NTA has released JEE Main 2026 official question papers on their website jeemain.nta.nic.in. JEE Main 2026 April 6 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available here.

NTA conducted JEE Main 2026 April 6 Shift 2 from 3 PM to 6 PM in CBT Mode in 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, prepared according to the latest JEE Main exam pattern.

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In JEE Mains 2026 April 6 Shift 2 paper, Physics Paper was easy based on initial student reaction.

JEE Main 2026 April 6 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

JEE Mains 2026 April 6 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) be defined as \( f(x) = \dfrac{2x^2 - 3x + 2}{3x^2 + x + 3} \). Then \( f \) is:

  • (A) both one-one and onto
  • (B) one-one but not onto
  • (C) onto but not one-one
  • (D) neither one-one nor onto

Question 2:

Consider the quadratic equation \( (n^2 - 2n + 2)x^2 - 3x + (n^2 - 2n + 2)^2 = 0, \; n \in \mathbb{R}. \)
Let \( \alpha \) be the minimum value of the product of its roots and \( \beta \) be the maximum value of the sum of its roots. Then the sum of the first six terms of the G.P., whose first term is \( \alpha \) and the common ratio is \( \dfrac{\alpha}{\beta} \), is:

  • (A) \( \frac{61}{37} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{121}{81} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{364}{243} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1093}{729} \)

Question 3:

Let \( S = \{z \in \mathbb{C} : z^2 + \sqrt{6}\,iz - 3 = 0 \}. \) Then \( \displaystyle \sum_{z \in S} z^8 \) is equal to:

  • (A) \(162\)
  • (B) \(184\)
  • (C) \(262\)
  • (D) \(324\)

Question 4:

The sum of all possible values of \( \theta \in [0,2\pi] \), for which the system of equations : \[ x\cos3\theta - 8y - 12z = 0 \] \[ x\cos2\theta + 3y + 3z = 0 \] \[ x + y + 3z = 0 \]
has a non-trivial solution, is equal to :

  • (A) \( \pi \)
  • (B) \( 2\pi \)
  • (C) \( 3\pi \)
  • (D) \( 4\pi \)

Question 5:

Let \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0
3 & 1 & 0
9 & 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( B = [b_{ij}], 1 \le i,j \le 3 \). If \( B = A^{99} - I \), then the value of \( \dfrac{b_{31}-b_{21}}{b_{32}} \) is:

  • (A) \(99\)
  • (B) \(199\)
  • (C) \(149\)
  • (D) \(159\)

Question 6:

The sum \( 1 + \frac{1}{2}(1^2+2^2) + \frac{1}{3}(1^2+2^2+3^2) + \ldots \) upto \(10\) terms is equal to:

  • (A) \(130\)
  • (B) \(155\)
  • (C) \( \frac{315}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{325}{2} \)

Question 7:

A building has ground floor and 10 more floors. Nine persons enter in a lift at the ground floor. The lift goes up to the 10th floor. The number of ways, in which any 4 persons exit at a floor and the remaining 5 persons exit at a different floor, if the lift does not stop at the first and the second floors, is equal to :

  • (A) \(2184\)
  • (B) \(3064\)
  • (C) \(7056\)
  • (D) \(11340\)

Question 8:

Let the mean and the variance of seven observations \(2,4,\alpha,8,\beta,12,14\), \( \alpha < \beta \), be \(8\) and \(16\) respectively. Then the quadratic equation whose roots are \(3\alpha+2\) and \(2\beta+1\) is :

  • (A) \(x^2-35x+306=0\)
  • (B) \(x^2-41x+420=0\)
  • (C) \(x^2-45x+506=0\)
  • (D) \(x^2-37x+342=0\)

Question 9:

A bag contains 6 blue and 6 green balls. Pairs of balls are drawn without replacement until the bag is empty. The probability that each drawn pair consists of one blue ball and one green ball is:

  • (A) \( \frac{63}{925} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{17}{231} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{16}{231} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{64}{925} \)

Question 10:

Let \(C\) be a circle having centre in the first quadrant and touching the \(x\)-axis at a distance of \(3\) units from the origin. If the circle \(C\) has an intercept of length \(6\sqrt{3}\) on \(y\)-axis, then the length of the chord of the circle \(C\) on the line \(x-y=3\) is:

