JEE Main 2026 Jan 28 Shift 2 question paper is available here with answer key and solutions PDF. NTA conducted the second shift of the day on Jan 28, 2026, from 3 PM to 6 PM.

JEE Main 2026 28th Jan Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Based on initial analysis, JEE Main Jan 28th Shift 2 was Moderate to Difficult. Students can access the JEE Main Jan 28 Shift 2 official questions with answer keys here.

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 JEE Main Jan 28th Shift 2

Question 1:

Let \(P_1 : y = 4x^2\) and \(P_2 : y = x^2 + 27\) be two parabolas.
If the area of the bounded region enclosed between \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) is six times the area of the bounded region enclosed between the line \(y = x\), the line \(x = 0\), and \(P_1\), then the required value is:

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(15\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(12\)

Question 2:

Let \[ f(x)=\int \frac{dx}{2\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)^x+2x\left(\frac12\right)^x} \]
such that \(f(0)=-26+24\log_e(2)\).
If \(f(1)=a+b\log_e(3)\), where \(a,b\in\mathbb{Z}\), then \(a+b\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(-11\)
  • (B) \(-5\)
  • (C) \(-26\)
  • (D) \(-18\)

Question 3:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: \[ 25^{13}+20^{13}+31^{13} is divisible by 7 \]

Statement II:
The integral part of \(\left(7+4\sqrt3\right)^{25}\) is an odd number.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 4:

Let the ellipse \[ E:\ \frac{x^2}{144}+\frac{y^2}{169}=1 \]
and the hyperbola \[ H:\ \frac{x^2}{16}-\frac{y^2}{2^2}=1 \]
have the same foci.
If \(e\) and \(L\) respectively denote the eccentricity and the length of the latus rectum of \(H\),
then the value of \(24(e+L)\) is:

  • (A) \(67\)
  • (B) \(296\)
  • (C) \(148\)
  • (D) \(126\)

Question 5:

Let the arithmetic mean of \(\frac{1}{a}\) and \(\frac{1}{b}\) be \(\frac{5}{16}\), where \(a>2\).
If \(a,4,b\) are in A.P., then the equation \[ ax^2-ax+2(a-2b)=0 \]
has:

  • (A) one root in \((1,4)\) and another in \((-2,0)\)
  • (B) complex roots of magnitude less than \(2\)
  • (C) both roots in the interval \((-2,0)\)
  • (D) one root in \((0,2)\) and another in \((-4,-2)\)

Question 6:

The sum of the coefficients of \(x^{499}\) and \(x^{500}\) in \[ (1+x)^{1000}+x(1+x)^{999}+x^2(1+x)^{998}+\cdots+x^{1000} \]
is:

  • (A) \({}^{1000}C_{501}\)
  • (B) \({}^{1002}C_{500}\)
  • (C) \({}^{1001}C_{501}\)
  • (D) \({}^{1002}C_{501}\)

Question 7:

Let \(y=y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \[ x\frac{dy}{dx}=y-x^2\cot x,\quad x\in(0,\pi) \]
If \(y\!\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=\frac{\pi^2}{2}\), then \[ 6y\!\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)-8y\!\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right) \]
is equal to:

  • (A) \(3\pi\)
  • (B) \(-3\pi\)
  • (C) \(\pi\)
  • (D) \(-\pi\)

Question 8:

An ellipse has its centre at \((1,-2)\), one focus at \((3,-2)\) and one vertex at \((5,-2)\).
Then the length of its latus rectum is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{16}{\sqrt3}\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(4\sqrt3\)
  • (D) \(6\sqrt3\)

Question 9:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I:
The function \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) defined by \[ f(x)=\frac{x}{1+|x|} \]
is one-one.

Statement II:
The function \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) defined by \[ f(x)=\frac{x^2+4x-30}{x^2-8x+18} \]
is many-one.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 10:

Let \[ f(x)=\lim_{\theta\to 0} \frac{\cos(\pi x-\theta)\,\sin(x-1)} {1+x^{\theta/2}(x-1)},\qquad x\in\mathbb{R}. \]
Consider the following statements:


[(I)] \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=1\).
[(II)] \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=-1\).


