NEET 2024 Question Paper Q2(Available): Download Solution PDF With Answer Key

NEET 2024 Question paper with answer key pdf Q2 is available for download. NEET 2024 Q2 question paper has been conducted by the NTA on May 5, 2024, in pen-paper mode. NEET 2024 question paper code Q2 consists of 200 MCQs- 180 to be attempted in 200 minutes. Each of the 4 subjects (Zoology, Botany, Chemistry, Physics) in NEET Q2 question paper 2023 have 50 MCQs (45 to be attempted). You can download NEET 2024 question paper with answer key with solutions PDF for Q2 using the links given below.

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NEET 2024 Question Paper With Solution

SECTION –A

PHYSICS

Question 1:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges.

Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

View Solution:

Question 2:
If x = 5 sin(πt + π/3) represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are:

(1) 5 cm, 2 s
(2) 5 m, 2 s
(3) 5 cm, 1 s
(4) 5 m, 1 s

Correct Answer: (2) 5 m, 2 s
View Solution:

Question 3:
A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of ω rpm. The tension in the string is T. If the speed becomes 2ω while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:

(1) T
(2) 4T
(3) T/4
(4) √2 T

Correct Answer: (2) 4T
View Solution:

Question 4:
In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is N_P/N_S = 1/2. The ratio V_S : V_P is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning):

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

Correct Answer: (2) 2 : 1
View Solution:

Question 5:
A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the following truth table:

| A | B | Y |
|---|---|---|
| 0 | 0 | 1 |
| 0 | 1 | 0 |
| 1 | 0 | 1 |
| 1 | 1 | 0 |

The expression for the output Y is:

(1) A · B + ¬A
(2) A · ¬B + ¬A
(3) ¬B
(4) B

Correct Answer: (3) ¬B
View Solution:

Question 6:
The graph below shows the variation of 1/λ² and its kinetic energy E, where λ is the de Broglie wavelength of a free particle:

Choose the correct graph:

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution:

Question 7:
The output (Y) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a:

Logic Gate Diagram

(1) NAND gate
(2) NOR gate
(3) OR gate
(4) AND gate

Correct Answer: (4) AND gate
View Solution:

Question 8:
In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is 9.8 × 10⁻⁶ kg·m². If the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the needle is x × 10⁻⁵ Am², then the value of x is:

Magnetic Needle Diagram

(1) 5π²
(2) 128π²
(3) 50π²
(4) 1280π²

Correct Answer: (4) 1280π²
View Solution:

Question 9:
A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle abcda. The work done by the gas along the path bc is:

Thermodynamic Cycle Diagram

(1) Zero
(2) 30 J
(3) -90 J
(4) -60 J

Correct Answer: (1) Zero
View Solution:

Question 10:
In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:

Magnet and Solenoid Diagram

(1) AB and DC
(2) BA and CD
(3) AB and CD
(4) BA and DC

Correct Answer: (1) AB and DC
View Solution:

Question 11:
An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then:

(1) The reflected light will be partially polarised.
(2) The refracted light will be completely polarised.
(3) Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.
(4) The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.

Correct Answer: (4) The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
View Solution:

Question 12:
A wire of length ‘l’ and resistance 100 Ω is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

(1) 26 Ω
(2) 52 Ω
(3) 55 Ω
(4) 60 Ω

Correct Answer: (2) 52 Ω
View Solution:

Question 13:
A horizontal force of 10 N is applied to a block A as shown in the figure. The masses of blocks A and B are 2 kg and 3 kg, respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block B is:

Force and Blocks Diagram

(1) Zero
(2) 4 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 10 N

Correct Answer: (3) 6 N
View Solution:

Question 14:
Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one-dimensional collision. The body A moves with velocity v1 while body B is at rest before the collision. The velocity of the system after the collision is v2. The ratio v1 : v2 is:

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

Correct Answer: (2) 2 : 1
View Solution:

Question 15:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The potential (V) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector P of magnitude 4 × 10⁻⁶ C m, is ±9 × 10³ V. (Take 1 / (4πϵ₀) = 9 × 10⁹ SI units) Reason R: V = ± 2 / (4πϵ₀) * P / r² where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer: (3) A is true but R is false.
View Solution:

Question 16:
Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for transitions from) (Wavelengths (nm))
A. n₂ = 3 to n₁ = 2 I. 410.2
B. n₂ = 4 to n₁ = 2 II. 434.1
C. n₂ = 5 to n₁ = 2 III. 656.3
D. n₂ = 6 to n₁ = 2 IV. 486.1

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution:

Question 17:
In a vernier callipers, (N + 1) divisions of the vernier scale coincide with N divisions of the main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:

(1) \( \frac{1}{10N} \)
(2) \( \frac{1}{100(N + 1)} \)
(3) \( \frac{100}{N} \)
(4) \( 10(N + 1) \)

Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{1}{100(N + 1)} \)
View Solution:

Question 18:
A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points C and P (in V) shown in the figure is:

Spherical Shell Diagram

(1) \( 3 \times 10^5 \)
(2) \( 1 \times 10^5 \)
(3) \( 0.5 \times 10^5 \)
(4) Zero

Correct Answer: (4) Zero
View Solution:

Question 19:
whose emf is 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, when connected through an external resistance of 4 Ω as shown in the figure, is:

Q19

(1) 4 V
(2) 6 V
(3) 8 V
(4) 10 V

Correct Answer: (3) 8 V
View Solution:

Question 20:
If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are:

A. The energy of a photon is E = hν.
B. The velocity of a photon is c.
C. The momentum of a photon is p = h / (νc).
D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.
E. Photon possesses positive charge.

(1) A and B only
(2) A, B, C and D only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A, B, D and E only

Correct Answer: (2) A, B, C and D only
View Solution:

Question 21:
A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:

(1) Constant velocity
(2) Constant acceleration
(3) Constant velocity but varying acceleration
(4) Varying velocity and varying acceleration

Correct Answer: (4) Varying velocity and varying acceleration
View Solution:

Question 22:
In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is:

Capacitor Circuit Diagram

(1) 2 μF
(2) 1 μF
(3) 0.5 μF
(4) 4 μF

Correct Answer: (1) 2 μF

View Solution

Question 23:
A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 N m^-1, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:

(1) 19.8 mN
(2) 198 N
(3) 1.98 mN
(4) 99 N

Correct Answer: (1) 19.8 mN

View Solution

Question 24:
The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young’s modulus, respectively, are 8 × 10⁸ N/m² and 2 × 10¹¹ N/m², is:

(1) 4 mm
(2) 0.4 mm
(3) 40 mm
(4) 8 mm

Correct Answer: (1) 4 mm
View Solution

Question 25:

(1) 280, 81
(2) 286, 80
(3) 288, 82
(4) 286, 81

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 26:
At any instant of time t, the displacement of any particle is given by x = 2t - 1 (in SI units) under the influence of a force of 5 N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI units):

(1) 10
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 6

Correct Answer: (1) 10
View Solution

Question 27:
The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

(1) strain and angle
(2) stress and angle
(3) strain and arc
(4) angular speed and stress

Correct Answer: (1) strain and angle
View Solution

Question 28:
The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the rod is 2400 g cm². The length of the 400 g rod is nearly:

(1) 8.5 cm
(2) 17.5 cm
(3) 20.7 cm
(4) 72.0 cm

Correct Answer: (1) 8.5 cm
View Solution

Question 29:
Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer:

A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lie in the IV quadrant of the given graph.
B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (μA) is due to majority charge carriers.

I-V Characteristics Graph

(1) A is correct but B is incorrect
(2) A is incorrect but B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

Correct Answer: (1) A is correct but B is incorrect
View Solution

Question 30:
A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is v in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?

Rolling Wheel Diagram

(1) Point P moves slower than point Q
(2) Point P moves faster than point Q
(3) Both the points P and Q move with equal speed
(4) Point P has zero speed

Correct Answer: (2) Point P moves faster than point Q
View Solution

Question 31:
A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as \( 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{S.I units} \)):

(1) 44 mT
(2) 4.4 T
(3) 4.4 mT
(4) 44 T

Correct Answer: (3) 4.4 mT
View Solution

Question 32:
If the monochromatic source in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:

(1) Interference pattern will disappear
(2) There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
(3) There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
(4) All bright fringes will be of equal width

Correct Answer: (3) There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
View Solution

Question 33:
Match List-I with List-II.

