JEE Main 2026 Jan 23 Shift 1 question paper is available here with answer key and solutions. NTA has conducted the first shift of the day on Jan 23, 2026, from 9 AM to 12 PM.

JEE Main 2026 23rd Jan Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Based on initial analysis, JEE Main Jan 23rd Shift 1 was considered Moderate, where Mathematics remains the lengthiest section. Students can access the JEE Main Jan 23 Shift 1 official questions with answer keys here.

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JEE Mains 2026 23rd Jan Shift 1 Question Paper

Question 1:

Let the line \( y - x = 1 \) intersect the ellipse \( \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{y^2}{1} = 1 \) at the points A and B. Then the angle made by the line segment AB at the center of the ellipse is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{2} - \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{2} + 2 \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2} + \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) \)
  • (4) \( \pi - \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) \)

Question 2:

Number of solutions of \( \sqrt{3} \cos 2\theta + 8 \cos \theta + 3\sqrt{3} = 0, \theta \in [-3\pi, 2\pi] \) is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 5

Question 3:

Let the direction cosines of two lines satisfy the equations : \( 4l + m - n = 0 \) and \( 2mn + 5nl + 3lm = 0 \). Then the cosine of the acute angle between these lines is :

  • (1) \( \frac{10}{3\sqrt{38}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{20}{3\sqrt{38}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10}{7\sqrt{38}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{10}{\sqrt{38}} \)

Question 4:

Let \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) respectively be the maximum and the minimum values of the function \( f(\theta) = 4\left(\sin^4\left(\frac{7\pi}{2} - \theta\right) + \sin^4(11\pi + \theta)\right) - 2\left(\sin^6\left(\frac{3\pi}{2} - \theta\right) + \sin^6(9\pi - \theta)\right) \). Then \( \alpha + 2\beta \) is equal to :

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6

Question 5:

Let \( f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{ax^2 + 2ax + 3}{4x^2 + 4x - 3}, & x \neq -\frac{3}{2}, \frac{1}{2}
b, & x = -\frac{3}{2}, \frac{1}{2} \end{cases} \) be continuous at \( x = -\frac{3}{2} \). If \( f(x) = \frac{7}{5} \), then \( x \) is equal to :

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 1.4

Question 6:

If \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) (\( \alpha < \beta \)) are the roots of the equation \( (-2 + \sqrt{3})(\sqrt{x} - 3) + (x - 6\sqrt{x}) + (9 - 2\sqrt{3}) = 0 \), \( x \ge 0 \), then \( \sqrt{\frac{\beta}{\alpha}} + \sqrt{\alpha\beta} \) is equal to:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 10

Question 7:

The vertices B and C of a triangle ABC lie on the line \( \frac{x}{1} = \frac{1-y}{2} = \frac{z-2}{3} \). The coordinates of A and B are (1, 6, 3) and (4, 9, 6) respectively and C is at a distance of 10 units from B. The area (in sq. units) of \( \triangle ABC \) is:

  • (1) \( 10\sqrt{13} \)
  • (2) \( 15\sqrt{13} \)
  • (3) \( 5\sqrt{13} \)
  • (4) \( 20\sqrt{13} \)

Question 8:

Among the statements :
I: If the given determinants are equal, then \( \cos^2\alpha + \cos^2\beta + \cos^2\gamma = \frac{3}{2} \), and
II: If the polynomial determinant equals \( px + q \), then \( p^2 = 196q^2 \), identify the truth value.

  • (1) both are true
  • (2) only I is true
  • (3) both are false
  • (4) only II is true

Question 9:

The value of the integral \( \int_{\frac{\pi}{24}}^{\frac{5\pi}{24}} \frac{dx}{1 + \sqrt[3]{\tan 2x}} \) is :

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{18} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)

Question 10:

Let the domain of \( f(x) = \log_3 \log_3 \log_7 (9x - x^2 - 13) \) be (m, n). Let the hyperbola \( \frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) have eccentricity \( \frac{n}{3} \) and latus rectum \( \frac{8m}{3} \). Then \( b^2 - a^2 \) is equal to :

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 7

Question 11:

Let \( f(x) = \int \frac{(2 - x^2) \cdot e^x}{(\sqrt{1 + x})(1 - x)^{3/2}} dx \). If \( f(0) = 0 \), then \( f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) \) is equal to :