Then:

  • (A) Only (I) is true
  • (B) Neither (I) nor (II) is true
  • (C) Both (I) and (II) are true
  • (D) Only (II) is true

Question 11:

Let \(A\) be the focus of the parabola \(y^2=8x\).
Let the line \(y=mx+c\) intersect the parabola at two distinct points \(B\) and \(C\).
If the centroid of triangle \(ABC\) is \(\left(\frac{7}{3},\frac{4}{3}\right)\),
then \((BC)^2\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(41\)
  • (B) \(89\)
  • (C) \(32\)
  • (D) \(80\)

Question 12:

Let \([\,\cdot\,]\) denote the greatest integer function. Then \[ \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{12(3+[x])}{3+[\sin x]+[\cos x]}\,dx \]
is equal to:

  • (A) \(13\pi+1\)
  • (B) \(12\pi+5\)
  • (C) \(11\pi+2\)
  • (D) \(15\pi+4\)

Question 13:

Let \(P\) be a point in the plane of the vectors \[ \vec{AB}=3\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k} \quadand\quad \vec{AC}=\hat{i}-\hat{j}+3\hat{k} \]
such that \(P\) is equidistant from the lines \(AB\) and \(AC\).
If \(|\vec{AP}|=\frac{\sqrt5}{2}\), then the area of triangle \(ABP\) is:

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{26}}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{30}}{4}\)

Question 14:

Let \(Q(a,b,c)\) be the image of the point \(P(3,2,1)\) in the line \[ \frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-1}{1}. \]
The distance of \(Q\) from the line \[ \frac{x-9}{3}=\frac{y-9}{2}=\frac{z-5}{-2} \]
is:

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(7\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 15:

The probability distribution of a random variable \(X\) is given below:
\[ \begin{array}{c|cccccccc} x & 4k & \frac{30k}{7} & \frac{32k}{7} & \frac{34k}{7} & \frac{36k}{7} & \frac{38k}{7} & \frac{40k}{7} & 6k
\hline P(X) & \frac{2}{15} & \frac{1}{15} & \frac{2}{15} & \frac{1}{5} & \frac{1}{15} & \frac{2}{15} & \frac{1}{5} & \frac{1}{15} \end{array} \]

If \(E(X)=\dfrac{263}{15}\), then \(P(X<20)\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{14}{15}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{8}{15}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{11}{15}\)

Question 16:

Considering the principal values of inverse trigonometric functions, the value of \[ \tan\!\left(2\sin^{-1}\!\frac{2}{\sqrt{13}}-2\cos^{-1}\!\frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}\right) \]
is equal to:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{33}{56}\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac{33}{56}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{16}{63}\)
  • (D) \(-\dfrac{16}{63}\)

Question 17:

Let the circle \(x^2+y^2=4\) intersect the \(x\)-axis at points \(A(a,0)\) and \(B(b,0)\).
Let \(P(2\cos\alpha,2\sin\alpha)\), \(0<\alpha<\frac{\pi}{2}\), and \(Q(2\cos\beta,2\sin\beta)\) be two points on the circle such that \((\alpha-\beta)=\frac{\pi}{2}\).
Then the point of intersection of lines \(AQ\) and \(BP\) lies on:

  • (A) \(x^2+y^2-4x-4y-4=0\)
  • (B) \(x^2+y^2-4x-4=0\)
  • (C) \(x^2+y^2-4y-4=0\)
  • (D) \(x^2+y^2-4x-4y=0\)

Question 18:

Let \[ A=\{z\in\mathbb{C}:|z-2|\le 4\} \quadand\quad B=\{z\in\mathbb{C}:|z-2|+|z+2|=5\}. \]
Then the maximum value of \(|z_1-z_2|\), where \(z_1\in A\) and \(z_2\in B\), is:

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{15}{2}\)
  • (C) \(9\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{17}{2}\)

Question 19:

Evaluate: \[ \frac{6}{3^{26}}+\frac{10\cdot1}{3^{25}}+\frac{10\cdot2}{3^{24}}+\frac{10\cdot2^{2}}{3^{23}}+\cdots+\frac{10\cdot2^{24}}{3}. \]