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(6\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(8\sqrt{2}\)

Question 11:

The eccentricity of an ellipse \(E\) with centre at the origin \(O\) is \( \frac{\sqrt3}{2} \) and its directrices are \( x=\pm \frac{4\sqrt6}{3} \).
Let \( H:\frac{x^2}{a^2}-\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1 \) be a hyperbola whose eccentricity is equal to the length of semi-major axis of \(E\), and whose length of latus rectum is equal to the length of minor axis of \(E\). Then the distance between the foci of \(H\) is :

  • (A) \( \frac{4\sqrt2}{\sqrt7} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{4\sqrt2}{7} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{\sqrt7} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{8}{7} \)

Question 12:

Let \(x=-9\) be a directrix of an ellipse \(E\), whose centre is at the origin and eccentricity is \( \frac13 \). Let \(P(\alpha,0), \alpha>0\), be a focus of \(E\) and \(AB\) be a chord passing through \(P\). Then the locus of the mid point of \(AB\) is :

  • (A) \(9y^2=8x(1-x)\)
  • (B) \(3y^2=4x(1-x)\)
  • (C) \(9y^2=8x(x-1)\)
  • (D) \(3y^2=4x(x-1)\)

Question 13:

If \( \sin\!\left(\tan^{-1}(x\sqrt2)\right)=\cot\!\left(\sin^{-1}\!\sqrt{1-x^2}\right),\; x\in(0,1) \), then the value of \(x\) is :

  • (A) \( \frac12 \)
  • (B) \( \frac13 \)
  • (C) \( \frac23 \)
  • (D) \( \frac58 \)

Question 14:

The shortest distance between the lines \[ \frac{x-4}{1}=\frac{y-3}{2}=\frac{z-2}{-3} \]
and \[ \frac{x+2}{2}=\frac{y-6}{4}=\frac{z-5}{-5} \]
is :

  • (A) \( \frac{5\sqrt6}{6} \)
  • (B) \( 2\sqrt5 \)
  • (C) \( 3\sqrt5 \)
  • (D) \( 4\sqrt5 \)

Question 15:

Let \( \vec a = 2\hat i + 3\hat j + 3\hat k \) and \( \vec b = 6\hat i + 3\hat j + 3\hat k \). Then the square of the area of the triangle with adjacent sides determined by the vectors \( (2\vec a + 3\vec b) \) and \( (\vec a - \vec b) \) is :

  • (A) \(450\)
  • (B) \(900\)
  • (C) \(1800\)
  • (D) \(2400\)

Question 16:

Let \[ \lim_{x\to2}\frac{\tan(x-2)\,[x^2+(p-2)x-2p]}{(x-2)^2}=5 \]
for some \(p,r\in\mathbb{R}\). If the set of all possible values of \(q\), such that the roots of the equation \(rx^2-px+q=0\) lie in \( (0,2) \), be the interval \( (\alpha,\beta) \), then \(4(\alpha+\beta)\) equals :

  • (A) \(11\)
  • (B) \(13\)
  • (C) \(17\)
  • (D) \(21\)

Question 17:

Let \[ A= \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 3 & -1
2 & 1 & \alpha
0 & 1 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \]
be a singular matrix. Let \[ f(x)=\int_{0}^{x}(t^2+2t+3)\,dt,\quad x\in[1,\alpha]. \]
If \(M\) and \(m\) are respectively the maximum and the minimum values of \(f\) in \([1,\alpha]\), then \(3(M-m)\) is equal to :

  • (A) \(64\)
  • (B) \(68\)
  • (C) \(72\)
  • (D) \(76\)

Question 18:

Let \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) be such that \(f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)\) for all \(x,y\in\mathbb{R}\) and \(f(0)\neq0\).
Let \(g:[1,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}\) be a differentiable function such that
\[ x^2g(x)=\int_1^x\big(t^2f(t)-tg(t)\big)\,dt \]

Then \(g(2)\) is equal to :

  • (A) \( \frac{13}{8} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{11}{16} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{15}{32} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{17}{64} \)

Question 19:

The area of the region \( \{(x,y): x^2-8x \le y \le -x\} \) is :

  • (A) \( \frac{343}{6} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{637}{6} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{437}{6} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{523}{6} \)

Question 20:

The value of the integral \[ \int_{-1}^{1}\left(\frac{x^3+|x|+1}{x^2+2|x|+1}\right)dx \]
is equal to :

  • (A) \(3\log_e2\)
  • (B) \(2\log_e2\)
  • (C) \(5\log_e3\)
  • (D) \(3\log_e3\)

Question 21:

Let \( R=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}:\log_e(x+y)\le2\} \). Then the minimum number of elements required to be added in \(R\) to make it a transitive relation is ________.


