NEET 2024 Question paper with answer key pdf R2 is available for download. NEET 2024 R2 question paper has been conducted by the NTA on May 5, 2024, in pen-paper mode. NEET 2024 question paper code R2 consists of 200 MCQs- 180 to be attempted in 200 minutes. Each of the 4 subjects (Zoology, Botany, Chemistry, Physics) in NEET R2 question paper 2023 have 50 MCQs (45 to be attempted). You can download NEET 2024 question paper with answer key with solutions PDF for R2 using the links given below.

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Question 1:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The potential (\(V\)) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (\(r\)) from the center of the dipole of dipole moment vector \(\vec{P}\) of magnitude, \(4 \times 10^{-6} \, \mathrm{C \, m}\), is \(\pm 9 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{V}\).
(Take \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \mathrm{SI \, units}\))


Reason R: \(V = \pm \frac{2P}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 r^2}\), where \(r\) is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the center of the dipole.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) A is true but R is false.
  • (3) A is false but R is true.
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2:

The mass of a planet is \(\frac{1}{10}\) that of the earth, and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

  • (1) \(9.8 \, \mathrm{m \, s^{-2}}\)
  • (2) \(4.9 \, \mathrm{m \, s^{-2}}\)
  • (3) \(3.92 \, \mathrm{m \, s^{-2}}\)
  • (4) \(19.6 \, \mathrm{m \, s^{-2}}\)

Question 3:

At any instant of time \(t\), the displacement of any particle is given by \(2t - 1 \, (\mathrm{SI \, unit})\) under the influence of a force of \(5 \, \mathrm{N}\). The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):

  • (1) \(5\)
  • (2) \(7\)
  • (3) \(6\)
  • (4) \(10\)

Question 4:

A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:

  • (1) Constant acceleration
  • (2) Constant velocity but varying acceleration
  • (3) Varying velocity and varying acceleration
  • (4) Constant velocity

Question 5:

Match List-I with List-II.



  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 6:

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is \(\frac{N_P}{N_S} = \frac{1}{2}\). The ratio \(V_S : V_P\) is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning):

  • (1) \(2 : 1\)
  • (2) \(1 : 1\)
  • (3) \(1 : 4\)
  • (4) \(1 : 2\)

Question 7:

A tightly wound \(100\)-turns coil of radius \(10 \, \mathrm{cm}\) carries a current of \(7 \, \mathrm{A}\). The magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as \(4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, \mathrm{SI \, units}\)):

  • (1) \(4.4 \, \mathrm{T}\)
  • (2) \(4.4 \, \mathrm{mT}\)
  • (3) \(44 \, \mathrm{T}\)
  • (4) \(44 \, \mathrm{mT}\)

Question 8:

In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is:



  • (1) \(1 \, \mu F\)
  • (2) \(0.5 \, \mu F\)
  • (3) \(4 \, \mu F\)
  • (4) \(2 \, \mu F\)

Question 9:

In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:
 

  • (1) BA and CD
  • (2) AB and CD
  • (3) BA and DC
  • (4) AB and DC

Question 10:

The maximum elongation of a steel wire of \(1 \, \mathrm{m}\) length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's modulus, respectively, are \(8 \times 10^8 \, \mathrm{N/m^2}\) and \(2 \times 10^{11} \, \mathrm{N/m^2}\), is:

  • (1) \(0.4 \, \mathrm{mm}\)
  • (2) \(40 \, \mathrm{mm}\)
  • (3) \(8 \, \mathrm{mm}\)
  • (4) \(4 \, \mathrm{mm}\)

Question 11:

In the nuclear emission stated below, the mass number and atomic number of the product \( Q \) respectively, are:
\[ \prescript{290}{82}X \xrightarrow{\alpha} Y \xrightarrow{e^+} Z \xrightarrow{\beta^-} P \xrightarrow{e^-} Q \]

  • (1) \( 286, 80 \)
  • (2) \( 288, 82 \)
  • (3) \( 286, 81 \)
  • (4) \( 280, 81 \)

Question 12:

A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is \(v\) in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?


  • (1) Point P moves faster than point Q
  • (2) Both the points P and Q move with equal speed
  • (3) Point P has zero speed
  • (4) Point P moves slower than point Q

Question 13:

An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then:

  • (1) The refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • (2) Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • (3) The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
  • (4) The reflected light will be partially polarised.

Question 14:

In a vernier callipers, \((N + 1)\) divisions of vernier scale coincide with \(N\) divisions of the main scale. If 1 MSD represents \(0.1 \, \mathrm{mm}\), the vernier constant (in cm) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{100(N+1)}\)
  • (2) \(100N\)
  • (3) \(10(N + 1)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{10N}\)

Question 15:

A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of \(\omega \, \mathrm{rpm}\). The tension in the string is \(T\). If speed becomes \(2\omega\) while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:

  • (1) \(4T\)
  • (2) \(\frac{T}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}T\)
  • (4) \(\frac{T}{4}\)

Question 16:

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle \(abcda\). The work done by the gas along the path \(bc\) is:

  • (1) \(30 \, \mathrm{J}\)
  • (2) \(-90 \, \mathrm{J}\)
  • (3) \(-60 \, \mathrm{J}\)
  • (4) \(0\)

Question 17:

The output (\(Y\)) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an:


  • (1) NOR gate
  • (2) OR gate
  • (3) AND gate
  • (4) NAND gate

Question 18:

Two bodies \(A\) and \(B\) of the same mass undergo a completely inelastic one-dimensional collision. Body \(A\) moves with velocity \(v_1\) while body \(B\) is at rest before the collision. The velocity of the system after the collision is \(v_2\). The ratio \(v_1 : v_2\) is:

  • (1) \(2 : 1\)
  • (2) \(4 : 1\)
  • (3) \(1 : 4\)
  • (4) \(1 : 2\)

Question 19:

The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to the rod is \(2400 \, \mathrm{g \, cm^2}\). The length of the \(400 \, \mathrm{g}\) rod is nearly:

  • (1) \(17.5 \, \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (2) \(20.7 \, \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (3) \(72.0 \, \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (4) \(8.5 \, \mathrm{cm}\)

Question 20:

A thin flat circular disc of radius \(4.5 \, \mathrm{cm}\) is placed gently over the surface of water. If the surface tension of water is \(0.07 \, \mathrm{N/m}\), then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:

  • (1) \(198 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (2) \(1.98 \, \mathrm{mN}\)
  • (3) \(99 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (4) \(19.8 \, \mathrm{mN}\)

Question 21:

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer:



A. For a solar-cell, the \(I-V\) characteristics lie in the IV quadrant of the given graph.
B. In a reverse biased \(pn\)-junction diode, the current measured (in \(\mu A\)) is due to majority charge carriers.