Material	Susceptibility (χ)
Diamagnetic	χ = 0
Ferromagnetic	0 ≥ χ ≥ -1
Paramagnetic	χ >> 1
Non-magnetic	0 < χ < ε (a small positive number)

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Correct Answer: (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
View Solution

Question 34:
A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at point P with the angle of incidence 30° as shown in figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive index of the prism is:

(1) √5 / 4
(2) √5 / 2
(3) √3 / 4
(4) √3 / 2

Correct Answer: (2) √5 / 2
View Solution

Question 35:
The mass of a planet is 1/10th that of the Earth and its diameter is half that of the Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

(1) 19.6 m/s²
(2) 9.8 m/s²
(3) 4.9 m/s²
(4) 3.92 m/s²

Correct Answer: (4) 3.92 m/s²
View Solution

Question 36:
The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of the Earth of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R from the surface of the Earth is:

(1) 5/6 * (GmM/R)
(2) 2/3 * (GmM/R)
(3) GmM/(2R)
(4) GmM/(3R)

Correct Answer: (1) 5/6 * (GmM/R)
View Solution

Question 37:
A metallic bar of Young’s modulus 0.5 * 10^11 N/m² and coefficient of linear thermal expansion 10^-5 °C⁻¹, length 1 m and area of cross-section 10^-3 m², is heated from 0°C to 100°C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

(1) 5 * 10^3 N
(2) 50 * 10^3 N
(3) 100 * 10^3 N
(4) 2 * 10^3 N

Correct Answer: (2) 50 * 10^3 N
View Solution

Question 38:
A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope for viewing a distant object is:

(1) 34
(2) 28
(3) 17
(4) 32

Correct Answer: (2) 28
View Solution

Question 39:
A 10 µF capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in the figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (π = 3.14):

(1) 0.58 A
(2) 0.93 A
(3) 1.20 A
(4) 0.35 A

Correct Answer: (2) 0.93 A
View Solution

Question 40:
If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is x/2 times its original time period. Then the value of x is:

(1) √3
(2) √2
(3) 2√3
(4) 4

Correct Answer: (2) √2
View Solution

Question 41:
The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that:

(1) They are transverse in nature
(2) The energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field
(3) They travel with a speed equal to 1 / sqrt(μ₀ ε₀)
(4) They originate from charges moving with uniform speed

Correct Answer: (4) They originate from charges moving with uniform speed
View Solution

Question 42:
The following graph represents the T-V curves of an ideal gas (where T is the temperature and V the volume) at three pressures P₁, P₂, and P₃ compared with those of Charles’s law represented as dotted lines. Then the correct relation is:

Graph

(1) P₃ > P₂ > P₁
(2) P₁ > P₃ > P₂
(3) P₂ > P₁ > P₃
(4) P₁ > P₂ > P₃

Correct Answer: (4) P₁ > P₂ > P₃
View Solution

Question 43:
A force defined by F = α t² + β t acts on a particle at a given time t. The factor which is dimensionless, if α and β are constants, is:

(1) β t / α
(2) α t / β
(3) α β t
(4) α β / t

Correct Answer: (2) α t / β
View Solution

Question 45:
Two heaters A and B have power ratings of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. These two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 9
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

Correct Answer: (2) 2 : 9
View Solution

Question 46:
Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.

Circuit Diagram

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 47:
A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to:

A. Hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.
B. Hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.
C. Move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.
D. Move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar.

Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

(1) B and D only
(2) A and C only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) C only

Correct Answer: (2) A and C only
View Solution

Question 48:

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then:

A. The charge stored in it increases.
B. The energy stored in it decreases.
C. Its capacitance increases.
D. The ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. The product of charge and voltage increases.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and E only
(2) A, C and E only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

Correct Answer: (2) A, C and E only
View Solution

Question 49:
An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle of 60° with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:

(1) M
(2) M/2
(3) 2M
(4) M/√3

Correct Answer: (2) M/2
View Solution

Question 50:
A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If I is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

(1) There is no current
(2) Displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in the same direction as I
(3) Displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in a direction opposite to that of I
(4) Displacement current of magnitude greater than I flows but can be in any direction