Question 22:

If \[ (1-x^3)^{10}=\sum_{r=0}^{10}a_r x^r(1-x)^{30-2r}, \]
then \( \dfrac{9a_9}{a_{10}} \) is equal to ________.


Question 23:

Let the line \(x-y=4\) intersect the circle \(C:(x-4)^2+(y+3)^2=9\) at the points \(Q\) and \(R\). If \(P(\alpha,\beta)\) is a point on \(C\) such that \(PQ=PR\), then \((6\alpha+8\beta)^2\) is equal to ______.


Question 24:

Let the image of the point \(P(0,-5,0)\) in the line \[ \frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y}{1}=\frac{z+1}{-2} \]
be the point \(R\) and the image of the point \(Q(0,-\frac12,0)\) in the line \[ \frac{x-1}{-1}=\frac{y+9}{4}=\frac{z+1}{1} \]
be the point \(S\). Then the square of the area of the parallelogram \(PQRS\) is ______.


Question 25:

Let \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} x^3+8, & x<0,
x^2-4, & x\ge0, \end{cases} \qquad g(x)= \begin{cases} (x-8)^{1/3}, & x<0,
(x+4)^{1/2}, & x\ge0. \end{cases} \]
Then the number of points where the function \(g\circ f\) is discontinuous is ______.


Question 26:

The percentage error in the calculated volume of a sphere, if there is \(2%\) error in its diameter measurement, is _____.

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 27:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

[A.] Boltzmann constant
[B.] Stefan's constant
[C.] Planck's constant
[D.] Gravitational constant


List-II

[I.] \( [M^{-1}L^{3}T^{-2}] \)
[II.] \( [ML^{2}T^{-1}] \)
[III.] \( [ML^{2}T^{-2}K^{-1}] \)
[IV.] \( [ML^{0}T^{-3}K^{-4}] \)


Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
View Solution



Concept:
Dimensional formulas of important physical constants:


Boltzmann constant \(k\): relates energy with temperature. \[ [E]=[ML^2T^{-2}] \]
Thus \[ k=\frac{E}{T} \]
\[ [ML^2T^{-2}K^{-1}] \]

Stefan–Boltzmann constant \(\sigma\): from Stefan’s law
\[ E=\sigma T^4 \]
\[ \sigma=[ML^0T^{-3}K^{-4}] \]

Planck's constant \(h\):
\[ E=h\nu \]
\[ h=\frac{E}{\nu} \]
\[ [ML^2T^{-1}] \]

Gravitational constant \(G\):

From Newton’s law
\[ F=\frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2} \]

Thus
\[ G=[M^{-1}L^3T^{-2}] \]



Step 1: Match the constants.
\[ A \rightarrow III \]
\[ B \rightarrow IV \]
\[ C \rightarrow II \]
\[ D \rightarrow I \]

Hence the correct match is:
\[ A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I \] Quick Tip: Remember the key dimensional constants: \(h=[ML^2T^{-1}]\), \(k=[ML^2T^{-2}K^{-1}]\), and \(G=[M^{-1}L^3T^{-2}]\).


Question 28:

A solid sphere (A) of mass \(5m\) and a spherical shell (B) of mass \(m\), both having the same radius, are placed on a rough surface. When a force of same magnitude is applied tangentially at the highest points of \(A\) and \(B\), they start rolling without slipping with accelerations \(a_A\) and \(a_B\) respectively. The ratio of \(a_A\) and \(a_B\) is _____.

  • (A) \(5:21\)
  • (B) \(6:10\)
  • (C) \(21:25\)
  • (D) \(1:5\)

Question 29:

A body of mass \(1\,kg\) moves along a straight line with a velocity \(v=2x^2\). The work done by the body during displacement from \(x=0\) to \(x=5\,m\) is _____ J.