  • (1) A is incorrect but B is correct
  • (2) Both A and B are correct
  • (3) Both A and B are incorrect
  • (4) A is correct but B is incorrect

Question 22:

A horizontal force of \(10 \, \mathrm{N}\) is applied to a block \(A\) as shown in the figure. The masses of blocks \(A\) and \(B\) are \(2 \, \mathrm{kg}\) and \(3 \, \mathrm{kg}\), respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block \(A\) on block \(B\) is:


  • (1) \(4 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (2) \(6 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (3) \(10 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (4) \(0 \, \mathrm{N}\)

Question 23:

If \(x = 5 \sin\left(\pi t+\frac{\pi }{3}\right) \, \mathrm{m}\) represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of the motion, respectively, are:

  • (1) \(5 \, \mathrm{m}, \, 2 \, \mathrm{s}\)
  • (2) \(5 \, \mathrm{cm}, \, 1 \, \mathrm{s}\)
  • (3) \(5 \, \mathrm{m}, \, 1 \, \mathrm{s}\)
  • (4) \(5 \, \mathrm{cm}, \, 2 \, \mathrm{s}\)

Question 24:

A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at point \(P\) with the angle of incidence \(30^\circ\) as shown in the figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base \(BC\) and emerges along the face \(AC\). The refractive index of the prism is:


  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{4}\)

Question 25:

A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points \(C\) and \(P\) (in \(V\)) shown in the figure is: (Take \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \mathrm{SI \, units}\)):


  • (1) \(1 \times 10^5\)
  • (2) \(0.5 \times 10^5\)
  • (3) \(0\)
  • (4) \(3 \times 10^5\)

Question 26:

If \( c \) is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photons among the following are:

A. The energy of a photon is \( E = h\nu \).

B. The velocity of a photon is \( c \).

C. The momentum of a photon, \( p = \frac{h\nu}{c} \).

D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.

E. Photon possesses a positive charge.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C and D only
  • (2) A, C and D only
  • (3) A, B, D and E only
  • (4) A and B only

Question 27:

Match List-I with List-II:



  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 28:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal numbers of positive and negative charges.

Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 29:

The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is \(10 \, \mathrm{V}\) and internal resistance \(1 \, \Omega\), when connected through an external resistance of \(4 \, \Omega\) as shown in the figure, is:


  • (1) \(6 \, \mathrm{V}\)
  • (2) \(8 \, \mathrm{V}\)
  • (3) \(10 \, \mathrm{V}\)
  • (4) \(4 \, \mathrm{V}\)

Question 30:

If the monochromatic source in Young's double-slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:

  • (1) There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
  • (2) There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
  • (3) All bright fringes will be of equal width
  • (4) Interference pattern will disappear

Question 31:

A logic circuit provides the output \(Y\) as per the following truth table:





The expression for the output \(Y\) is:

  • (1) \(A \cdot \overline{B} + A\)
  • (2) \(\overline{B}\)
  • (3) \(B\)
  • (4) \(A{B} + \overline{A}\)

Question 32:

A wire of length \(l\) and resistance \(100 \, \Omega\) is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series, while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

  • (1) \(52 \, \Omega\)
  • (2) \(55 \, \Omega\)
  • (3) \(60 \, \Omega\)
  • (4) \(26 \, \Omega\)

Question 33:

The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

  • (1) Stress and angle
  • (2) Strain and arc
  • (3) Angular speed and stress
  • (4) Strain and angle

Question 34:

The graph which shows the variation of \((1/\lambda^2)\) and its kinetic energy, \(E\), is (where \(\lambda\) is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):



Question 35:

In a uniform magnetic field of \(0.049 \, \mathrm{T}\), a magnetic needle performs \(20\) complete oscillations in \(5 \, \mathrm{s}\). The moment of inertia of the needle is \(9.8 \times 10^{-6} \, \mathrm{kg \, m^2}\). If the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the needle is \(x \times 10^{-5} \, \mathrm{Am^2}\), then the value of \(x\) is:


  • (1) \(128\pi^2\)
  • (2) \(50\pi^2\)
  • (3) \(1280\pi^2\)
  • (4) \(5\pi^2\)

Question 36:

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then:

A. The charge stored in it increases.

B. The energy stored in it decreases.

C. Its capacitance increases.

D. The ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.

E. The product of charge and voltage increases.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, C and E only
  • (2) B, D and E only
  • (3) A, B and C only
  • (4) A, B and E only

Question 37:

A metallic bar of Young’s modulus, \(0.5 \times 10^{11} \, \mathrm{N/m^2}\) and coefficient of linear thermal expansion \(10^{-5} \, ^\circ\mathrm{C}^{-1}\), length \(1 \, \mathrm{m}\), and area of cross-section \(10^{-3} \, \mathrm{m^2}\) is heated from \(0^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(100^\circ\mathrm{C}\) without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

  • (1) \(50 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (2) \(100 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (3) \(2 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (4) \(5 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{N}\)

Question 38:

If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is \(\frac{x}{2}\) times its original time period. The value of \(x\) is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{3}\)

Question 39:

A small telescope has an objective of focal length \(140 \, \mathrm{cm}\) and an eyepiece of focal length \(5.0 \, \mathrm{cm}\). The magnifying power of the telescope for viewing a distant object is:

  • (1) \(28\)
  • (2) \(17\)
  • (3) \(32\)
  • (4) \(34\)

Question 40:

Two heaters \(A\) and \(B\) have power ratings of \(1 \, \mathrm{kW}\) and \(2 \, \mathrm{kW}\), respectively. The two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

  • (1) \(2 : 9\)
  • (2) \(1 : 2\)
  • (3) \(2 : 3\)
  • (4) \(1 : 1\)

Question 41:

A force defined by \(F = \alpha t^2 + \beta t\) acts on a particle at a given time \(t\). The factor which is dimensionless, if \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are constants, is:

  • (1) \(\frac{\alpha t}{\beta}\)
  • (2) \(\alpha \beta t\)
  • (3) \(\alpha \beta\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\beta t}{\alpha}\)

Question 42:

A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to:

A. Hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.

B. Hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.

C. Move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.

D. Move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar.

Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) A, C and D only
  • (3) C only
  • (4) B and D only

Question 43:

Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.