  • (1) \( \sqrt{2e} - 1 \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{3e} - 1 \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{3e} + 1 \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{2e} + 1 \)

Question 12:

A building construction work can be completed by two masons A and B together in 22.5 days. Mason A alone can complete the construction work in 24 days less than mason B alone. Then mason A alone will complete the construction work in :

  • (1) 42 days
  • (2) 24 days
  • (3) 36 days
  • (4) 30 days

Question 13:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation \( x^2 dy + (4x^2 y + 2\sin x)dx = 0 \), \( x > 0 \), \( y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 0 \). Then \( \pi^4 y\left(\frac{\pi}{3}\right) \) is equal to :

  • (1) 92
  • (2) 81
  • (3) 72
  • (4) 64

Question 14:

A rectangle is formed by the lines \( x = 0 \), \( y = 0 \), \( x = 3 \) and \( y = 4 \). Let the line \( L \) be perpendicular to \( 3x + y + 6 = 0 \) and divide the area of the rectangle into two equal parts. Then the distance of the point \( \left(\frac{1}{2}, -5\right) \) from the line \( L \) is equal to :

  • (1) \( 2\sqrt{5} \)
  • (2) \( 2\sqrt{10} \)
  • (3) \( 3\sqrt{10} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{10} \)

Question 15:

Let the mean and variance of 8 numbers -10, -7, -1, x, y, 9, 2, 16 be \( 2 \) and \( \frac{293}{4} \), respectively. Then the mean of 4 numbers x, y, x+y+1, |x-y| is:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 11

Question 16:

Let A = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. Let R be a relation on A defined by xRy if and only if \(2x + y \le 2\). Let \(l\) be the number of elements in R. Let \(m\) and \(n\) be the minimum number of elements required to be added in R to make it reflexive and symmetric relations respectively. Then \(l + m + n\) is equal to :

  • (1) 34
  • (2) 35
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 33

Question 17:

Let \( \vec{a} = -\hat{i} + \hat{j} + 2\hat{k} \), \( \vec{b} = \hat{i} - \hat{j} - 3\hat{k} \), \( \vec{c} = \vec{a} \times \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{d} = \vec{c} \times \vec{a} \). Then \( (|\vec{a}|^2 - |\vec{b}|^2) \cdot \vec{d} \) is equal to:

  • (1) -4
  • (2) 4
  • (3) -2
  • (4) 2

Question 18:

Let \( S = \{z : 3 \le |2z - 3(1+i)| \le 7\} \) be a set of complex numbers. Then \( \min_{z \in S} \left| z + \frac{1}{2}(5+3i) \right| \) is equal to :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{2} \)

Question 19:

The sum of all possible values of \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), so that the coefficients of \(x, x^2\) and \(x^3\) in the expansion of \((1+x^2)^2(1+x)^n\) are in arithmetic progression is :

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 12

Question 20:

The value of \( \frac{100 C_{50}}{51} + \frac{100 C_{51}}{52} + \dots + \frac{100 C_{100}}{101} \) is :

  • (1) \( \frac{2^{100}}{100} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2^{101}}{100} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2^{101}}{101} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2^{100}}{101} \)

Question 21:

Let the area of the region bounded by the curve \( y = \max \{ \sin x, \cos x \} \), lines \( x = 0 \), \( x = 3\pi/2 \), and the x-axis be A. Then, \( A + A^2 \) is equal to :


Question 22:

The number of 4-letter words, with or without meaning, which can be formed using the letters PQRPRSTUVP, is :


Question 23:

Let f be a twice differentiable non-negative function such that \((f(x))^2 = 25 + \int_0^x ( f(t)^2 + (f'(t))^2 ) dt\). Then the mean of \(f(\log_2(1)), f(\log_2(2)), \dots, f(\log_2(625))\) is equal to :


Question 24:

From the first 100 natural numbers, two numbers first \( a \) and then \( b \) are selected randomly without replacement. If the probability that \( a - b \ge 10 \) is \( m/n \), \( gcd(m, n) = 1 \), then \( m + n \) is equal to :


Question 25:

Let \( |A| = 6 \), where A is a \( 3 \times 3 \) matrix. If \( |adj(adj(A^2 \cdot adj(2A)))| = 2^{m} \cdot 3^{n} \), then \( m + n \) is equal to :


Question 26:

Two blocks with masses 100 g and 200 g are attached to the ends of springs A and B as shown in figure. The energy stored in A is E. The energy stored in B, when spring constants \(k_A, k_B\) of A and B, respectively satisfy the relation \(4k_A = 3k_B\), is :


  • (1) 3E
  • (2) 4/3 E
  • (3) 4E
  • (4) 2E

Question 27:

The strain-stress plot for materials A, B, C and D is shown in the figure. Which material has the largest Young's modulus?