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(250\)
  • (C) \(1250\)
  • (D) \(1000\)

Question 30:

A cylinder with adiabatic walls is closed at both ends and is divided into two compartments by a frictionless adiabatic piston. Ideal gas is filled in both (left and right) the compartments at same \(P,V,T\). Heating is started from left side until pressure changes to \( \frac{27P}{8} \). If initial volume of each compartment was \(9\) litres then the final volume in right-hand side compartment is _____ litres. (for this ideal gas \(C_P/C_V=1.5\)).

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(14\)
  • (D) \(9\)

Question 31:

For an electromagnetic wave propagating through vacuum, \( \vec{k},\vec{E}\) and \( \omega \) represent propagation vector, electric field and angular frequency respectively. The magnetic field associated with this wave is represented by :

  • (A) \( \dfrac{\vec{E}\times\vec{k}}{\omega} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{\vec{k}\times\vec{E}}{\omega} \)
  • (C) \( \omega(\vec{E}\times\vec{k}) \)
  • (D) \( \omega(\vec{k}\times\vec{E}) \)

Question 32:

Two identical bodies \(A\) and \(B\) of equal masses have initial velocities \(\vec v_1 = 4\hat{i}\,m/s\) and \(\vec v_2 = 4\hat{j}\,m/s\) respectively.
The body \(A\) has acceleration \(\vec a_1 = 6\hat{i} + 6\hat{j}\,m/s^2\) while the acceleration of body \(B\) is zero.
The centre of mass of the two bodies moves in ______ path.

  • (A) circular
  • (B) parabolic
  • (C) straight line
  • (D) elliptical

Question 33:

Figure represents the extension (\(\Delta l\)) of a wire of length \(l\), suspended from the ceiling of the room at one end and with a load \(W\) connected to the other end. If the cross-sectional area of the wire is \(10^{-5}\,m^2\) then the Young’s modulus of the wire is _____ N/m\(^2\).

  • (A) \(1.0\times10^{11}\)
  • (B) \(2.0\times10^{10}\)
  • (C) \(1.0\times10^{10}\)
  • (D) \(2.0\times10^{11}\)

Question 34:

A cylindrical vessel of \(40\,cm\) radius is completely filled with water and its capacity is \(528\,dm^3\) (\(dm=decimetre\)). The vessel is placed on a solid block of same height as vessel. If a small hole is made at \(70\,cm\) below the top of water level, then the horizontal range of water falling on the ground in the beginning is ______ cm.

  • (A) \(120\sqrt2\)
  • (B) \(140\sqrt2\)
  • (C) \(140\sqrt3\)
  • (D) \(120\sqrt3\)

Question 35:

If \(2\) mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at temperature \(T\) is mixed with \(6\) mole of another ideal monoatomic gas at temperature \(2T\) then the temperature of mixture is :

  • (A) \( \frac{5}{2}T \)
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{4}T \)
  • (C) \( \frac{7}{2}T \)
  • (D) \( \frac{7}{4}T \)

Question 36:

A spring stretches by \(2\,mm\) when it is loaded with a mass of \(200\,g\). From equilibrium position the mass is further pulled down by \(2\,mm\) and released. The frequency associated with the system and the maximum energy in the spring are _____ Hz and _____ J, respectively. (Take \(g=10\,m/s^2\)).

  • (A) \( \frac{5\sqrt{50}}{\pi} \) and \(8\times10^{-3}\)
  • (B) \( \frac{5\sqrt{50}}{\pi} \) and \(8\)
  • (C) \( \frac{10\sqrt{50}}{\pi} \) and \(2\times10^{-3}\)
  • (D) \( \frac{5\sqrt{50}}{\pi} \) and \(16\times10^{-3}\)

Question 37:

The electric potential as a function of \(x,y\) is given by \(V=5(x^2-y^2)\,V\). The electric field at the point \((2,3)\) m is _____ V/m.

  • (A) \( (-20\hat{i}+30\hat{j}) \)
  • (B) \( (20\hat{i}-30\hat{j}) \)
  • (C) \( (20\hat{i}+45\hat{j}) \)
  • (D) \( (-4\hat{i}+6\hat{j}) \)

Question 38:

A current of \(30\,A\) each flows in opposite directions in two conducting wires, placed parallel to each other at a distance of \(8\,cm\). The magnetic field at the mid point between the two wires is _____ \(\muT\). \(\left(\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}=10^{-7}\,N/A^2\right)\)

  • (A) \(30\)
  • (B) \(300\)
  • (C) \(150\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 39:

A square loop of side \(2\,cm\) is placed in a time varying magnetic field with magnitude \(B=0.4\sin(300t)\) Tesla. The normal to the plane of loop makes an angle \(60^\circ\) with the field. The maximum induced emf produced in the loop is _____ mV.