  • (A) \(3^{25}\)
  • (B) \(2^{25}\)
  • (C) \(3^{26}\)
  • (D) \(2^{26}\)

Question 20:

The sum of all the elements in the range of \[ f(x)=\operatorname{sgn}(\sin x)+\operatorname{sgn}(\cos x) +\operatorname{sgn}(\tan x)+\operatorname{sgn}(\cot x), \]
where \[ x\neq \frac{n\pi}{2},\ n\in\mathbb{Z}, \qquad \operatorname{sgn}(t)= \begin{cases} 1,& t>0
-1,& t<0 \end{cases} \]
is:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(-2\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 21:

If \[ \sum_{r=1}^{25}\left(\frac{r}{r^4+r^2+1}\right)=\frac{p}{q}, \]
where \(p\) and \(q\) are positive integers such that \(\gcd(p,q)=1\),
then \(p+q\) is equal to ___.


Question 22:

Three persons enter a lift at the ground floor. The lift will go up to the 10th floor.
The number of ways in which the three persons can exit the lift at three different floors,
if the lift does not stop at the 1st, 2nd and 3rd floors, is equal to ___.


Question 23:

If the distance of the point \(P(4\alpha,\alpha,\beta)\), \(\beta<0\), from the line \[ \vec r = 4\hat i-\hat k+\mu(2\hat i+3\hat k),\ \mu\in\mathbb{R}, \]
along a line with direction ratios \(3,-1,0\) is \(\dfrac{13}{\sqrt{10}}\),
then \(\alpha^2+\beta^2\) is equal to ___.


Question 24:

Let \(f\) be a differentiable function satisfying \[ f(x)=1-2x+\int_0^x (t-x)f(t)\,dt,\quad x\in\mathbb{R}, \]
and let \[ g(x)=\int_0^x \{f(t)+2\}^5(t-4)^6(t+12)^7\,dt. \]
If \(p\) and \(q\) are respectively the points of local minima and local maxima of \(g\),
then the value of \(|p+q|\) is ___.


Question 25:

Let \[ A=\begin{pmatrix}3 & -4
1 & -1\end{pmatrix} \]
and \(B\) be two matrices such that \[ A^{100}-100B+I=0. \]
Then the sum of all the elements of \(B^{100}\) is ___.


Question 26:

For a transparent prism, if the angle of minimum deviation is equal to its refracting angle,
the refractive index \(n\) of the prism satisfies:

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}
  • (C) \(n\ge 2\)
  • (D) \(1

Question 27:

Which one of the following is \emph{not} a measurable quantity?

  • (A) Voltage difference
  • (B) Voltage
  • (C) Resistance
  • (D) Displacement current

Question 28:

Identify the correct statements:


[A.] Electrostatic field lines form closed loops.
[B.] The electric field lines point radially outward when charge is greater than zero.
[C.] The Gauss’s Law is valid only for inverse-square force.
[D.] The work done in moving a charged particle in a static electric field around a closed path is zero.
[E.] The motion of a particle under Coulomb’s force must take place in a plane.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D Only
  • (B) A, C, E Only
  • (C) B, C, D, E Only
  • (D) A, B, D, E Only

Question 29:

The time period of a simple harmonic oscillator is \[ T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}. \]
Measured value of mass \(m\) has an accuracy of \(10%\) and time for 50 oscillations of
the spring is found to be \(60\,s\) using a watch of 2 s resolution.
Percentage error in determination of spring constant \(k\) is:

  • (A) \(7.60%\)
  • (B) \(6.76%\)
  • (C) \(3.43%\)
  • (D) \(3.35%\)

Question 30:

A Wheatstone bridge is initially at room temperature and all arms of the bridge have same value of resistances \[ (R_1=R_2=R_3=R_4). \]
When \(R_3\) resistance is heated, its resistance value increases by \(10%\).
The potential difference \((V_a-V_b)\) after \(R_3\) is heated is ___ V.

