magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at the center of the square loop is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\sqrt{2\mu_0 I}}{3 \pi a} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi a} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2 \mu_0 I}{3 \pi a} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3 \pi \mu_0 I}{\sqrt{2}} \)

Question 29:

Two metal spheres of radius \( R \) and \( 3R \) have same surface charge density \( \sigma \). If they are brought in contact and then separated, the surface charge density on smaller and bigger sphere becomes \( \sigma_1 \) and \( \sigma_2 \), respectively. The ratio \( \frac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_2} \) is:

  • (1) \( 9 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
  • (4) \( 3 \)

Question 30:

A body of mass 2 kg moving with velocity of \( \vec{v}_{in} = 3 \hat{i} + 4 \hat{j} \, ms^{-1} \) enters into a constant force field of 6N directed along positive z-axis. If the body remains in the field for a period of \( \frac{5}{3} \) seconds, then velocity of the body when it emerges from force field is:

  • (1) \( 3 \hat{i} + 4 \hat{j} - 5 \hat{k} \)
  • (2) \( 3 \hat{i} + 4 \hat{j} + 5 \hat{k} \)
  • (3) \( 3 \hat{i} + 4 \hat{j} + \sqrt{5} \hat{k} \)
  • (4) \( 4 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} + 5 \hat{k} \)

Question 31:

Two strings with circular cross section and made of same material are stretched to have same amount of tension. A transverse wave is then made to pass through the strings. The velocity of the wave in the first string having the radius of cross section \( R \) is \( v_1 \), and that in the other string having radius of cross section \( R/2 \) is \( v_2 \). Then, \( \frac{v_2}{v_1} \) is:

  • (1) \( 4 \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( 8 \)
  • (4) \( 2 \)

Question 32:

The output voltage in the following circuit is (Consider ideal diode case):


  • (1) \( -5 \, V \)
  • (2) \( +5 \, V \)
  • (3) \( 10 \, V \)
  • (4) \( 0 \, V \)

Question 33:

In a Young's double slit experiment, the source is white light. One of the slits is covered by red filter and another by green filter. In this case,

  • (1) There shall be alternate interference fringes of red and green.
  • (2) There shall be an interference pattern, where each fringe's pattern center is green and outer edges is red.
  • (3) There shall be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for green.
  • (4) There shall be no interference fringes.

Question 34:

A concave-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and the radii of curvature of its surfaces are 30 cm and 20 cm, respectively. The concave surface is upwards and is filled with a liquid of refractive index 1.(3)The focal length of the liquid–glass combination will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{800}{11} \, cm \)
  • (2) \( \frac{500}{11} \, cm \)
  • (3) \( \frac{700}{11} \, cm \)
  • (4) \( \frac{600}{11} \, cm \)

Question 35:

Two balls with the same mass and initial velocity are projected at different angles in such a way that the maximum height reached by the first ball is 8 times higher than that of the second ball. \( T_1 \) and \( T_2 \) are the total flying times of the first and second ball, respectively, then the ratio of \( T_1 \) and \( T_2 \) is:

  • (1) \( 2 : 1 \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} : 1 \)
  • (3) \( 4 : 1 \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{2} : 1 \)

Question 36:

An infinitely long wire has uniform linear charge density \( \lambda = 2 \, nC/m \). The net flux through a Gaussian cube of side length \( \sqrt{3} \, cm \), if the wire passes through any two corners of the cube, that are maximally displaced from each other, would be \( x \, Nm^2 C^{-1} \), where \( x \) is:

  • (1) \( 2.16 \pi \)
  • (2) \( 0.72 \pi \)
  • (3) \( 6.48 \pi \)
  • (4) \( 1.44 \pi \)

Question 37:

A convex lens of focal length 30 cm is placed in contact with a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. An object is placed at 20 cm to the left of this lens system. The distance of the image from the lens in cm is ____ .