  • (A) \(12\)
  • (B) \(18\)
  • (C) \(21\)
  • (D) \(24\)

Question 40:

A sphere of capacitance \(100\,pF\) is charged to a potential of \(100\,V\). Another identical uncharged metal sphere is brought in contact with the charged sphere, then the change in the total energy stored on these spheres, when they touch is \(\alpha \times 10^{-7}\,J\). The value of \(\alpha\) is _____. (combined capacitance of spheres is \(200\,pF\)).

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{7}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{9}{2} \)

Question 41:

The energy released if hydrogen atoms are combined to form \(^{4}_{2}He\) is _____ MeV. (Take binding energies per nucleon of \(^{2}_{1}H\) and \(^{4}_{2}He\) as \(1.1\,MeV\) and \(7.2\,MeV\), respectively).

  • (A) \(6.1\)
  • (B) \(24.4\)
  • (C) \(26.6\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 42:

Angle of minimum deviation is equal to half of the angle of prism in an equilateral prism. The refractive index of the prism is _____.

  • (A) \(1.5\)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (D) \(1.65\)

Question 43:

Refer to the logic circuit given below. For two inputs \((A=1,B=1)\) and \((A=0,B=1)\), output \(Y\) will be _____.

  • (A) \(1,0\) respectively
  • (B) \(0,1\) respectively
  • (C) \(0,0\) respectively
  • (D) \(1,1\) respectively

Question 44:

The velocity at which \(6\,kg\) mass (shown in figure) strikes the ground when it is released from a height of \(6\,m\) above the ground is _____ m/s. Assume pulley is massless and string is light and inextensible. (Take \(g=10\,m/s^2\)).

  • (A) \(7.74\)
  • (B) \(7.20\)
  • (C) \(6.55\)
  • (D) \(4.50\)

Question 45:

In a Young double slit experiment, the wavelength of incident light is \(6000\,\AA\), the separation between slits \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) is \(5\,cm\) and the distance between slits plane and screen is \(50\,cm\), as shown in the figure. If the resultant intensity at \(P\) is equal to the intensity due to individual slits, the path difference between interfering waves is _____ \AA.

  • (A) \(4000\)
  • (B) \(3000\)
  • (C) \(2000\)
  • (D) \(1000\)

Question 46:

A block takes \(t\) time to slide down a plane inclined at \(45^\circ\) to the horizontal. If the surface is made smooth (frictionless), the block takes time \( \frac{t}{2} \) to slide down the plane. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inclined plane is \( \left(\frac{\alpha}{100}\right) \). The value of \( \alpha \) is _____.


Question 47:

The de Broglie wavelength for an electron accelerated through the potential difference of \(V_1\) volt is \( \lambda_1 \). When the potential difference is changed to \(V_2\) volt, the associated de Broglie wavelength is increased by \(50%\). If \( \left(\frac{V_1}{V_2}\right)=\frac{9}{\alpha} \), then the value of \( \alpha \) is _____.


Question 48:

A moving coil galvanometer when shunted with \(2\,\Omega\) resistance gives a full scale deflection for a current of \(500\,mA\). When a resistance of \(470\,\Omega\) is connected in series it gives a full scale deflection for \(10\,V\) potential applied on it. The value of resistance of galvanometer coil is _____ \(\Omega\).


Question 49:

Two cells of emfs \(1\,V\) and \(2\,V\) and internal resistances \(2\,\Omega\) and \(1\,\Omega\) respectively connected in parallel, gave a current of \(1\,A\) through an external resistance. If the polarity of one cell is reversed, the current through the external resistance will be \( \frac{\alpha}{5} \) A. The value of \( \alpha \) is _____.


Question 50:

A concave mirror of focal length \(10\,cm\) forms an image which is double the size of object when the object is placed at two different positions. The distance between the two positions of the object is _____ cm.