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(0.95\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(1.05\)

Question 31:

The speed of a longitudinal wave in a metallic bar is \(400\,m/s\).
If the density and Young’s modulus of the bar material increase by \(0.5%\) and \(1%\) respectively,
then the speed of the wave is changed approximately to ___ m/s.

  • (A) \(399\)
  • (B) \(398\)
  • (C) \(402\)
  • (D) \(401\)

Question 32:

Two p-n junction diodes \(D_1\) and \(D_2\) are connected as shown in the figure. \(A\) and \(B\) are input signals and \(C\) is the output.
The given circuit will function as a ___.

  • (A) NOR Gate
  • (B) NAND Gate
  • (C) AND Gate
  • (D) OR Gate

Question 33:

The mean free path of a molecule of diameter \(5\times10^{-10}\,m\)
at temperature \(41^\circC\) and pressure \(1.38\times10^5\,Pa\) is given as ___ m.
(Given \(k_B=1.38\times10^{-23}\,J/K\))

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{2}\times10^{-8}\)
  • (B) \(10\sqrt{2}\times10^{-8}\)
  • (C) \(2\times10^{-8}\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{2}\times10^{-10}\)

Question 34:

A nucleus has mass number \(\alpha\) and radius \(R_\alpha\).
Another nucleus has mass number \(\beta\) and radius \(R_\beta\).
If \(\beta=8\alpha\), then \(R_\alpha/R_\beta\) is:

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(0.5\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 35:

A biconvex lens is formed by using two plano-convex lenses as shown in the figure.
The refractive index and radius of curvature of surfaces are also mentioned.
When an object is placed on the left side of the lens at a distance of \(30\,cm\),
the magnification of the image will be:

  • (A) \(-2.5\)
  • (B) \(+2.5\)
  • (C) \(+2\)
  • (D) \(-2\)

Question 36:

A small block of mass \(m\) slides down from the top of a frictionless inclined surface,
while the inclined plane is moving towards left with constant acceleration \(a_0\).
The angle between the inclined plane and ground is \(\theta\) and its base length is \(L\).
Assuming that initially the small block is at the top of the inclined plane,
the time it takes to reach the lowest point of the inclined plane is ___.

  • (A) \(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{4L}{g\sin 2\theta-a_0(1+\cos 2\theta)}}\)
  • (B) \(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{2L}{g\sin\theta-a_0\cos\theta}}\)
  • (C) \(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{4L}{g\cos^2\theta-a_0\sin\theta\cos\theta}}\)
  • (D) \(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{2L}{g\sin 2\theta-a_0(1+\cos 2\theta)}}\)

Question 37:

In an experiment, a set of readings are obtained as follows: \[ 1.24~mm,\ 1.25~mm,\ 1.23~mm,\ 1.21~mm. \]
The expected least count of the instrument used in recording these readings is ___ mm.

  • (A) \(0.01\)
  • (B) \(0.1\)
  • (C) \(0.05\)
  • (D) \(0.001\)

Question 38:

Number of photons of equal energy emitted per second by a \(6\,mW\) laser source
operating at wavelength \(663\,nm\) is ___.
(Given: \(h=6.63\times10^{-34}\,J·s\) and \(c=3\times10^8\,m/s\))

  • (A) \(10\times10^{15}\)
  • (B) \(5\times10^{16}\)
  • (C) \(5\times10^{15}\)
  • (D) \(2\times10^{16}\)

Question 39:

A particle starts moving from time \(t=0\) and its coordinate is given as \[ x(t)=4t^3-3t. \]
Consider the following statements:


[A.] The particle returns to its original position (origin) \(0.866\) units later.
[B.] The particle is \(1\) unit away from origin at its turning point.
[C.] Acceleration of the particle is non-negative.
[D.] The particle is \(0.5\) units away from origin at its turning point.
[E.] The particle never turns back as acceleration is non-negative.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) C, E Only
  • (B) A, B, C Only
  • (C) A, C, D Only
  • (D) A, C Only

Question 40:

Match List–I with List–II.