Question 44:

The velocity (\(v\)) – time (\(t\)) plot of the motion of a body is shown below:




The acceleration (\(a\)) – time (\(t\)) graph that best suits this motion is:


Question 45:

A \(10 \, \mu\mathrm{F}\) capacitor is connected to a \(210 \, \mathrm{V}\), \(50 \, \mathrm{Hz}\) source as shown in figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (\(\pi = 3.14\)):



  • (1) \(0.93 \, \mathrm{A}\)
  • (2) \(1.20 \, \mathrm{A}\)
  • (3) \(0.35 \, \mathrm{A}\)
  • (4) \(0.58 \, \mathrm{A}\)

Question 46:

The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave traveling in free space is that:

  • (1) The energy density in electric field is equal to the energy density in magnetic field
  • (2) They travel with a speed equal to \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \epsilon_0}}\)
  • (3) They originate from charges moving with uniform speed
  • (4) They are transverse in nature

Question 47:

The following graph represents the T-V curves of an ideal gas (where \(T\) is the temperature and \(V\) the volume) at three pressures \(P_1\), \(P_2\), and \(P_3\) compared with those of Charles's law represented as dotted lines.


  • (1) \(P_1 \(>\) P_3 \(>\) P_2\)
  • (2) \(P_2 \(>\) P_1 \(>\) P_3\)
  • (3) \(P_1 \(>\) P_2 \(>\) P_3\)
  • (4) \(P_3 \(>\) P_2 \(>\) P_1\)

Question 48:

The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass \(m\) from the surface of Earth of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) into a circular orbit at an altitude of \(2R\) from the surface is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2GmM}{3R}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{GmM}{2R}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{GmM}{3R}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5GmM}{6R}\)

Question 49:

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If \(I\) is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

  • (1) Displacement current of magnitude equal to \(I\) flows in the same direction as \(I\)
  • (2) Displacement current of magnitude equal to \(I\) flows in a direction opposite to that of \(I\)
  • (3) Displacement current of magnitude greater than \(I\) flows but can be in any direction
  • (4) There is no current

Question 50:

An iron bar of length \(L\) has magnetic moment \(M\). It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle \(60^\circ\) with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:

  • (1) \(\frac{M}{2}\)
  • (2) \(2M\)
  • (3) \(\frac{M}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (4) \(M\)

Question 51:

The compound that will undergo \( SN_1 \) reaction with the fastest rate is:



Question 52:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Both \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) and \([CoF_6]^{3-}\) complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behavior.

Statement II: \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) is diamagnetic whereas \([CoF_6]^{3-}\) is paramagnetic.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 53:

Match List I with List II:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Question 54:

Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in:


Question 55:

In which of the following processes does entropy increase?

A. A liquid evaporates to vapor.

B. Temperature of a crystalline solid is lowered from 130 K to 0 K.

C. \( 2NaHCO_3 (s) \rightarrow Na_2CO_3 (s) + CO_2 (g) + H_2O (g) \)

D. \( Cl_2 (g) \rightarrow 2Cl(g) \)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and D
  • (2) A, C and D
  • (3) C and D
  • (4) A and C

Question 56:

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N.

  • (1) Li \(<\) B \(<\) Be \(<\) C \(<\) N
  • (2) Li \(<\) Be \(<\) C \(<\) B \(<\) N
  • (3) Li \(<\) Be \(<\) N \(<\) B \(<\) C
  • (4) Li \(<\) Be \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) N

Question 57:

In which of the following equilibria are \(K_p\) and \(K_c\) NOT equal?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{H_2(g) + I_2(g) \leftrightarrow 2HI(g)}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CO(g) + H_2O(g) \leftrightarrow CO_2(g) + H_2(g)}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{2BrCl(g) \leftrightarrow Br_2(g) + Cl_2(g)}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{PCl_5(g) \leftrightarrow PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g)}\)

Question 58:

Match List I with List II.



  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Question 59:

The most stable carbocation among the following is:



Question 60:

1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with \(25 \, \mathrm{mL}\) of \(0.75 \, \mathrm{M} \, \mathrm{HCl}\). The mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to:

  • (1) \(250 \, \mathrm{mg}\)
  • (2) \(0 \, \mathrm{mg}\)
  • (3) \(200 \, \mathrm{mg}\)
  • (4) \(750 \, \mathrm{mg}\)

Question 61:

The Henry's law constant (\(K_H\)) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are \(145 ,\ 2 \times 10^ {-5} and \ 35 \ \mathrm{kbar}\), \(2 \times 10^{-5} \, \mathrm{kbar}\), and \(35 \, \mathrm{kbar}\), respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follows the order:

  • (1) \(B \(>\) C \(>\) A\)
  • (2) \(A \(>\) C \(>\) B\)
  • (3) \(A \(>\) B \(>\) C\)
  • (4) \(B \(>\) A \(>\) C\)

Question 62:

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Si \(<\) C \(<\) O \(<\) N \(<\) F
  • (2) O \(<\) F \(<\) N \(<\) C \(<\) Si
  • (3) F \(<\) O \(<\) N \(<\) C \(<\) Si
  • (4) Si \(<\) C \(<\) N \(<\) O \(<\) F

Question 63:

Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show \(-2\) oxidation state?

  • (1) Se
  • (2) Te
  • (3) Po
  • (4) O

Question 64:

The \(E^\circ\) value for the \(\mathrm{Mn^{3+}/Mn^{2+}}\) couple is more positive than that of \(\mathrm{Cr^{3+}/Cr^{2+}}\) or \(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}/Fe^{2+}}\) due to change of:

  • (1) \(d^5 \to d^2\) configuration
  • (2) \(d^4 \to d^5\) configuration
  • (3) \(d^3 \to d^5\) configuration
  • (4) \(d^5 \to d^4\) configuration

Question 65:

Match List I with List II.

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 66:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follows the order \( H_2O \(>\) H_2Te \(>\) H_2Se \(>\) H_2S \).

Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, \( H_2O \) is expected to have a lower boiling point than the other members of the group, but due to the presence of extensive hydrogen bonding in \( H_2O \), it has a higher boiling point.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 67:

Which plot of \(\ln k\) vs \(\frac{1}{T}\) is consistent with the Arrhenius equation?



Question 68:

The highest number of helium atoms is in:

  • (1) 4 u of helium
  • (2) 4 g of helium
  • (3) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
  • (4) 4 mol of helium

Question 69:

The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are:


A. Tollen’s reagent

B. Schiff’s reagent

C. HCN

D. \(NH_2OH\)

E. \(NaHSO_3\)

Choose the correct options from the given below:

  • (1) A and D
  • (2) B and E
  • (3) E and D
  • (4) B and C

Question 70:

Match List I with List II.

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 71:

Match List I with List II.



  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 72:

Match List I with List II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 73:

A compound with a molecular formula of \(C_6H_{14}\) has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

  • (1) 2-methylpentane
  • (2) 2,3-dimethylbutane
  • (3) 2,2-dimethylbutane
  • (4) n-hexane

Question 74:

Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?


Question 75:

On heating, some solid substances change directly to vapor without passing through the liquid state. The purification method based on this principle is known as:

  • (1) Sublimation
  • (2) Distillation
  • (3) Chromatography
  • (4) Crystallization

Question 76:

The energy of an electron in the ground state (\(n = 1\)) for \(He^+\) ion is \(-x\) J. Then that for an electron in \(n = 2\) state for \(Be^{3+}\) ion in J is:

  • (1) \(\frac{x}{9}\)
  • (2) \(-4x\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{x}{9}\)
  • (4) \(-x\)

Question 77:

Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

  • (1) \(2KClO_3 + I_2 \to 2KIO_3 + Cl_2\)
  • (2) \(H_2 + Cl_2 \to 2HCl\)
  • (3) \(BaCl_2 + Na_2SO_4 \to BaSO_4 + 2NaCl\)
  • (4) \(Zn + CuSO_4 \to ZnSO_4 + Cu\)

Question 78:

Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of:

  • (1) Probability of collision
  • (2) Orientation of reactant molecules during collision
  • (3) Rate constant at two different temperatures
  • (4) Rate constant at standard temperature

Question 79:

Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.


  • (1) (i) \(BH_3\)
         (ii) \(H_2O_2/OH^-\)
         (iii) PCC
  • (2) (i) \(BH_3\)
         (ii) \(H_2O_2/OH^-\)
         (iii) alk. \(KMnO_4\)
         (iv) \(H_3O^+\)
  • (3) (i) \(H_2O/H^+\)
         (ii) PCC
  • (4) (i) \(H_2O/H^+\)
         (ii) \(CrO_3\)

Question 80:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order \(n\)-pentane \(>\) isopentane \(>\) neopentane.

Statement II: When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of a sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 81:

Fehling’s solution 'A' is:

  • (1) Alkaline copper sulfate
  • (2) Alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)
  • (3) Aqueous sodium citrate
  • (4) Aqueous copper sulfate

Question 82:

‘Spin only’ magnetic moment is the same for which of the following ions?


A. \(Ti^{3+}\)

B. \(Cr^{2+}\)

C. \(Mn^{2+}\)

D.\(Fe^{2+}\)

E. \(Sc^{3+}\)

  • (1) A and E only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) A and D only
  • (4) B and D only

Question 83:

For the reaction \(2A \rightleftharpoons B + C\), \(K_c = 4 \times 10^{-3}\). At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is: [A] = [B] = [C] = \(2 \times 10^{-3}\) M. Then, which of the following is correct?

  • (1) Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
  • (2) Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
  • (3) Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
  • (4) Reaction is at equilibrium.

Question 84:

Match List I with List II.

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Question 85:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.

Statement II: Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 86:

Identify the correct answer.

  • (1) BF\(_3\) has non-zero dipole moment
  • (2) Dipole moment of NF\(_3\) is greater than that of NH\(_3\)
  • (3) Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO\(_3^{2-}\) ion
  • (4) Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone

Question 87:

During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe\(^{2+}\) ion?

  • (1) Concentrated sulfuric acid
  • (2) Dilute nitric acid
  • (3) Dilute sulfuric acid
  • (4) Dilute hydrochloric acid

Question 88:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) is a homoleptic complex, whereas \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^+\) is a heteroleptic complex.

Statement II: Complex \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) has only one kind of ligands but \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^+\) has more than one kind of ligands.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 89:

Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are:


Question 90:

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:


  • (1) Butylamine
  • (2) Butanamide
  • (3) \(\alpha\)-bromobutanoic acid
  • (4) Propylamine

Question 91:

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is (Given: Molar mass of Cu: 63 g mol\(^{-1}\), 1 F = 96487 C):

  • (1) 0.315 g
  • (2) 31.5 g
  • (3) 0.0315 g
  • (4) 3.15 g

Question 92:

For the given reaction:
'P' is


Question 93:

Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of N\(_2\) = \(3.0 \times 10^{-3}\) M, O\(_2\) = \(4.2 \times 10^{-3}\) M, and NO = \(2.8 \times 10^{-3}\) M.
\[ 2NO(g) \rightleftharpoons N_2(g) + O_2(g) \]
If 0.1 mol L\(^{-1}\) of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be the degree of dissociation (\(\alpha\)) of NO(g) at equilibrium?

  • (1) 0.0889
  • (2) 0.8889
  • (3) 0.717
  • (4) 0.00889

Question 94:

The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are:
\[ 3ROH + PCl_3 \to 3RCl + A \] \[ ROH + PCl_5 \to RCl + HCl + B \]

  • (1) POCl\(_3\) and H\(_3\)PO\(_4\)
  • (2) H\(_3\)PO\(_4\) and POCl\(_3\)
  • (3) H\(_3\)PO\(_3\) and POCl\(_3\)
  • (4) POCl\(_3\) and H\(_3\)PO\(_3\)

Question 95:

The plot of osmotic pressure (\(\Pi\)) vs concentration (mol L\(^{-1}\)) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol\(^{-1}\). The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is (Use \(R = 0.083 \, L bar mol^{-1} K^{-1}\)):

  • (1) 310°C
  • (2) 25.73°C
  • (3) 12.05°C
  • (4) 37°C

Question 96:

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is:

  • (1) Ce\(^{3+}\) and Eu\(^{2+}\)
  • (2) Gd\(^{3+}\) and Eu\(^{3+}\)
  • (3) Pm\(^{3+}\) and Sm\(^{3+}\)
  • (4) Ce\(^{4+}\) and Yb\(^{2+}\)

Question 97:

The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is (Given \(R = 2.0 \, cal mol^{-1} \, K^{-1}\)):

  • (1) -413.14 calories
  • (2) 413.14 calories
  • (3) 100 calories
  • (4) 0 calorie

Question 98:

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI.