  • (1) A
  • (2) C
  • (3) B
  • (4) D

Question 28:

A small bob A of mass m is attached to a massless rigid rod of length 1 m pivoted at point P and kept at an angle of 60° with vertical. At 1 m below P, bob B is kept on a smooth surface. If bob B just manages to complete the circular path of radius R after being hit elastically by A, then radius R is ________ m :


  • (1) 3/5
  • (2) (2 - √3)/5
  • (3) 1/5
  • (4) (2 + √3)/5

Question 29:

A thin prism with angle 5° of refractive index 1.72 is combined with another prism of refractive index 1.9 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of second prism is :

  • (1) 4.5°
  • (2) 5°
  • (3) 4°
  • (4) 6°

Question 30:

Four persons measure the length of a rod as 20.00 cm, 19.75 cm, 17.01 cm and 18.25 cm. The relative error in the measurement of average length of the rod is :

  • (1) 0.24
  • (2) 0.06
  • (3) 0.18
  • (4) 0.08

Question 31:

The following diagram shows a Zener diode as a voltage regulator. The Zener diode is rated at \(V_z = 5\) V and the desired current in load is 5 mA. The unregulated voltage source can supply up to 25 V. Considering the Zener diode can withstand four times of the load current, the value of resistor \(R_s\) (shown in circuit) should be _________ \(\Omega\).


  • (1) 100
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 4000
  • (4) 1000

Question 32:

The moment of inertia of a square loop made of four uniform solid cylinders, each having radius R and length L (\(R \le L\)) about an axis passing through the mid points of opposite sides, is (Take the mass of the entire loop as M) :

  • (1) (3/4)MR² + (1/6)ML²
  • (2) (3/8)MR² + (7/12)ML²
  • (3) (3/8)MR² + (1/6)ML²
  • (4) (3/4)MR² + (7/12)ML²

Question 33:

In a perfectly inelastic collision, two spheres made of the same material with masses 15 kg and 25 kg, moving in opposite directions with speeds of 10 m/s and 30 m/s, respectively, strike each other and stick together. The rise in temperature (in °C), if all the heat produced during the collision is retained by these spheres, is (specific heat 31 cal/kg.°C and 1 cal = 4.2 J) :

  • (1) 1.95
  • (2) 1.15
  • (3) 1.44
  • (4) 1.75

Question 34:

Two small balls with masses m and 2m are attached to both ends of a rigid rod of length d and negligible mass. If angular momentum of this system is L about an axis (A) passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to the rod then angular velocity of the system about A is:

  • (1) 2L/(5md²)
  • (2) (4/3) L/(md²)
  • (3) (3/2) L/(md²)
  • (4) 2L/(md²)

Question 35:

A wire of uniform resistance \(\lambda\) \(\Omega\)/m is bent into a circle of radius r and another piece of wire with length 2r is connected between points A and B (ACB) as shown in figure. The equivalent resistance between points A and B is _________ \(\Omega\).


  • (1) 3\(\pi\)\(\lambda\) r / 8
  • (2) 2\(\pi\)\(\lambda\) r
  • (3) (\(\pi\) + 1)2r \(\lambda\)
  • (4) 6\(\pi\)\(\lambda\) r / (3\(\pi\) + 16)

Question 36:

Two point charges 2q and q are placed at vertex A and centre of face CDEF of the cube as shown in figure. The electric flux passing through the cube is :


  • (1) 3q/ε₀
  • (2) 3q/(4ε₀)
  • (3) q/ε₀
  • (4) 3q/(2ε₀)

Question 37:

An object is projected with kinetic energy K from point A at an angle 60° with the horizontal. The ratio of the difference in kinetic energies at points B and C to that at point A (see figure), in the absence of air friction is :


  • (1) 2 : 3
  • (2) 1 : 2
  • (3) 3 : 4
  • (4) 1 : 4

Question 38:

A 20 m long uniform copper wire held horizontally is allowed to fall under the gravity (g = 10 m/s²) through a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.5 Gauss perpendicular to the length of the wire. The induced EMF across the wire when it travels a vertical distance of 200 m is ________ mV.