\begin{tabular{l l
List–I & List–II

A. Coefficient of viscosity & I. \([ML^{-1}T^{-2}]\)

B. Surface tension & II. \([ML^{-2}T^{-2}]\)

C. Pressure & III. \([ML^{0}T^{-2}]\)

D. Surface energy & IV. \([ML^{-1}T^{-1}]\)
\end{tabular


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
  • (B) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
  • (C) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
  • (D) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III

Question 41:

A plane electromagnetic wave is moving in free space with velocity \[ c=3\times10^{8}\ m/s \]
and its electric field is given as \[ \vec E = 54\sin(kz-\omega t)\,\hat{j}\ V/m, \]
where \(\hat{j}\) is the unit vector along the \(y\)-axis.
The magnetic field \(\vec B\) of the wave is:

  • (A) \(-1.8\times10^{-7}\sin(kz-\omega t)\,\hat{i}\ T\)
  • (B) \(1.4\times10^{-7}\sin(kz-\omega t)\,\hat{k}\ T\)
  • (C) \(1.4\times10^{-7}\sin(kz-\omega t)\,\hat{i}\ T\)
  • (D) \(+1.8\times10^{-7}\sin(kz-\omega t)\,\hat{i}\ T\)

Question 42:

A long cylindrical conductor with large cross section carries an electric current
distributed uniformly over its cross-section. Magnetic field due to this current is:


[A.] maximum at either end of the conductor
[B.] maximum at the axis of the conductor and minimum at the midpoint
[C.] minimum at the surface of the conductor
[D.] minimum at the axis of the conductor
[E.] same at all points in the cross-section of the conductor


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) D Only
  • (B) B, C Only
  • (C) A, D Only
  • (D) E Only

Question 43:

When the position vector \[ \vec r = x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}+z\hat{k} \]
changes sign as \(\vec r \rightarrow -\vec r\),
which one of the following vectors will \emph{not flip under sign change?

  • (A) Linear momentum
  • (B) Angular momentum
  • (C) Velocity
  • (D) Acceleration

Question 44:

Identify the correct statements:


[A.] Effective capacitance of a series combination of capacitors is always smaller than the smallest capacitance of the combination.
[B.] When a dielectric medium is placed between charged plates of a capacitor, displacement of charges cannot occur due to insulation property of dielectric.
[C.] Increasing area of a capacitor plate or decreasing thickness of dielectric is an alternate method to increase the capacitance.
[D.] For a point charge, concentric spherical shells centered at the location of the charge are equipotential surfaces.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) C and D Only
  • (B) A, B and C Only
  • (C) B and D Only
  • (D) A, C and D Only

Question 45:

As shown in the figure, a spring is kept in a stretched position with some extension by
holding the masses \(1\,kg\) and \(0.2\,kg\) with a separation more than spring natural length
and then released. Assuming the horizontal surface to be frictionless, the angular frequency
(in SI unit) of the system is ___.
(Given \(k=150\,N/m\))

  • (A) \(27\)
  • (B) \(20\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(30\)

Question 46:

A flywheel having mass \(3\,kg\) and radius \(5\,m\) is free to rotate about a horizontal axis.
A string having negligible mass is wound around the wheel and the loose end of the string is connected
to a \(3\,kg\) mass. The mass is kept initially and released. Kinetic energy of the flywheel when the mass
descends by \(3\,m\) is ___ J. \((g=10\,m s^{-2})\)


% Given
Given: \[ M = 3\,kg, \quad R = 5\,m, \quad m = 3\,kg, \quad h = 3\,m, \quad g = 10\,m s^{-2} \]


Question 47:

Two tuning forks \(A\) and \(B\) are sounded together giving rise to 8 beats in 2 s.
When fork \(A\) is loaded with wax, the beat frequency is reduced to 4 beats in 2 s.
If the original frequency of tuning fork \(B\) is \(380\ Hz\), find the original frequency of tuning fork \(A\).


% Given
Given: \[ f_B = 380\ Hz \]


Question 48:

A beam of light consisting of wavelengths \(650\,nm\) and \(550\,nm\) illuminates
Young’s double slits with separation \(d=2\,mm\) such that the interference fringes are formed on
a screen placed at a distance \(D=1.2\,m\) from the slits. The least distance from the central maximum,
where the bright fringes due to both wavelengths coincide, is ____ \(\times10^{-5}\,m\).