  • (1) \( \frac{60}{7} \) cm
  • (2) 30 cm
  • (3) 15 cm
  • (4) 45 cm

Question 38:

A block of mass 2 kg is attached to one end of a massless spring whose other end is fixed at a wall. The spring-mass system moves on a frictionless horizontal table. The spring's natural length is 2 m and spring constant is 200 N/m. The block is pushed such that the length of the spring becomes 1 m and then released. At distance \( x \) m (\( x \leq 2 \)) from the wall, the speed of the block will be:

  • (1) \( 10 \left[ 1 - (2 - x)^2 \right] \, m/s \)
  • (2) \( 10 \left[ 1 - (2 - x) \right]^{3/2} \, m/s \)
  • (3) \( 10 \left[ 1 - (2 - x)^2 \right]^{1/2} \, m/s \)
  • (4) \( 10 \left[ 1 - (2 - x)^2 \right]^2 \, m/s \)

Question 39:

A quantity \( Q \) is formulated as \( Q = X^{-2} Y^{3/2} Z^{-2/5} \). \( X \), \( Y \), and \( Z \) are independent parameters which have fractional errors of 0.1, 0.2, and 0.5, respectively in measurement. The maximum fractional error of \( Q \) is:

  • (1) 0.7
  • (2) 0.1
  • (3) 0.8
  • (4) 0.6

Question 40:

The amplitude and phase of a wave that is formed by the superposition of two harmonic travelling waves, \( y_1 (x, t) = 4 \sin(kx - \omega t) \) and \( y_2 (x, t) = 2 \sin(kx - \omega t + \frac{2\pi}{3}) \), are:
(Take the angular frequency of initial waves same as \( \omega \))

  • (1) \( [\sqrt{3}, \frac{\pi}{6}] \)
  • (2) \( [6, \frac{\pi}{3}] \)
  • (3) \( [2\sqrt{3}, \frac{\pi}{6}] \)
  • (4) \( [6, \frac{2\pi}{3}] \)

Question 41:

For a nucleus of mass number \( A \) and radius \( R \), the mass density of the nucleus can be represented as:

  • (1) \( \frac{2}{3} A \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{3} A \)
  • (3) \( A^3 \)
  • (4) Independent of \( A \)

Question 42:

A monoatomic gas having \( \gamma = \frac{5}{3} \) is stored in a thermally insulated container and the gas is suddenly compressed to \( \left( \frac{1}{8} \right)^{th} \) of its initial volume. The ratio of final pressure and initial pressure is:

  • (1) 28
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 40
  • (4) 16

Question 43:

Electric charge is transferred to an irregular metallic disk as shown in the figure. If \( \sigma_1 \), \( \sigma_2 \), \( \sigma_3 \), and \( \sigma_4 \) are charge densities at given points, then choose the correct answer from the options given below:




  • (1) D and E Only
  • (2) A and C Only
  • (3) A, B, and C Only
  • (4) B and C Only

Question 44:

A 3 m long wire of radius 3 mm shows an extension of 0.1 mm when loaded vertically by a mass of 50 kg in an experiment to determine Young's modulus. The value of Young's modulus of the wire as per this experiment is \( P \times 10^{11} \, N/m^2 \), where the value of \( P \) is: (Take \( g = 3\pi \, m/s^2 \))

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 2.5
  • (4) 5

Question 45:

A rod of linear mass density \( \lambda \) and length \( L \) is bent to form a ring of radius \( R \). Moment of inertia of the ring about any of its diameter is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\lambda L^3}{8\pi^2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\lambda L^3}{4\pi^2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\lambda L^3}{16\pi^2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\lambda L^3}{12} \)

Question 46:

A cube having a side of 10 cm with unknown mass and 200 gm mass were hung at two ends of an uniform rigid rod of 27 cm long. The rod along with masses was placed on a wedge keeping the distance between wedge point and 200 gm weight as 25 cm. Initially the masses were not at balance. A beaker is placed beneath the unknown mass and water is added slowly to it. At given point the masses were in balance and half volume of the unknown mass was inside the water.
(Take the density of the unknown mass is more than that of the water, the mass did not absorb water and water density is 1 gm/cm\(^3\).) The unknown mass is ______ kg.