Correct Answer: (2) Displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in the same direction as I
View Solution

Question 51:
On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as:

(1) Crystallization
(2) Sublimation
(3) Distillation
(4) Chromatography

Correct Answer: (2) Sublimation
View Solution

Question 52:
Match List I with List II:

List I	List II
A. Isothermal process	I. No heat exchange
B. Isochoric process	II. Carried out at constant temperature
C. Isobaric process	III. Carried out at constant volume
D. Adiabatic process	IV. Carried out at constant pressure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Correct Answer: (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
View Solution

Question 53:
In which of the following equilibria, Kp and Kc are NOT equal?

(1) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(2) H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2 HI (g)
(3) CO (g) + H2 (g) ⇌ CO2 (g) + H2O (g)
(4) Br2 (g) ⇌ 2 Br (g)

Correct Answer: (1) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
View Solution

Question 54:
The compound that will undergo SN1 reaction with the fastest rate is:

(1) Compound A
(2) Compound B
(3) Compound C
(4) Compound D

Correct Answer: (4) Compound D
View Solution

Question 55:
A compound with a molecular formula of C₆H₁₄ has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

(1) n-hexane
(2) 2-methylpentane
(3) 2,3-dimethylbutane
(4) 2,2-dimethylbutane

Correct Answer: (3) 2,3-dimethylbutane
View Solution

Question 56:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order H₂O > H₂Te > H₂Se > H₂S.

Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, H₂O is expected to have a lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive hydrogen bonding in H₂O, it has a higher boiling point.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution

Question 57:
For the reaction 2A ⇌ B + C, Kc = 4 × 10⁻³. At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is: [A] = [B] = [C] = 2 × 10⁻³ M. Then, which of the following is correct?

(1) Reaction is at equilibrium.
(2) Reaction has a tendency to go in the forward direction.
(3) Reaction has a tendency to go in the backward direction.
(4) Reaction has gone to completion in the forward direction.

Correct Answer: (3) Reaction has a tendency to go in the backward direction.
View Solution

Question 58:
Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of:

(1) rate constant at standard temperature
(2) probability of collision
(3) orientation of reactant molecules during collision
(4) rate constant at two different temperatures

Correct Answer: (4) rate constant at two different temperatures
View Solution

Question 59:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Both [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ and [CoF₆]³⁻ complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour.

Statement II: [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF₆]³⁻ is paramagnetic.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution

Question 60:
The highest number of helium atoms is in:

(1) 4 mol of helium
(2) 4 u of helium
(3) 4 g of helium
(4) 2.271098 L of helium at STP

Correct Answer: (1) 4 mol of helium
View Solution

Question 61:

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Li < Be < B < C < N
(2) Li < B < Be < C < N
(3) Li < Be < C < B < N
(4) Li < Be < N < B < C

Correct Answer: (2) Li < B < Be < C < N
View Solution

Question 62:
Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?

B. Structure B

C. Structure C

D. Structure D

Correct Answer: D
View Solution

Question 63.
‘Spin only’ magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions?

A. Ti³⁺

B. Cr²⁺

C. Mn²⁺

D. Fe²⁺

E. Sc³⁺

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) B and D only
(2) A and E only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and D only

Correct Answer: (1) B and D only
View Solution

Question 64.
The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are:

A. Tollen’s reagent

B. Schiff’s reagent

C. HCN

D. NH₂OH

E. NaHSO₃

Choose the correct options from the given below:

(1) B and C
(2) A and D
(3) B and E
(4) E and D

Correct Answer: (3) B and E
View Solution

Question 65.
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.

Statement II: Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: (1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution

Question 66.
The energy of an electron in the ground state (n = 1) for He⁺ ion is -x J, then that for an electron in n = 2 state for Be³⁺ ion in J is:

(1) -x
(2) -x/9
(3) -4x
(4) 4x/9

Correct Answer: (1) -x
View Solution

Question 67:
Which plot of ln k vs 1/T is consistent with the Arrhenius equation?