A. Al\(^{3+}\)

B. Cu\(^{2+}\)

C. Ba\(^{2+}\)

D. Co\(^{2+}\)

E. Mg\(^{2+}\)

  • (1) B, C, A, D, E
  • (2) E, C, D, B, A
  • (3) E, A, B, C, D
  • (4) B, A, D, C, E

Question 99:

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation. Given \(R = 8.314 \, J K^{-1} \, mol^{-1}\), \(log_4\) = 0.6021

  • (1) 380.4 kJ/mol
  • (2) 3.80 kJ/mol
  • (3) 3804 kJ/mol
  • (4) 38.04 kJ/mol

Question 100:

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and the remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is: (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)

  • (1) \(ABC_3\)
  • (2) \(AB_2C_2\)
  • (3) \(ABC_4\)
  • (4) \(A_2BC_2\)

Question 101:

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

  • (1) Metaphase
  • (2) Anaphase
  • (3) Telophase
  • (4) Prophase

Question 102:

Bulliform cells are responsible for

  • (1) Protecting the plant from salt stress.
  • (2) Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
  • (3) Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
  • (4) Inward curling of leaves in monocots.

Question 103:

The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

  • (1) Micropropagation
  • (2) Differentiation
  • (3) Somatic hybridization
  • (4) Totipotency

Question 104:

A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and downstream ends;

  • (1) Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
  • (2) Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
  • (3) Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
  • (4) Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene

Question 105:

Match List I with List II





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 106:

Match List I with List II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 107:

Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence, and it consists of:

  • (1) 6 bp
  • (2) 4 bp
  • (3) 10 bp
  • (4) 8 bp

Question 108:

In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

  • (1) bb
  • (2) Bb
  • (3) BB/Bb
  • (4) BB

Question 109:

These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:

A. Over exploitation

B. Co-extinction

C. Mutation

D. Habitat loss and fragmentation

E. Migration

Choose the correct option:

  • (1) A, B, C and D only
  • (2) A, B and E only
  • (3) A, B and D only
  • (4) A, C and D only

Question 110:

How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO₂ fixed in the Calvin cycle?

  • (1) 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • (2) 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
  • (3) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • (4) 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

Question 111:

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

A. Out of one pair of factors, one is dominant and the other is recessive.

B. Alleles do not show any expression, and both the characters appear as such in F2 generation.

C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.

D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.

E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, C, D and E only
  • (2) B, C and D only
  • (3) A, B, C, D and E
  • (4) A, B and C only

Question 112:

List of endangered species was released by

  • (1) WWF
  • (2) FOAM
  • (3) IUCN
  • (4) GEAC

Question 113:

Tropical regions show the greatest level of species richness because

A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.

B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.

C. More solar energy is available in tropics.

D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.

E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) A, B and E only
  • (3) A, B and D only
  • (4) A, C, D and E only

Question 114:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Question 115:

Which of the following is an example of an actinomorphic flower?

  • (1) Cassia
  • (2) Pisum
  • (3) Sesbania
  • (4) Datura

Question 116:

Identify the set of correct statements:

A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar.

B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated by water.

C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.

D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon-like.

E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C and D only
  • (2) A, C, D and E only
  • (3) B, C, D and E only
  • (4) C, D and E only

Question 117:

What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only the gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?

  • (A) The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
    (B) It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
    (C) It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
    (D) The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of the chromosome.
    (E) It shows the ability to replicate.

Question 118:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parenchyma is living, but collenchyma is dead tissue.

Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels, but the presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 119:

Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example of

  • (1) Redifferentiation
  • (2) Dedifferentiation
  • (3) Maturation
  • (4) Differentiation

Question 120:

Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?

  • (1) Mode of nutrition
  • (2) Mode of spore formation
  • (3) Fruiting body
  • (4) Morphology of mycelium

Question 121:

The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

  • (1) Niacin
  • (2) Flavin
  • (3) Haem
  • (4) Zinc

Question 122:

Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin

  • (1) promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
  • (2) does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
  • (3) can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
  • (4) promotes apical dominance.

Question 123:

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

  • (1) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
  • (2) Only pink flowered plants
  • (3) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
  • (4) Only red flowered plants

Question 124:

Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
A. Light

B. Chlorophyll

C. CO₂

D. ATP

E. NADPH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, C and D only
  • (2) C, D and E only
  • (3) D and E only
  • (4) A, B and C only

Question 125:

Match List I with List II







Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Question 126:

The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of

  • (1) Acetylase
  • (2) Permease
  • (3) Polymerase
  • (4) Beta-galactosidase

Question 127:

The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is \[ \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( 1 - \frac{N}{K} \right) \]
From this equation, \( K \) indicates:

  • (1) Biotic potential
  • (2) Carrying capacity
  • (3) Population density
  • (4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

Question 128:

Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

  • (1) Feedback inhibition
  • (2) Competitive inhibition
  • (3) Enzyme activation
  • (4) Cofactor inhibition

Question 129:

The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special settings where they can be protected and given special care is called

  • (1) Biodiversity conservation
  • (2) Semi-conservative method
  • (3) Sustainable development
  • (4) In-situ conservation

Question 130:

Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla, and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)


  • (1) (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
  • (2) (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
  • (3) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
  • (4) (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous

Question 131:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.

Statement II: Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect, the inactive protoxin gets converted into the active form due to the acidic pH of the insect gut.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 132:

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

  • (1) Phospholipids
  • (2) Glycerides
  • (3) Carbohydrates
  • (4) Amino acids

Question 133:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during the leptotene stage.

Statement II: The beginning of the diplotene stage is recognized by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 134:

Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form the root when the seed germinates.


  • (1) B
  • (2) C
  • (3) D
  • (4) A

Question 135:

In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?


  • (1) D
  • (2) A
  • (3) B
  • (4) C

Question 136:

Match List-I with List-II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 137:

Match List I with List II





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 138:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Question 139:

Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators increases the length of stem, thus, increasing the yield?