Question 47:

A thin solid disk of 1 kg is rotating along its diameter axis at the speed of 1800 rpm. By applying an external torque of \(25\pi\) Nm for 40s, the speed increases to 2100 rpm. The diameter of the disk is ______ m.


Question 48:

An electron is released from rest near an infinite non-conducting sheet of uniform charge density '–σ'. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron varies inversely as \(n^{th}\) power of time. The numerical value of \(n\) is ______.


Question 49:

A sample of a liquid is kept at 1 atm. It is compressed to 5 atm which leads to change of volume of 0.8 cm\(^3\). If the bulk modulus of the liquid is 2 GPa, the initial volume of the liquid was ______ litre. (Take 1 atm = \(10^5\) Pa)


Question 50:

Space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of plate area 4 cm\(^2\) and separation of \( d = 1.77 \, mm \), is filled with uniform dielectric materials with dielectric constants (3 and 5) as shown in figure. Another capacitor of capacitance 7.5 pF is connected in parallel with it. The effective capacitance of this combination is ____ pF.


Question 51:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: \( H_2Se \) is more acidic than \( H_2Te \)

Statement II: \( H_2Se \) has higher bond enthalpy for dissociation than \( H_2Te \)

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 52:

The correct decreasing order of spin only magnetic moment values (BM) of \( Cu^+ \), \( Cu^{2+} \), \( Cr^{2+} \) and \( Cr^{3+} \) ions is:

  • (1) \( Cu^+ > Cu^{2+} > Cr^{3+} > Cr^{2+} \)
  • (2) \( Cr^{3+} > Cr^{2+} > Cu^+ > Cu^{2+} \)
  • (3) \( Cu^{2+} > Cu^+ > Cr^{2+} > Cr^{3+} \)
  • (4) \( Cr^{2+} > Cr^{3+} > Cu^{2+} > Cu^+ \)

Question 53:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Question 54:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A homoleptic octahedral complex, formed using monodentate ligands, will not show stereoisomerism

Statement II: cis- and trans-platin are heteroleptic complexes of Pd.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 55:

What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

  • (1) 4-Ethyl-1-hydroxycyclopent-2-ene
  • (2) 1-Ethyl-3-hydroxycyclopent-2-ene
  • (3) 1-Ethylcyclopent-2-en-3-ol
  • (4) 4-Ethylcyclopent-2-en-1-ol

Question 56:



A shows positive Lassaigne's test for N and its molar mass is 12(1)

B gives effervescence with aqueous NaHCO(3)

C gives fruity smell.


Identify A, B, and C from the following.


Question 57:

On combustion 0.210 g of an organic compound containing C, H and O gave 0.127 g \( H_2O \) and 0.307 g \( CO_2 \). The percentages of hydrogen and oxygen in the given organic compound respectively are:

  • (1) 6.72, 39.87
  • (2) 6.72, 53.41
  • (3) 7.55, 43.85
  • (4) 53.41, 39.6

Question 58:

HA \( (aq) \rightleftharpoons H^+ (aq) + A^- (aq) \)

The freezing point depression of a 0.1 m aqueous solution of a monobasic weak acid HA is 0.20 °C. The dissociation constant for the acid is
Given: \( K_f(H_2O) = 1.8 \, K kg mol^{-1} \), molality ≡ molarity

  • (1) \( 1.1 \times 10^{-2} \)
  • (2) \( 1.38 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (3) \( 1.90 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (4) \( 1.89 \times 10^{-1} \)

Question 59:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 60:


Question 61:

In a first order decomposition reaction, the time taken for the decomposition of reactant to one fourth and one eighth of its initial concentration are \( t_1 \) and \( t_2 \) (s), respectively. The ratio \( t_1 / t_2 \) will be:

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 62:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II


LIST-I (Complex/Species)       LIST-II (Shape & magnetic moment)

A. \([Ni(CO)_4]\)                       I. Tetrahedral, 2.8 BM

B. \([Ni(CN)_4]^{2-}\)               II. Square planar, 0 BM

C. \([NiCl_4]^{2-}\)                  III. Tetrahedral, 0 BM

D. \([MnBr_4]^{2-}\)               IV. Tetrahedral, 5.9 BM

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Question 63:

Which one of the following reactions will not lead to the desired ether formation in major proportion?