  • (1) 0.2√10
  • (2) 200√10
  • (3) 2√10
  • (4) 20√10

Question 39:

In hydrogen atom spectrum, (R → Rydberg's constant)

A. the maximum wavelength of the radiation of Lyman series is 4/3R

B. the Balmer series lies in the visible region of the spectrum

C. the minimum wavelength of the radiation of Paschen series is 9/R

D. the minimum wavelength of Lyman series is 5/4R

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A, B and C Only
  • (2) A, B and D Only
  • (3) A, B Only
  • (4) B, D Only

Question 40:

The de Broglie wavelength of an oxygen molecule at 27°C is x × \(10^{-12}\) m. The value of x is (take Planck's constant=6.63 × \(10^{-34}\) J/s, Boltzmann constant=1.38 × \(10^{-23}\) J/K, mass of oxygen molecule = 5.31 × \(10^{-26}\) kg)

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 26
  • (4) 30

Question 41:

A simple pendulum of string length 30 cm performs 20 oscillations in 10 s. The length of the string required for the pendulum to perform 40 oscillations in the same time duration is ________ cm. [Assume that the mass of the pendulum remains same]

  • (1) 7.5
  • (2) 120
  • (3) 0.75
  • (4) 15

Question 42:

Consider light travelling from a medium A to medium B separated by a plane interface. If the light undergoes total internal reflection during its travel from medium A to B and the speed of light in media A and B are \(2.4 \times 10^8\) m/s and \(2.7 \times 10^8\) m/s, respectively, then the value of critical angle is :

  • (1) sin⁻¹(9/8)
  • (2) cos⁻¹(8/9)
  • (3) tan⁻¹(8/√17)
  • (4) cot⁻¹(3/√15)

Question 43:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Consider a ferromagnetic material :

Assertion (A): The individual atoms in a ferromagnetic material possess a magnetic dipole moment and interact with one another in such a way that they spontaneously align themselves forming domains.

Reason (R): At high enough temperature, the domain structure of ferromagnetic material disintegrates. Thus, magnetization will disappear at high enough temperature known as Curie temperature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Question 44:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 45:

In a screw gauge, the zero of the circular scale lies 3 divisions above the horizontal pitch line when their metallic studs are brought in contact. Using this instrument thickness of a sheet is measured. If pitch scale reading is 1 mm and the circular scale reading is 51 then the correct thickness of the sheet is ________ mm. [Assume least count is 0.01 mm]

  • (1) 1.51
  • (2) 1.54
  • (3) 1.48
  • (4) 1.50

Question 46:

A simple pendulum made of mass 10 g and a metallic wire of length 10 cm is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of 2 T. The magnetic field direction is perpendicular to the plane of oscillations of the pendulum. If the pendulum is released from an angle of 60° with vertical, then maximum induced EMF between the point of suspension and point of oscillation is ________ mV. (Take g = 10 m/s²)


Question 47:

Using a variable frequency ac voltage source the maximum current measured in the given LCR circuit is 50 mA for V = 5 sin (100t) The values of L and R are shown in the figure. The capacitance of the capacitor (C) used is ________ µF.



Question 48:

The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C (without any dielectric) is now filled with three dielectric slabs of dielectric constants \(k_1 = 2\), \(k_2 = 3\) and \(k_3 = 3\) (as shown in figure). If new capacitance is n/3 C then the value of n is _________.



Question 49:

The equation of the electric field of an electromagnetic wave propagating through free space is given by: \(E = \sqrt{377} \sin(6.27 \times 10^3 t - 2.09 \times 10^{-5} x)\) N/C. The average power of the electromagnetic wave is (1/a) W/m². The value of a is \hspace{2cm. (Take \(\sqrt{\mu_0/\varepsilon_0 = 377\) in SI units)


Question 50:

In two separate Young's double-slit experimental set-ups and two monochromatic light sources of different wavelengths are used to get fringes of equal width. The ratios of the slits separations and that of the wavelengths of light used are 2:1 and 1:2 respectively. The corresponding ratio of the distances between the slits and the respective screens (D₁/D₂) is ________.