  • (1) Gibberellin
  • (2) Cytokinin
  • (3) Abscisic acid
  • (4) Auxin

Question 140:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 141:

In an ecosystem, if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of the first trophic level is 100x (kcal m–2 yr–1), what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?

  • (1) \( x \, kcal m^{-2} \, yr^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 10x \, kcal m^{-2} \, yr^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 100x \, kcal m^{-2} \, yr^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 10x \, kcal m^{-2} \, yr^{-1} \)

Question 142:

Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.

  • (1) Succinic acid → Malic acid
  • (2) Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
  • (3) Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid
  • (4) Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid

Question 143:

Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

  • (1) Somatic embryos
  • (2) Protoplasts
  • (3) Pollens
  • (4) Callus

Question 144:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Question 145:

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:

In the members of Phaeophyceae,

A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.
B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.
C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.
D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.
E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, C, D and E only
  • (2) A, C, D and E only
  • (3) A, B, C and E only
  • (4) A, B, C and D only

Question 146:

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E. coli?

  • (1) The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5’ → 3’
  • (2) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ as well as 3’ → 5’ direction
  • (3) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ direction
  • (4) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3’ → 5’

Question 147:

The DNA present in chloroplast is:

  • (1) Circular, double-stranded
  • (2) Linear, single-stranded
  • (3) Circular, single-stranded
  • (4) Linear, double-stranded

Question 148:

Identify the correct description about the given figure:


  • (1) Water-pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
  • (2) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
  • (3) Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy
  • (4) Wind-pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well-exposed stamens.

Question 149:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In C3 plants, some O2 binds to RuBisCO, hence CO2 fixation is decreased.

Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 150:

Match List I with List II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 151:

Three types of muscles are given as a, b, and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in the human body:




Name of muscle/location

  • (1) (a) Skeletal - Triceps
          (b) Smooth – Stomach
         (c) Cardiac – Heart
  • (2) (a) Skeletal - Biceps
         (b) Involuntary – Intestine
         (c) Smooth – Heart
  • (3) (a) Involuntary – Nose tip
         (b) Skeletal – Bone
        (c) Cardiac – Heart
  • (4) (a) Smooth - Toes
        (b) Skeletal – Legs
        (c) Cardiac – Heart

Question 152:

Following are the stages of the pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:
A. AV bundle \quad B. Purkinje fibres \quad C. AV node \quad D. Bundle branches \quad E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of the pathway from the options given below:

  • (1) A-E-C-B-D
  • (2) B-D-E-C-A
  • (3) E-A-D-B-C
  • (4) E-C-A-D-B

Question 153:

Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

  • (1) Genetic drift
  • (2) Gene migration
  • (3) Constant gene pool
  • (4) Genetic recombination

Question 154:

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (1) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
  • (2) Bio-reactors are used to produce small-scale bacterial cultures
  • (3) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, and foam control system
  • (4) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product

Question 155:

Which one is the correct product of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase to the given template?
3’TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5’

  • (1) 5’AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3’
  • (2) 5’AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU3’
  • (3) 5’ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3’
  • (4) 5’AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3’

Question 156:

Match List I with List II

 



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 157:

Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?

A. Myasthenia gravis

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Gout

D. Muscular dystrophy

E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B & E only
  • (2) B, C & E only
  • (3) C, D & E only
  • (4) A, B & D only

Question 158:

Match List I with List II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 159:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.

Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 160:

Match List I with List
II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Question 161:

Match List I with List II:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 162:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 163:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Question 164:

Following are the stages of cell division:

A. Gap 2 phase

B. Cytokinesis

C. Synthesis phase

D. Karyokinesis

E. Gap 1 phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below:

  • (1) E-B-D-A-C
  • (2) B-D-E-A-C
  • (3) E-C-A-D-B
  • (4) C-E-D-A-B

Question 165:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 166:

Match List I with List II:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 167:

Match List I with List II:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 168:

Match List I with List II:







Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Question 169:

The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of:

  • (1) Natural selection
  • (2) Convergent evolution
  • (3) Divergent evolution
  • (4) Adaptive radiation

Question 170:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby.

Reason R: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the newborn baby.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (3) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 171:

Which of the following is not a component of the Fallopian tube?

  • (1) Isthmus
  • (2) Infundibulum
  • (3) Ampulla
  • (4) Uterine fundus

Question 172:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 173:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Question 174:

Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent)
A. Homo habilis

B. Homo sapiens

C. Homo neanderthalensis

D. Homo erectus
Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:

  • (1) B-A-D-C
  • (2) C-B-D-A
  • (3) A-D-C-B
  • (4) D-A-C-B

Question 175:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.

Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 176:

Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

  • (1) Testosterone
  • (2) Progesterone
  • (3) Glucagon
  • (4) Cortisol

Question 177:

Consider the following statements:

A. Annelids are true coelomates.

B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates.

C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates.

D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A only
  • (2) C only
  • (3) D only
  • (4) B only

Question 178:

Match List I with List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 179:

Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

  • (1) High pO2 and Lesser H+ concentration
  • (2) Low pCO2 and High H+ concentration
  • (3) Low pCO2 and High temperature
  • (4) High pO2 and High pCO2

Question 180:

In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on:

  • (1) 10th segment
  • (2) 8th and 9th segment
  • (3) 11th segment
  • (4) 5th segment

Question 181:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 182:

The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for:

  • (1) Tumor independent plasmid
  • (2) Tumor inducing plasmid
  • (3) Temperature independent plasmid
  • (4) Tumor inhibiting plasmid

Question 183:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.

Reason R: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 184:

The following diagram shows restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ genes:


  • (1) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
  • (2) The gene ‘X’ is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and ‘Y’ for resistance to antibiotics.
  • (3) Gene ’X’ is responsible for recognition sites and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
  • (4) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.

Question 185:

Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

  • (1) Periodic abstinence
  • (2) Lactational amenorrhea
  • (3) Vaults
  • (4) Coitus interruptus

Question 186:

Match List I with List II:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 187:

Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.


  • (1) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
  • (2) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.
  • (3) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
  • (4) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis.

Question 188:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both are double-membrane bound organelles.

Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to chloroplast.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 189:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.

Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Question 190:

Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps:

A. Substrate-enzyme complex formation.

B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.

C. Release of products.

D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.