(iso-Bu = isobutyl, sec-Bu = sec-butyl, nPr = n-propyl, tBu = tert-butyl, Et = ethyl)


Question 64:

Correct statements for an element with atomic number 9 are

A. There can be 5 electrons for which \( m_s = +\frac{1}{2} \) and 4 electrons for which \( m_s = -\frac{1}{2} \)

B. There is only one electron in \( p_z \) orbital.

C. The last electron goes to orbital with \( n = 2 \) and \( l = 1 \).

D. The sum of angular nodes of all the atomic orbitals is 1.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B Only
  • (2) A, C and D Only
  • (3) C and D Only
  • (4) A and C Only

Question 65:

The number of species from the following that are involved in \( sp^3d^2 \) hybridization is \[ [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}, SF_6, [CrF_6]^{3-}, [CoF_6]^{3-}, [Mn(CN)_6]^{3-} \] and \[ [MnCl_6]^{3-} \]

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 5

Question 66:

When undergoes intramolecular aldol condensation, the major product formed is:


Question 67:

Choose the correct option for structures of A and B, respectively:


Question 68:

Choose the correct set of reagents for the following conversion:


  • (1) \( Cl_2/Fe; Br_2/anhy. AlCl_3; aq. KOH \)
  • (2) \( Br_2/Fe; Cl_2, \Delta; alc. KOH \)
  • (3) \( Cl_2/anhy. AlCl_3; Br_2/Fe; alc. KOH \)
  • (4) \( Br_2/anhy. AlCl_3; Cl_2, \Delta; aq. KOH \)

Question 69:

Which of the following binary mixture does not show the behavior of minimum boiling azeotropes?

  • (1) \( CS_2 + CH_3COCH_3 \)
  • (2) \( H_2O + CH_3COC_2H_5 \)
  • (3) \( C_6H_5OH + C_6H_5NH_2 \)
  • (4) \( CH_3OH + CHCl_3 \)

Question 70:

The atomic number of the element from the following with lowest \( 1^{st} \) ionization enthalpy is:

  • (1) 87
  • (2) 19
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 35

Question 71:

20 mL of sodium iodide solution gave 4.74 g silver iodide when treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The molarity of the sodium iodide solution is _____ M. (Nearest Integer value)

(Given : Na = 23, I = 127, Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16 g mol\(^{-1}\))


Question 72:

The equilibrium constant for decomposition of \( H_2O \) (g)
\[ H_2O(g) \rightleftharpoons H_2(g) + \frac{1}{2} O_2(g) \quad (\Delta G^\circ = 92.34 \, kJ mol^{-1}) \]

is \( 8.0 \times 10^{-3} \) at 2300 K and total pressure at equilibrium is 1 bar. Under this condition, the degree of dissociation (\( \alpha \)) of water is _____ \(\times 10^{-2}\) (nearest integer value).

[Assume \( \alpha \) is negligible with respect to 1]


Question 73:

Resonance in X\(_2\)Y can be represented as






The enthalpy of formation of X\(_2\)Y is 80 kJ mol\(^{-1}\), and the magnitude of resonance energy of X\(_2\)Y is:


Question 74:

The energy of an electron in first Bohr orbit of H-atom is \(-13.6\) eV. The magnitude of energy value of electron in the first excited state of Be\(^{3+}\) is _____ eV (nearest integer value)


Question 75:

Consider the following half cell reaction
\[ Cr_2O_7^{2-} (aq) + 6e^- + 14H^+ (aq) \longrightarrow 2Cr^{3+} (aq) + 7H_2O(1) \]

The reaction was conducted with the ratio of \[\frac{[Cr^{3+}]^2}{[Cr_2O_7^{2-}]} = 10^{-6}\]
The pH value at which the EMF of the half cell will become zero is _____ (nearest integer value)

[Given : standard half cell reduction potential \[E^\circ_{Cr_2O_7^{2-}, H^+/Cr^{3+}} = 1.33V, \quad \frac{2.303RT}{F} = 0.059V\]


JEE Main April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper With Video Solutions

The JEE Main 2025 April 8 Question Paper with Video Solution is available here. Students can match their responses with the JEE Main 2025 April 8 Shift 2 Answer key with Solutions. Students who are appearing for JEE Main upcoming shifts can check the JEE Main April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper and video solution to understand the difficulty level of the exam. 