Q67

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) B and D only
(2) A and E only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and D only

Correct Answer: (4) A and D only
View Solution

Question 68:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order

n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane

Statement II: When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
View Solution

Question 69:
The E^o value for the Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ couple is more positive than that of Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺ or Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ due to the change of:

(1) d⁵ to d⁴ configuration
(2) d⁵ to d² configuration
(3) d⁴ to d⁵ configuration
(4) d³ to d² configuration

Answer: (3) d⁴ to d⁵ configuration
View Solution

Question 70:
In which of the following processes does entropy increase?

A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.

B. The temperature of a crystalline solid is lowered from 130 K to 0 K.

C. 2NaHCO₃(s) → Na₂CO₃(s) + CO₂(g) + H₂O(g)

D. Cl₂(g) → 2Cl(g)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) C and D

Correct Answer: (3) A, C, and D
View Solution

Question 71:
Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in:

1. Structure 1

2. Structure 2

3. Structure 3

(4) HF

Correct Answer: (1) A
View Solution

Question 72:
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity:

N, O, F, C, Si

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Si < C < N < O < F
(2) Si < C < O < N < F
(3) O < F < N < C < Si
(4) F < O < N < C < Si

Correct Answer: (1) Si < C < N < O < F
View Solution

Question 73.
Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

(1) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
(2) 2KClO₃ + I₂ → 2KIO₃ + Cl₂
(3) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
(4) BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl

Correct Answer: (4) BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
View Solution

Question 74.
Match List I with List II:

List I	List II
A. 1 mol of H₂O to O₂	I. 3F
B. 1 mol of 4MnO₄⁻ to Mn²⁺	II. 2F
C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaCl₂	III. 1F
D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe₂O₃	IV. 5F

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Correct Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
View Solution

Question 75:
The most stable carbocation among the following is:

Carbocation Image

Correct Answer: D
View Solution

Question 76:
Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
View Solution

Question 77:
Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show –2 oxidation state?

(1) O
(2) Se
(3) Te
(4) Po

Correct Answer: (4) Po
View Solution

Question 78.
The Henry’s law constant (K_H) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, 2 × 10^-5 and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:

(1) B > A > C
(2) B > C > A
(3) A > C > B
(4) A > B > C

Correct Answer: (2) B > C > A
View Solution

Question 79.
Fehling’s solution ‘A’ is:

(1) aqueous copper sulphate
(2) alkaline copper sulphate
(3) alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)
(4) aqueous sodium citrate

Correct Answer: (1) aqueous copper sulphate
View Solution

Question 80:
Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Correct Answer: (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
View Solution

Question 81.
Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Reagents 1 and 2
(2) Reagents 2 and 3
(3) Reagents 1 and 3
(4) Reagents 2 and 4

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 82:
Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Correct Answer: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Question 83:
Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Correct Answer: (1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
View Solution

Question 84:
1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution. The mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to:

(1) 750 mg
(2) 250 mg
(3) Zero mg
(4) 200 mg

Correct Answer: (2) 250 mg
View Solution

Question 85:
Match List I with List II:

List I (Complex)	List II (Type of isomerism)
A. [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2	I. Solvate isomerism
B. [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br	II. Linkage isomerism
C. [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6]	III. Ionization isomerism
D. [Co(H2O)6]Cl3	IV. Coordination isomerism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Correct Answer: (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
View Solution

Question 86:
During the preparation of Mohr’s salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe²⁺ ion?

(1) dilute hydrochloric acid
(2) concentrated sulphuric acid
(3) dilute nitric acid
(4) dilute sulphuric acid

Correct Answer: (4) dilute sulphuric acid
View Solution

Question 87:
Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI.

(1) B, A, D, C, E
(2) B, C, A, D, E
(3) E, C, D, B, A
(4) E, A, B, C, D

Correct Answer: (1) B, A, D, C, E
View Solution

Question 88:
Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are:

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 89:

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is

(1) Ce⁴⁺ and Yb²⁺
(2) Ce³⁺ and Eu²⁺
(3) Gd³⁺ and Eu³⁺
(4) Pm³⁺ and Sm³⁺

Correct Answer: (1) Ce⁴⁺ and Yb²⁺
View Solution

Question 90:
Identify the correct answer:

(1) Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone
(2) BF₃ has non-zero dipole moment
(3) Dipole moment of NF₃ is greater than that of NH₃
(4) Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO₃²⁻ ion