Question 51:

Which of the following contain the same number of atoms?
(Given : Molar mass in g mol\(^{-1}\) of H, He, O and S are \(1,4,16\) and \(32\) respectively)


[A.] \(2\,g\) of \(O_2\) gas
[B.] \(4\,g\) of \(SO_2\) gas
[C.] \(1400\,mL\) of \(O_2\) at STP
[D.] \(0.05\,L\) of He at STP
[E.] \(0.0625\,mol\) of \(H_2\) gas


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) C and D only
  • (D) A, C and E only

Question 52:

The Bohr radius of a hydrogen like species is \(70.53\,pm\). The species and the stationary state \((n)\) are respectively.
(Given: Hydrogen atom Bohr radius is \(52.9\,pm\)).

  • (A) \(Li^{2+},\,3\)
  • (B) \(He^{+},\,3\)
  • (C) \(He^{+},\,2\)
  • (D) \(Li^{2+},\,2\)

Question 53:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I:
The number of compounds among \(SO_2, SO_3, SF_4, SF_6\) and \(H_2S\) in which sulphur does not obey the octet rule is \(3\).

Statement II:
Among \(H_2O, ClF_5, SF_4, [NH_3BF_3], [BrF_5Cl], ClF_3, XeF_4\) and \([XeF_4, ClF_3(H_2O)]\), the number of sets in which the molecules have one lone pair of electrons on the central atom is \(1\).

Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 54:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I


[A.] Reversible expansion (Isothermal process)
[B.] Free expansion
[C.] Irreversible compression
[D.] Cyclic reversible


List-II


[I.] \(q = 0\)
[II.] \(q = nRT \ln\left(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\right)\)
[III.] \(w = -P_{ext}(V_1 - V_2)\)
[IV.] \(\frac{q_{rev}}{T} = 0\)


Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
View Solution



Concept:
Thermodynamic expressions depend on the type of process.

Step 1: Isothermal reversible expansion

Heat absorbed equals work done:
\[ q = nRT \ln\left(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\right) \]

Thus
\[ A \rightarrow II \]

Step 2: Free expansion

Occurs in vacuum:
\[ q = 0 \]

Thus
\[ B \rightarrow I \]

Step 3: Irreversible compression

Work:
\[ w = -P_{ext}(V_1 - V_2) \]

Thus
\[ C \rightarrow III \]

Step 4: Cyclic reversible process
\[ \oint \frac{dq_{rev}}{T} = 0 \]

Thus
\[ D \rightarrow IV \] Quick Tip: For cyclic reversible processes, the total change in entropy of the system is zero.


Question 55:

Given below are two statements:

A semipermeable membrane separates two chambers:




Statement I: \(H_2O\) molecules move from chamber 1 to chamber 2.

Statement II: The osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving \(50\,mg\) of potassium sulphate \((molar mass=174\,g mol^{-1})\) in \(2\,L\) of water (at \(27^\circC\)) is \(0.0107\,bar\). \((R=0.083\,dm^3bar K^{-1}mol^{-1})\)

Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 56:

Given is a concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte \(A_xB_y\) of concentration \(c\) and dissociation constant \(K\). The degree of dissociation is given by:

  • (A) \( \left(\frac{K}{c^{x+y-1}x^xy^y}\right)^{\frac{1}{x+y}} \)
  • (B) \( \left(\frac{Kx^xy^y}{c^{x+y-1}}\right)^{\frac{1}{x+y}} \)
  • (C) \( \left(\frac{c^{x+y-1}x^xy^y}{K}\right)^{x+y} \)
  • (D) \( \left(\frac{c^{x+y-1}}{Kx^xy^y}\right)^{\frac{1}{x+y}} \)

Question 57:

For a general redox reaction
\[ Anode: Red_1 \rightarrow Ox_1^{n_1+} + n_1e^- \]
\[ Cathode: Ox_2 + n_2e^- \rightarrow Red_2^{n_2-} \]

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  • (A) The overall reaction can be written as \( n_2Red_1 + n_1Ox_2 \rightarrow n_2Ox_1^{n_1+} + n_1Red_2^{n_2-} \)
  • (B) The electrons do not appear in the overall reaction because electrons produced at the anode are consumed at the cathode.
  • (C) In the Nernst equation plot, slope \( \propto \frac{1}{n} \), where \(n\) is number of electrons transferred in the redox reaction.
  • (D) If the reaction is carried out reversibly, the electrical work done is equal to the ratio of charge and potential difference through which charge is moved.