JEE Main Session 2 Difficulty Level Analysis

JEE Mains 2025 Session 2 exam dates Paper Exam Analysis
April 2, 2025 Paper 1 (B.E/BTech)
  • Physics: Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy (NCERT-based)
  • Mathematics: Tough
April 3, 2025 Paper 1 (B.E/BTech)
  • Physics: Easy to Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Moderate, Lengthy
April 4, 2025 Paper 1 (B.E/BTech)
  • Physics: Easy to Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Moderate, Lengthy
April 7, 2025 Paper 1 (B.E/BTech)
  • Physics: Easy to Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Moderate, Lengthy
April 8, 2025 Paper 1 (B.E/BTech)
  • Physics: Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy (NCERT-based)
  • Mathematics: Tough
April 9, 2025 Paper 2A (BArch) and Paper 2B (BPlanning) TBA

Related Links:

JEE Main 2025 April 8 Shift 2 Answer Key: Coaching Institute PDF

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download
Allen Institute Download
Resonance Download
Vedantu Download
Sri Chaitanya Download

JEE Main Marking Scheme 2025

For JEE Main Paper 1(B.E/BTech), students are required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. The marking scheme is the same across Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections totaling to 300 marks.

Paper Sections Questions Marks Marking Scheme
Paper 1 Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics 75 Questions (25 Physics, 25 Chemistry, 25 Mathematics) 300 total
  • Correct Answer: +4
  • Incorrect MCQ: -1

Is there any negative marking in JEE Main Paper 1?

  • If you choose the wrong answer in both Section A and Section B, you will lose 1 mark because of negative marking.
  • In Section B, instead of choosing an option, you have to type the correct whole number using the on screen number pad. If your answer is a decimal, round it off to the nearest whole number before entering it.

Once you calculate your expected marks, you can review the JEE Main Question papers to improve your preparation.

You can check:

What to carry at the JEE Main Test Centre ?

Every aspirant must check the JEE Main exam day guidelines before the examination. The JEE Main exam instructions comprise of all the dos and don’ts to be followed for a hassle-free exam process. JEE Mains rules and regulations for the exam are provided below:

What to Carry What NOT to Carry
JEE Main 2025 Admit Card (Mandatory) Electronic gadgets (Mobile phones, smartwatches, calculators, Bluetooth devices)
Valid ID Proof (Aadhaar Card, PAN Card, Voter ID, Passport, etc.) Written/Printed Study Materials (Books, Notes, Papers)
A simple transparent ballpoint pen (for rough work) Any type of rough paper (NTA will provide sheets)
A passport-size photograph (same as on the admit card) Smart devices (Earphones, Digital Watches, Fitness Bands)
PwD Certificate (if applicable) Geometry boxes, Log tables, or Any extra stationery items
A transparent water bottle (Optional) Wallets, Purses, or Bags

How to attempt JEE Main 2025 MCQ’s with Maximum Accuracy?

For accuracy in JEE Main MCQ’s concepts need to be well understood. On average, based on past JEE exams, almost 60 % of the incorrect answers are because of reading the question wrong or marking the wrong answers.

For numerical value questions, if the question requires you to round it off to the nearest integer, accuracy is important. It can cost 4 marks per question which can have a significant impact on your rank.

In revising an answer, many students choose to trade their initial answer for another incorrect alternative. Based on the past year trends, first solutions are accurate most of the time, a figure close to 70%. One should second-guess only on a sound reason for doubt about error.