Correct Answer: (4) Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO₃²⁻ ion
View Solution

Question 91:

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B, and the remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is:

(1) A₂BC₂
(2) ABC₃
(3) AB₂C₂
(4) ABC₄

Correct Answer: (2) ABC₃
View Solution

Question 92:

The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is

(1) 0 calorie
(2) -413.14 calories
(3) 413.14 calories
(4) 100 calories

Correct Answer: (2) -413.14 calories
View Solution

Question 93:

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is

(1) 3.15 g
(2) 0.315 g
(3) 31.5 g
(4) 0.0315 g

Correct Answer: (2) 0.315 g
View Solution

Question 94:
Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of N₂ = 3.0 × 10⁻³ M, O₂ = 4.2 × 10⁻³ M and NO = 2.8 × 10⁻³ M.

2 NO(g) ↔ N₂(g) + O₂(g)

If 0.1 mol L⁻¹ of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be the degree of dissociation (α) of NO(g) at equilibrium?

(1) 0.00889
(2) 0.0889
(3) 0.8889
(4) 0.717

Correct Answer: (4) 0.717
View Solution

Question 95:
For the given reaction:

Identify the product 'P' formed in the reaction.

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 96:

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation.

(1) 38.04 kJ/mol
(2) 380.4 kJ/mol
(3) 3.80 kJ/mol
(4) 3804 kJ/mol

Correct Answer: (1) 38.04 kJ/mol
View Solution

Question 97:

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:

(1) Propylamine
(2) Butylamine
(3) Butanamide
(4) α-bromobutanoic acid

Correct Answer: (1) Propylamine
View Solution

Question 98:
The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are:

3ROH + PCl₃ → 3RCl + A

ROH + PCl₅ → RCl + HCl + B

(1) POCl₃ and H₃PO₃
(2) POCl₃ and H₃PO₄
(3) H₃PO₄ and POCl₃
(4) H₃PO₃ and POCl₃

Correct Answer: (4) H₃PO₃ and POCl₃
View Solution

Question 99:
The plot of osmotic pressure (Π) vs concentration (mol L⁻¹) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol⁻¹. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is

(1) 37°C
(2) 310°C
(3) 25.73°C
(4) 12.05°C

Correct Answer: (1) 37°C
View Solution

Question 100:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is a homoleptic complex, whereas [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ is a heteroleptic complex.

Statement II: Complex [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ has only one kind of ligand, but [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ has more than one kind of ligand.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
View Solution

Question 101:

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

(1) Metaphase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Prophase

Correct Answer: (1) Metaphase

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NEET 2024 Question Paper With Solution

If 0.1 mol L⁻¹ of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be the degree of dissociation (α) of NO(g) at equilibrium?

Identify the product 'P' formed in the reaction.

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NEET Questions

1.For given reaction: ‘P’ is

2.Given below are two statements: Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable. Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

3.Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released when 5 litres of an ideal gas at 10 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until volume is 15 litres :

4.For the reaction 2A⇋ B + C, KC = 4 × 10–3 . At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: [A] = [B] = [C] = 2 × 10–3 M. Then, which of the following is correct?

5.Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its

6.Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and 700 K are \(0.04 \, \text{s}^{-1}\) and \(0.14 \, \text{s}^{-1}\), respectively. Then, the activation energy of the reaction is: {Given:} \[ \log 3.5 = 0.5441, \, R = 8.31 \, \text{J K}^{-1} \, \text{mol}^{-1} \]

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1.
For given reaction:

‘P’ is

2.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.
Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

3.
Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released when 5 litres of an ideal gas at 10 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until volume is 15 litres :

4.
For the reaction 2A⇋ B + C, KC = 4 × 10^–3 . At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: [A] = [B] = [C] = 2 × 10–3 M. Then, which of the following is correct?

5.
Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its

6.
Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and 700 K are \(0.04 \, \text{s}^{-1}\) and \(0.14 \, \text{s}^{-1}\), respectively. Then, the activation energy of the reaction is:
{Given:} \[ \log 3.5 = 0.5441, \, R = 8.31 \, \text{J K}^{-1} \, \text{mol}^{-1} \]