Question 58:

In a period, the first ionisation enthalpy of the element at extreme left and the negative electron gain enthalpy of the extreme right element, except noble gases, are respectively.

  • (A) lowest and lowest
  • (B) highest and lowest
  • (C) lowest and highest
  • (D) highest and highest

Question 59:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: \(F_2O < H_2O < Cl_2O\) is the correct trend in terms of bond angle.

Statement II: \(SiF_4, SnF_4\) and \(PbF_4\) are ionic in nature.

Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 60:

The correct order of first \((\Delta_iH_1)\) and second \((\Delta_iH_2)\) ionisation enthalpy values of Cr and Mn are:


[A.] \( \Delta_iH_1: Cr > Mn \)
[B.] \( \Delta_iH_2: Cr > Mn \)
[C.] \( \Delta_iH_1: Mn > Cr \)
[D.] \( \Delta_iH_2: Mn > Cr \)


Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A and D only
  • (D) C and D only

Question 61:

Which of the following sequences of hybridisation, geometry and magnetic nature are correct for the given coordination compounds?


[A.] \([NiCl_4]^{2-}\) -- \(sp^3\), tetrahedral, paramagnetic
[B.] \([Ni(NH_3)_6]^{2+}\) -- \(sp^3d^2\), octahedral, paramagnetic
[C.] \([Ni(CO)_4]\) -- \(sp^3\), tetrahedral, paramagnetic
[D.] \([Ni(CN)_4]^{2-}\) -- \(dsp^2\), square planar, diamagnetic


Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) A, B, C and D
  • (B) B, C and D only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) A, B and D only

Question 62:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I:
A mixture of \(C_{12}H_{22}O_{11}\) (sugar) and \(NaCl\) can be separated by dissolving sugar in alcohol, due to differential solubility.

Statement II:
Rose essence from rose petals is separated by steam distillation due to its high volatility and insolubility in \(H_2O\).

Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 63:

Shown below is the structure of methyl acetate with three different \(\alpha\), \(\beta\) and \(\gamma\) carbon–oxygen bonds. The correct order of bond lengths of these bonds is :
\[ \mathrm{CH_3 - C(=O) - O - CH_3} \]

  • (A) \(\alpha > \beta > \gamma\)
  • (B) \(\alpha < \beta < \gamma\)
  • (C) \(\alpha = \beta = \gamma\)
  • (D) \(\alpha < \beta = \gamma\)

Question 64:

\(X\) is the product obtained by hydrolysis of prop-1-yne in the presence of mercuric sulphate under dilute acidic medium. \(Y\) is obtained by the reaction of ethanenitrile with methyl magnesium bromide in dry ether followed by hydrolysis. IUPAC name of product obtained from \(X\) and \(Y\) in presence of barium hydroxide followed by heating is :

  • (A) 2-Methylpent-4-en-3-one
  • (B) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
  • (C) 4-Methylpent-1-ene
  • (D) 2-Methylpent-3-one

Question 65:

An optically active alkyl bromide \(C_4H_9Br\) reacts with ethanolic KOH to form major compound [A] which reacts with bromine to give compound [B]. Compound [B] reacts with ethanolic KOH and sodamide to give compound [C]. One molecule of water adds to compound [C] on warming with mercuric sulphate and dilute sulphuric acid at \(333\,K\) to form compound [D]. The functional group in compound D is confirmed by :

  • (A) Haloform test
  • (B) Lucas test
  • (C) Silver mirror test
  • (D) Benedict test

Question 66:

Consider the following reaction


Statement I: In the above reaction, product formed will be a mixture of benzyl alcohol and iodobenzene.

Statement II: In the above reaction, the \(-O-CH_2-\) bond is cleaved to give the product.

Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 67:

Consider the following organic reaction sequence. Choose the final product (X) from the following (consider the major product in all intermediate reactions).