Question 51:

The correct statements from the following are :

A. Ionic radii of trivalent cations of group 13 elements decreases down the group.

B. Electronegativity of group 13 elements decreases down the group.

C. Among the group 13 elements, Boron has highest first ionisation enthalpy.

D. The trichloride and triiodide of group 13 elements are covalent in nature.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) C and D Only
  • (2) A and D Only
  • (3) A and C Only
  • (4) B and D Only

Question 52:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Sublimation is used for the separation and purification of compounds with low melting point.

Statement II: The boiling point of a liquid increases as the external pressure is reduced.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 53:

The correct trend in the first ionization enthalpies of the elements in the 3rd period of periodic table is :

  • (1) \( Al
  • (2) \(Si
  • (3) \(S
  • (4) \(Al

Question 54:

In the given electrochemical cell, \(Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | FeCl₂(aq), FeCl₃(aq) | Pt(s)\) at 298 K, the cell potential (E_cell) will increase when:

A. Concentration of Fe²⁺ is increased.

B. Concentration of Fe³⁺ is decreased.

C. Concentration of Fe²⁺ is decreased.

D. Concentration of Fe³⁺ is increased.

E. Concentration of Cl⁻ is increased.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A and E Only
  • (2) B Only
  • (3) C, D and E Only
  • (4) A and B Only

Question 55:

A cup of water at 5°C (system) is placed in a microwave oven and the oven is turned on for one minute during which the water begins to boil. Which of the following option is true ?

  • (1) q = +ve, w = 0, ΔU = -ve
  • (2) q = +ve, w = -ve, ΔU = +ve
  • (3) q = +ve, w = -ve, ΔU = -ve
  • (4) q = -ve, w = -ve, ΔU = -ve

Question 56:

Identify the molecule (X) with maximum number of lone pairs of electrons (obtained using Lewis dot structure) among HNO₃, H₂SO₄, NF₃, and O₃. Choose the correct bond angle made by the central atom of the molecule (X).

  • (1) 116°
  • (2) 120°
  • (3) 107°
  • (4) 102°

Question 57:

Consider the following sequence of reactions:


4-nitrotoluene
Assuming that the reaction proceeds to completion, then 137 mg of 4-nitrotoluene will produce ________ mg of B. (Given molar mass in g mol⁻¹ H: 1, C: 12, N: 14, O: 16, Br: 80)

  • (1) 301
  • (2) 208
  • (3) 228
  • (4) 146

Question 58:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: [CoBr₄]²⁻ ion will absorb light of lower energy than [CoCl₄]²⁻ ion.

Statement II: In [CoBr₄]²⁻ ion, the energy separation between the two set of d-orbitals is more than [CoCl₄]²⁻ ion.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 59:



The correct sequence of reagents for the above conversion of X to Y is :

  • (1) (i) NaOH (aq) (ii) Jones reagent (iii) H₃O⁺
  • (2) (i) NaOEt (ii) B₂H₆/H₂O₂ (iii) Jones reagent
  • (3) (i) B₂H₆/H₂O₂ (ii) NaOEt (iii) Jones reagent
  • (4) (i) Jones reagent (ii) NaOEt (iii) Hot KMnO₄/KOH

Question 60:

Consider the general reaction given below at 400 K: xA(g) ⇌ yB(g). The values of K_p and K_c are studied under the same condition of temperature but variation in x and y.
(i) K_p = 85.87 and K_c = 2.586
(ii) K_p = 0.862 and K_c = 28.62.
The values of x and y in (i) and (ii) respectively are :

  • (1) 4,1 4,1
  • (2) 3,1 3,1
  • (3) 1,3 2,1
  • (4) 1,2 2,1

Question 61:

Compound 'P' undergoes the following sequence of reactions : (i) NH₃ (ii) \(\Delta\) \(\rightarrow\) Q (i) KOH, Br₂ (ii) CHCl₃, KOH (alc), \(\Delta\) \(\rightarrow\) NC-CH₃. 'P' is :