% Given
Given: \[ \lambda_1=650\,nm,\quad \lambda_2=550\,nm,\quad d=2\times10^{-3}\,m,\quad D=1.2\,m \]


Question 49:

An inductor stores \(16\,J\) of magnetic field energy and dissipates \(32\,W\) of thermal
energy due to its resistance when an alternating current of \(2\,A\) (rms) and frequency \(50\,Hz\) flows through it. The ratio of inductive reactance to resistance is ___. \((\pi=3.14)\)


% Given
Given: \[ U=16\,J,\quad P=32\,W,\quad I=2\,A,\quad f=50\,Hz \]


Question 50:

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cyclic process \(ABC\) as shown in the \(P\!-\!V\)
diagram. The total work done by the system during the cycle \(ABC\) is ___ J.




% Given
Given:
The area enclosed by the cycle in the \(P\!-\!V\) diagram represents the work done.


Question 51:

Consider the elements N, P, O, S, Cl and F. The number of valence electrons present in the
elements with most and least metallic character from the above list is respectively.

  • (A) 7 and 5
  • (B) 6 and 7
  • (C) 5 and 6
  • (D) 5 and 7

Question 52:

The plot of \(\log_{10}K\) vs \(\frac{1}{T}\) gives a straight line.
The intercept and slope respectively are (where \(K\) is equilibrium constant).

  • (A) \(\dfrac{2.303R}{\Delta H^\circ},\ \dfrac{2.303R}{\Delta S^\circ}\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac{\Delta S^\circ R}{2.303},\ \dfrac{\Delta H^\circ R}{2.303}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\Delta S^\circ}{2.303R},\ -\dfrac{\Delta H^\circ}{2.303R}\)
  • (D) \(-\dfrac{\Delta H^\circ}{2.303R},\ \dfrac{\Delta S^\circ}{2.303R}\)

Question 53:

The reactions which produce alcohol as the product are :


Question 54:

A student has been given 0.314 g of an organic compound and asked to estimate Sulphur. During the experiment, the student has obtained 0.4813 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur present in the compound is \hspace{2cm}. (Given Molar mass in g mol\(^{-1}\): S, 32; BaSO\(_4\), 233)


Question 55:

The cyclic cations having the same number of hyperconjugation are:

  • (1) A, C and D only
  • (2) A and B Only
  • (3) A and C Only
  • (4) B and C Only

Question 56:

The correct order of acidic strength of the major products formed in the given reactions is:

  • (1) C > B > A > D
  • (2) C > B > A > D
  • (3) A > D > C > B
  • (4) A > D > B > C

Question 57:

Total number of alkali insoluble solid sulphonamides obtained by reaction of given amines with Hinsberg's reagent is:

Amines: Aniline, N-Methylaniline, Methanamine, N,N-Dimethylmethanamine, N-Methyl methanamine, Phenylmethanamine, N-propylaniline, N-phenylaniline, N,N-Dimethylaniline, Allyl amine, Isopropyl amine

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 8

Question 58:

Consider the following reactions:


The oxidation states of Cu in Z and Q, respectively are:

  • (1) +2 and +1
  • (2) +1 and +2
  • (3) +2 and +2
  • (4) +1 and +1

Question 59:

The wavelength of photon 'A' is 400 nm. The frequency of photon 'B' is \(10^{16}\,s^{-1}\). The wave number of photon 'C' is \(10^{5}\,cm^{-1}\). The correct order of energy of these photons is:

  • (1) C > B > A
  • (2) B > A > C
  • (3) A > C > B
  • (4) A > B > C

Question 60:

A student performed analysis of aliphatic organic compound 'X' which on analysis gave C = 61.01%, H = 15.25%, N = 23.74%.
This compound, on treatment with HNO\(_2\)/H\(_2\)O produced another compound 'Y' which did not contain any nitrogen atom. However, the compound 'Y' upon controlled oxidation produced another compound 'Z' that responded to iodoform test.
The structure of 'X' is:

  • (1) Ph—CH—NH\(_2\) \quad (with CH\(_3\) substituent)
  • (2) CH\(_3\)—CH—NH\(_2\) \quad (with CH\(_3\) substituent)
  • (3) CH\(_3\)—CH\(_2\)—CH—CH\(_3\) \quad (with NH\(_2\) substituent)
  • (4) CH\(_3\)—CH\(_2\)—CH\(_2\)—NH\(_2\)

Question 61:

Observe the following equilibrium in a 1 L flask: \[ \ce{A(g) <=> B(g)} \]
At \(T(K)\), the equilibrium concentrations of A and B are 0.5 M and 0.375 M respectively. 0.1 moles of A is added into the flask and heated to \(T(K)\) to establish the equilibrium again. The new equilibrium concentrations (in M) of A and B are respectively:

  • (1) 0.742, 0.557
  • (2) 0.367, 0.275
  • (3) 0.53, 0.4
  • (4) 0.557, 0.418

Question 62:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The increasing order of boiling point of hydrogen halides is HCl < HBr < HI < HF.
Statement II: The increasing order of melting point of hydrogen halides is HCl < HBr < HF < HI.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 63:

Match List - I with List - II according to shape.

List - I
A. XeO\(_3\)
B. XeF\(_2\)
C. XeO\(_2\)F\(_2\)
D. XeOF\(_4\)

List - II
I. BrF\(_5\)
II. NH\(_3\)
III. [I\(_3\)]\(^{-}\)
IV. SF\(_4\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Question 64:

For the given reaction: \[ \ce{CaCO3 + 2HCl -> CaCl2 + H2O + CO2} \]
If 90 g \(\ce{CaCO3}\) is added to 300 mL of HCl which contains 38.55% HCl by mass and has density 1.13 g mL\(^{-1}\), then which of the following option is correct?

Given molar mass of H, Cl, Ca and O are 1, 35.5, 40 and 16 g mol\(^{-1}\) respectively.

  • (1) 60.32 g of HCl remains unreacted
  • (2) 32.85 g of CaCO\(_3\) remains unreacted
  • (3) 97.30 g of HCl reacted
  • (4) 64.97 g of HCl remains unreacted

Question 65:

Consider the following statements about manganate and permanganate ions. Identify the correct statements.

A. The geometry of both manganate and permanganate ions is tetrahedral.
B. The oxidation states of Mn in manganate and permanganate are +7 and +6, respectively.
C. Oxidation of Mn(II) salt by peroxodisulphate gives manganate ion as the final product.
D. Manganate ion is paramagnetic and permanganate ion is diamagnetic.
E. Acidified permanganate ion reduces oxalate, nitrite and iodide ions.

  • (1) A, D and E Only
  • (2) A and D Only
  • (3) A, C and D Only
  • (4) A, B and E Only

Question 66:

The correct increasing order of spin-only magnetic moment values of the complex ions \([\ce{MnBr4}]^{2-}\) (A), \([\ce{Cu(H2O)6}]^{2+}\) (B), \([\ce{Ni(CN)4}]^{2-}\) (C) and \([\ce{Ni(H2O)6}]^{2+}\) (D) is:

  • (1) A = B < C < D
  • (2) B < D < C
  • (3) C < B < A
  • (4) C < B < D < A

Question 67:

Which of the following reaction is NOT correctly represented?

  • (1) Methylbenzene + Br\(_2\) \(\xrightarrow{hv}\) Benzyl bromide
  • (2) Benzene diazonium chloride + Cu\(_2\)Br\(_2\)/HBr \(\to\) Bromobenzene
  • (3) Methylbenzene + Br\(_2\)/Fe (dark) \(\to\) Ortho- and para-bromotoluenes
  • (4) Methylbenzene + Br\(_2\) \(\xrightarrow{hv}\) Benzyl bromide

Question 68:

Structures of four disaccharides are given below. Among the given disaccharides, the non-reducing sugar is:

  • (1) Maltose
  • (2) Lactose
  • (3) Sucrose
  • (4) Cellobiose

Question 69:

Identify the correct statements:
The presence of –NO\(_2\) group in benzene ring

A. activates the ring towards electrophilic substitutions.
B. deactivates the ring towards electrophilic substitutions.
C. activates the ring towards nucleophilic substitutions.
D. deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic substitutions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and D Only
  • (2) B and C Only
  • (3) C and A Only
  • (4) B and D Only

Question 70:

Consider the following aqueous solutions.