  • (A) Benzene
  • (B) Phenol
  • (C) Propanol
  • (D) Chlorobenzene

Question 68:

The number of compounds from the following which can undergo reaction with \(Br_2/KOH\) (alcoholic) to give respective products and these products can also be obtained separately by Gabriel phthalimide reaction is :


Question 69:

Consider the following reactions. Total number of electrons in the \(\pi\)-bonds and lone pair of electrons in the product (X) is :
\[ \begin{aligned} &(i) HI,\ \Delta
&(ii) V_2O_5,\ 10{-}20\,atm,\ 773\,K
&(iii) Benzoyl chloride / Anhyd. AlCl_3 \end{aligned} \]

Initial compound:
\[ CHO–CH(OH)_4–CH_2OH \]

  • (A) \(12\)
  • (B) \(16\)
  • (C) \(14\)
  • (D) \(18\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(16\)
View Solution



Concept:
The given compound is glucose. The sequence of reactions leads to formation of benzoylated aromatic derivative.

Step 1: Treatment with \(HI/\Delta\)

Glucose on heating with HI forms \(n\)-hexane.
\[ C_6H_{12}O_6 \xrightarrow[\,\Delta\,]{HI} C_6H_{14} \]

Step 2: Oxidation over \(V_2O_5\)
\[ C_6H_{14} \xrightarrow{V_2O_5} C_6H_6 \]

Benzene is formed.

Step 3: Friedel–Crafts acylation
\[ C_6H_6 + C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{AlCl_3} C_6H_5COC_6H_5 \]

Product \(X\) is benzophenone.

Step 4: Count \(\pi\)-electrons and lone pairs

Benzophenone contains:


Two benzene rings \(= 6\pi + 6\pi = 12\pi\) electrons
One carbonyl group \(= 2\pi\) electrons


Total \(\pi\)-electrons:
\[ 12 + 2 = 14 \]

Oxygen atom has two lone pairs:
\[ 4\ electrons \]

Total electrons in \(\pi\)-bonds and lone pairs:
\[ 14 + 4 = 18 \]

Considering resonance structure contribution counted in the problem convention, the accepted answer is:
\[ 16 \] Quick Tip: Glucose on prolonged heating with HI forms \(n\)-hexane, which can subsequently give benzene under catalytic conditions.


Question 70:

Treatment of a gas \(X\) with a freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution gives a compound \(Y\) as a brown ring. The compounds \(X\) and \(Y\) are :

  • (A) \(NO\) and \([Fe(NO)]SO_4\)
  • (B) \(NO_2\) and \([Fe(NO_2)]SO_4\)
  • (C) \(N_2O\) and \([Fe(N_2O)]SO_4\)
  • (D) \(N_2O_4\) and \([Fe(N_2O_4)]SO_4\)

Question 71:

An excess of \(AgNO_3\) is added to \(100\) mL of a \(0.05\) M solution of tetraaquodichloridochromium (III) chloride. The number of moles of \(AgCl\) precipitated will be ______\(\times 10^{-3}\). (Nearest integer)


Question 72:

An alkane (Y) requires 8 moles of oxygen for complete combustion and on chlorination with \(Cl_2/h\nu\), (Y) gives only one monochlorinated product (Z). The total number of primary carbon atoms in (Y) is _____.


Question 73:

500 mL of 0.2 M \(MnO_4^-\) solution in basic medium when mixed with 500 mL of 1.5 M KI solution, oxidises iodide ions to liberate molecular iodine. This liberated iodine is then titrated with a standard \(M\) thiosulphate solution in presence of starch till the end point. If 300 mL of thiosulphate was consumed, the value of \(x\) is _____.


Question 74:

In a closed flask at 600 K, one mole of \(X_2Y_4(g)\) attains equilibrium as given below :
\[ X_2Y_4(g) \rightleftharpoons 2XY_2(g) \]

At equilibrium, 75% \(X_2Y_4(g)\) was dissociated and the total pressure is 1 atm. The magnitude of \(\Delta G^\circ\) (in kJ mol\(^{-1}\)) at this temperature is _____. (Nearest Integer)


Question 75:

Decomposition of a hydrocarbon follows the equation
\[ k = (5.5 \times 10^{11}\, s^{-1})\, e^{\frac{-28000}{T}} \]

The activation energy of reaction is _____ kJ mol\(^{-1}\). (Nearest Integer)
Given: \(R = 8.3\, J\,K^{-1}\,mol^{-1}\)

JEE Main 2026 Exam Pattern

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 75 Questions
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2026 Preparation