Question 62:

From the given following (A to D) cyclic structures, those which will not react with Tollen's reagent are :


  • (1) A and D
  • (2) B and C
  • (3) A and B
  • (4) B and D

Question 63:

Consider the following compounds. Arrange these compounds in a n increasing order of reactivity with nitrating mixture. The correct order is :


  • (1) \(c < b < a\)
  • (2) \(b < c < a\)
  • (3) \(b < a < c\)
  • (4) \(c < a < b\)

Question 64:

Given, (A) n=5, m_l = -1; (B) n=3, l=2, m_l = -1, m_s = +1/2. The maximum number of electron(s) in an atom that can have the quantum numbers as given in (A) and (B) respectively are :

  • (1) 8 and 1
  • (2) 26 and 1
  • (3) 2 and 4
  • (4) 4 and 1

Question 65:

Which one of the following graphs accurately represents the plot of partial pressure of CS₂ vs its mole fraction in a mixture of acetone and CS₂ at constant temperature?


Question 66:

But-2-yne and hydrogen (one mole each) are separately treated with (i) Pd/C and (ii) Na/liq.NH₃ to give the products X and Y respectively.



Identify the incorrect statements.

A. X and Y are stereoisomers.

B. Dipole moment of X is zero.

C. Boiling point of X is higher than Y.

D. X and Y react with O₃/Zn + H₂O to give different products.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A and B Only
  • (2) A and C Only
  • (3) B and C Only
  • (4) B and D Only

Question 67:

The statements that are incorrect about the nickel(II) complex of dimethylglyoxime are :

A. It is red in colour.

B. It has a high solubility in water at pH = 9.

C. The Ni ion has two unpaired d-electrons.

D. The N – Ni – N bond angle is almost close to 90°.

E. The complex contains four five-membered metallacycles (metal containing rings).

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) C and E Only
  • (2) B, C and E Only
  • (3) A, D and B Only
  • (4) C and D Only

Question 68:

Which of the following statements regarding the energy of the stationary state is true in the following one-electron systems ?

  • (1) +8.72 × 10⁻¹⁸ J for first orbit of He⁺ ion
  • (2) +2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J for second orbit of He⁺ ion
  • (3) -2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J for third orbit of Li²⁺ ion
  • (4) -1.09 × 10⁻¹⁸ J for second orbit of H atom.

Question 69:

Match List-I with List-II.


  • (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 70:

'x' is the product from propenenitrile + \(SnCl_2/HCl\) followed by hydrolysis. 'y' is the product from but-2-ene by ozonolysis. Which product is not obtained when 'x' and 'y' react in alkali with heating?

  • (1) Pent-2-enal
  • (2) 2-Methylpent-2-enal
  • (3) 3-Methylbut-2-enal
  • (4) 2-Methylbut-2-enal

Question 71:

The crystal field splitting energy of \([Co(oxalate)_3]^3-\) complex is 'n' times that of the \([Cr(oxalate)_3]^3-\) complex. Here 'n' is _________ (Assume \(\Delta_0 >> P\))


Question 72:

For the thermal decomposition of reactant AB(g), the following plot is constructed.


The half life of the reaction is 'x' min.

x = ________ min. (Nearest integer)


Question 73:

For the following gas phase equilibrium reaction at constant temperature, NH₃(g) = 1/2 N₂(g) + 3/2 H₂(g) if the total pressure is √3 atm and the pressure equilibrium constant (K_p) is 9 atm, then the degree of dissociation is given as (x × 10⁻²)⁻¹/². The value of x is ________ (nearest integer)


Question 74:

x mg of pure HCl was used to make an aqueous solution. 25.0 mL of 0.1 M Ba(OH)₂ solution is used when the HCl solution was titrated against it. The numerical value of x is ________ × 10⁻¹. (Nearest integer) Given: Molar mass of HCl and Ba(OH)₂ are 36.5 and 171.0 g mol⁻¹ respectively.


Question 75:

Consider all the structural isomers with molecular formula C₃H₅Br are separately treated with KOH(aq) to give respective substitution products, without any rearrangement. The number of products which can exhibit optical isomerism from these is ________.

JEE Main 2026 Jan 23rd Shift 1 Video Solutions