I. 2.2 g Glucose in 125 mL of solution.
II. 1.9 g Calcium chloride in 250 mL of solution.
III. 9.0 g Urea in 500 mL of solution.
IV. 20.5 g Aluminium sulphate in 750 mL of solution.

The correct increasing order of boiling point of these solutions will be:
[Given: Molar mass in g mol\(^{-1}\): H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Cl = 35.5, Ca = 40, Al = 27 and S = 32]

  • (1) I < III < IV < II
  • (2) III < I < II < IV
  • (3) I < II < III < IV
  • (4) III < II < I < IV

Question 71:

For strong electrolyte \(\Lambda_m\) increases slowly with dilution and can be represented by the equation: \[ \Lambda_m = \Lambda_m^0 - A\sqrt{c} \]

Molar conductivity values of the solutions of strong electrolyte AB at 18\(^\circ\)C are given below:
\[ \begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|} \hline c \,[mol L^{-1}] & 0.04 & 0.09 & 0.16 & 0.25
\hline \Lambda_m \,[S cm^2 mol^{-1}] & 96.1 & 95.7 & 95.3 & 94.9
\hline \end{array} \]

The value of constant \(A\) based on the above data [in \(S cm^2 mol^{-1}/(mol L^{-1})^{1/2}\)] unit is:


Question 72:

Consider the following two first-order reactions:

A \(\to\) B (first reaction)
C \(\to\) D (second reaction)

The rate constant for first reaction at 500 K is double of the same at 300 K. At 500 K, 50% of the reaction becomes complete in 2 hours. The activation energy of the second reaction is half of that of first reaction. If the rate constant at 500 K of the second reaction becomes double of the rate constant of first reaction at the same temperature; then rate constant for the second reaction at 300 K is ______ \(\times 10^{-3}\,hour^{-1}\) (nearest integer).


Question 73:

The number of isoelectronic species among \(\ce{S^{2-}}, \ce{C^{4-}}, \ce{Mn^{2+}}, \ce{Co^{3+}}\) and \(\ce{Fe^{3+}}\) is ‘n’. If ‘n’ moles of AgCl is formed during the reaction of complex with formula \(\ce{CoCl2(en)2NH3}\) with excess of AgNO\(_3\) solution, then the number of electrons present in the \(t_{2g}\) orbital of the complex is ________.


Question 74:

A volume of \(x\) mL of 5 M NaHCO\(_3\) solution was mixed with 10 mL of 2 M H\(_2\)CO\(_3\) solution to make an electrolytic buffer. If the same buffer was used in the following electrochemical cell to record a cell potential of 253.5 mV, then the value of \(x =\) ______ mL (nearest integer).
\[ \ce{Sn(s) | Sn(OH)2(s) | HSnO2^- (0.05 M) | OH^- (0.05 M) || Bi2O3(s) | Bi(s)} \]

Given: \[ E^\circ(\ce{HSnO2^- / Sn(OH)2}) = -0.90 \,V, \quad E^\circ(\ce{Bi2O3 / Bi}) = -0.44 \,V \] \[ pK_a(\ce{H2CO3}) = 6.11, \quad \frac{2.303RT}{F} = 0.059 \,V, \quad Antilog(1.29) = 19.5 \]


Question 75:

Two positively charged particles \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) have been accelerated across the same potential difference of 200 keV.
Given mass of \(m_1 = 1 \,amu\) and \(m_2 = 4 \,amu\).
The de Broglie wavelength of \(m_1\) will be \(x\) times that of \(m_2\). The value of \(x\) is ______ (nearest integer).

Jee Main 28 Jan Shift 2 Question Paper with Video Solutions