E. Substrate binding to active site.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, E, B, D, C
  • (2) B, A, C, D, E
  • (3) E, D, C, B, A
  • (4) E, A, D, C, B

Question 191:

Match List I with List II:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Question 192:

Match List I with List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 193:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a nerve tract known as corpus callosum.

Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 194:

Match List I with List II related to digestive system of cockroach:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 195:

Match List I with List II:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Question 196:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide microenvironments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 197:

Match List I with List II:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Question 198:

Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron:

  • (1) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
  • (2) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
  • (3) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
  • (4) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.

Question 199:

As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+. Their respective genotype can be:


  • (1) B only
  • (2) C \& B only
  • (3) D \& E only
  • (4) A only

Question 200:

The following are the statements about non-chordates:

A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.

B. Notochord is absent.

C. Central nervous system is dorsal.

D. Heart is dorsal if present.

E. Post anal tail is absent.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B & D only
  • (2) B, D & E only
  • (3) B, C & D only
  • (4) A & C only


NEET Previous Year Question Papers with Answer Keys

Other UG Entrance Exams

NEET 2024 Question paper with answer key pdf R2 is available for download. NEET 2024 R2 question paper has been conducted by the NTA on May 5, 2024, in pen-paper mode. NEET 2024 question paper code R2 consists of 200 MCQs- 180 to be attempted in 200 minutes. Each of the 4 subjects (Zoology, Botany, Chemistry, Physics) in NEET R2 question paper 2023 have 50 MCQs (45 to be attempted). You can download NEET 2024 question paper with answer key with solutions PDF for R2 using the links given below.

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Question 1:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The potential (\(V\)) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (\(r\)) from the center of the dipole of dipole moment vector \(\vec{P}\) of magnitude, \(4 \times 10^{-6} \, \mathrm{C \, m}\), is \(\pm 9 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{V}\).
(Take \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \mathrm{SI \, units}\))


Reason R: \(V = \pm \frac{2P}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 r^2}\), where \(r\) is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the center of the dipole.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) A is true but R is false.
  • (3) A is false but R is true.
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2:

The mass of a planet is \(\frac{1}{10}\) that of the earth, and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

  • (1) \(9.8 \, \mathrm{m \, s^{-2}}\)
  • (2) \(4.9 \, \mathrm{m \, s^{-2}}\)
  • (3) \(3.92 \, \mathrm{m \, s^{-2}}\)
  • (4) \(19.6 \, \mathrm{m \, s^{-2}}\)

Question 3:

At any instant of time \(t\), the displacement of any particle is given by \(2t - 1 \, (\mathrm{SI \, unit})\) under the influence of a force of \(5 \, \mathrm{N}\). The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):

  • (1) \(5\)
  • (2) \(7\)
  • (3) \(6\)
  • (4) \(10\)

Question 4:

A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:

  • (1) Constant acceleration
  • (2) Constant velocity but varying acceleration
  • (3) Varying velocity and varying acceleration
  • (4) Constant velocity

Question 5:

Match List-I with List-II.



  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 6:

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is \(\frac{N_P}{N_S} = \frac{1}{2}\). The ratio \(V_S : V_P\) is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning):

  • (1) \(2 : 1\)
  • (2) \(1 : 1\)
  • (3) \(1 : 4\)
  • (4) \(1 : 2\)

Question 7:

A tightly wound \(100\)-turns coil of radius \(10 \, \mathrm{cm}\) carries a current of \(7 \, \mathrm{A}\). The magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as \(4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, \mathrm{SI \, units}\)):

  • (1) \(4.4 \, \mathrm{T}\)
  • (2) \(4.4 \, \mathrm{mT}\)
  • (3) \(44 \, \mathrm{T}\)
  • (4) \(44 \, \mathrm{mT}\)

Question 8:

In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is:



  • (1) \(1 \, \mu F\)
  • (2) \(0.5 \, \mu F\)
  • (3) \(4 \, \mu F\)
  • (4) \(2 \, \mu F\)

Question 9:

In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:
 

  • (1) BA and CD
  • (2) AB and CD
  • (3) BA and DC
  • (4) AB and DC

Question 10:

The maximum elongation of a steel wire of \(1 \, \mathrm{m}\) length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's modulus, respectively, are \(8 \times 10^8 \, \mathrm{N/m^2}\) and \(2 \times 10^{11} \, \mathrm{N/m^2}\), is:

  • (1) \(0.4 \, \mathrm{mm}\)
  • (2) \(40 \, \mathrm{mm}\)
  • (3) \(8 \, \mathrm{mm}\)
  • (4) \(4 \, \mathrm{mm}\)

Question 11:

In the nuclear emission stated below, the mass number and atomic number of the product \( Q \) respectively, are:
\[ \prescript{290}{82}X \xrightarrow{\alpha} Y \xrightarrow{e^+} Z \xrightarrow{\beta^-} P \xrightarrow{e^-} Q \]

  • (1) \( 286, 80 \)
  • (2) \( 288, 82 \)
  • (3) \( 286, 81 \)
  • (4) \( 280, 81 \)

Question 12:

A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is \(v\) in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?


  • (1) Point P moves faster than point Q
  • (2) Both the points P and Q move with equal speed
  • (3) Point P has zero speed
  • (4) Point P moves slower than point Q

Question 13:

An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then:

  • (1) The refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • (2) Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • (3) The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
  • (4) The reflected light will be partially polarised.

Question 14:

In a vernier callipers, \((N + 1)\) divisions of vernier scale coincide with \(N\) divisions of the main scale. If 1 MSD represents \(0.1 \, \mathrm{mm}\), the vernier constant (in cm) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{100(N+1)}\)
  • (2) \(100N\)
  • (3) \(10(N + 1)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{10N}\)

Question 15:

A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of \(\omega \, \mathrm{rpm}\). The tension in the string is \(T\). If speed becomes \(2\omega\) while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:

  • (1) \(4T\)
  • (2) \(\frac{T}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}T\)
  • (4) \(\frac{T}{4}\)

Question 16:

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle \(abcda\). The work done by the gas along the path \(bc\) is:

  • (1) \(30 \, \mathrm{J}\)
  • (2) \(-90 \, \mathrm{J}\)
  • (3) \(-60 \, \mathrm{J}\)
  • (4) \(0\)

Question 17:

The output (\(Y\)) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an:


  • (1) NOR gate
  • (2) OR gate
  • (3) AND gate
  • (4) NAND gate

Question 18:

Two bodies \(A\) and \(B\) of the same mass undergo a completely inelastic one-dimensional collision. Body \(A\) moves with velocity \(v_1\) while body \(B\) is at rest before the collision. The velocity of the system after the collision is \(v_2\). The ratio \(v_1 : v_2\) is:

  • (1) \(2 : 1\)
  • (2) \(4 : 1\)
  • (3) \(1 : 4\)
  • (4) \(1 : 2\)

Question 19:

The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to the rod is \(2400 \, \mathrm{g \, cm^2}\). The length of the \(400 \, \mathrm{g}\) rod is nearly:

  • (1) \(17.5 \, \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (2) \(20.7 \, \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (3) \(72.0 \, \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (4) \(8.5 \, \mathrm{cm}\)

Question 20:

A thin flat circular disc of radius \(4.5 \, \mathrm{cm}\) is placed gently over the surface of water. If the surface tension of water is \(0.07 \, \mathrm{N/m}\), then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:

  • (1) \(198 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (2) \(1.98 \, \mathrm{mN}\)
  • (3) \(99 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (4) \(19.8 \, \mathrm{mN}\)

Question 21:

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer:



A. For a solar-cell, the \(I-V\) characteristics lie in the IV quadrant of the given graph.
B. In a reverse biased \(pn\)-junction diode, the current measured (in \(\mu A\)) is due to majority charge carriers.

  • (1) A is incorrect but B is correct
  • (2) Both A and B are correct
  • (3) Both A and B are incorrect
  • (4) A is correct but B is incorrect

Question 22:

A horizontal force of \(10 \, \mathrm{N}\) is applied to a block \(A\) as shown in the figure. The masses of blocks \(A\) and \(B\) are \(2 \, \mathrm{kg}\) and \(3 \, \mathrm{kg}\), respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block \(A\) on block \(B\) is:


  • (1) \(4 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (2) \(6 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (3) \(10 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (4) \(0 \, \mathrm{N}\)

Question 23:

If \(x = 5 \sin\left(\pi t+\frac{\pi }{3}\right) \, \mathrm{m}\) represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of the motion, respectively, are:

  • (1) \(5 \, \mathrm{m}, \, 2 \, \mathrm{s}\)
  • (2) \(5 \, \mathrm{cm}, \, 1 \, \mathrm{s}\)
  • (3) \(5 \, \mathrm{m}, \, 1 \, \mathrm{s}\)
  • (4) \(5 \, \mathrm{cm}, \, 2 \, \mathrm{s}\)

Question 24:

A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at point \(P\) with the angle of incidence \(30^\circ\) as shown in the figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base \(BC\) and emerges along the face \(AC\). The refractive index of the prism is:


  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{4}\)

Question 25:

A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points \(C\) and \(P\) (in \(V\)) shown in the figure is: (Take \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \mathrm{SI \, units}\)):


  • (1) \(1 \times 10^5\)
  • (2) \(0.5 \times 10^5\)
  • (3) \(0\)
  • (4) \(3 \times 10^5\)

Question 26:

If \( c \) is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photons among the following are:

A. The energy of a photon is \( E = h\nu \).

B. The velocity of a photon is \( c \).

C. The momentum of a photon, \( p = \frac{h\nu}{c} \).

D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.

E. Photon possesses a positive charge.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C and D only
  • (2) A, C and D only
  • (3) A, B, D and E only
  • (4) A and B only

Question 27:

Match List-I with List-II:



  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 28:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal numbers of positive and negative charges.

Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 29:

The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is \(10 \, \mathrm{V}\) and internal resistance \(1 \, \Omega\), when connected through an external resistance of \(4 \, \Omega\) as shown in the figure, is:


  • (1) \(6 \, \mathrm{V}\)
  • (2) \(8 \, \mathrm{V}\)
  • (3) \(10 \, \mathrm{V}\)
  • (4) \(4 \, \mathrm{V}\)

Question 30:

If the monochromatic source in Young's double-slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:

  • (1) There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
  • (2) There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
  • (3) All bright fringes will be of equal width
  • (4) Interference pattern will disappear

Question 31:

A logic circuit provides the output \(Y\) as per the following truth table:





The expression for the output \(Y\) is:

  • (1) \(A \cdot \overline{B} + A\)
  • (2) \(\overline{B}\)
  • (3) \(B\)
  • (4) \(A{B} + \overline{A}\)

Question 32:

A wire of length \(l\) and resistance \(100 \, \Omega\) is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series, while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

  • (1) \(52 \, \Omega\)
  • (2) \(55 \, \Omega\)
  • (3) \(60 \, \Omega\)
  • (4) \(26 \, \Omega\)

Question 33:

The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

  • (1) Stress and angle
  • (2) Strain and arc
  • (3) Angular speed and stress
  • (4) Strain and angle

Question 34:

The graph which shows the variation of \((1/\lambda^2)\) and its kinetic energy, \(E\), is (where \(\lambda\) is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):



Question 35:

In a uniform magnetic field of \(0.049 \, \mathrm{T}\), a magnetic needle performs \(20\) complete oscillations in \(5 \, \mathrm{s}\). The moment of inertia of the needle is \(9.8 \times 10^{-6} \, \mathrm{kg \, m^2}\). If the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the needle is \(x \times 10^{-5} \, \mathrm{Am^2}\), then the value of \(x\) is:


  • (1) \(128\pi^2\)
  • (2) \(50\pi^2\)
  • (3) \(1280\pi^2\)
  • (4) \(5\pi^2\)

Question 36:

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then:

A. The charge stored in it increases.

B. The energy stored in it decreases.

C. Its capacitance increases.

D. The ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.

E. The product of charge and voltage increases.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, C and E only
  • (2) B, D and E only
  • (3) A, B and C only
  • (4) A, B and E only

Question 37:

A metallic bar of Young’s modulus, \(0.5 \times 10^{11} \, \mathrm{N/m^2}\) and coefficient of linear thermal expansion \(10^{-5} \, ^\circ\mathrm{C}^{-1}\), length \(1 \, \mathrm{m}\), and area of cross-section \(10^{-3} \, \mathrm{m^2}\) is heated from \(0^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(100^\circ\mathrm{C}\) without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

  • (1) \(50 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (2) \(100 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (3) \(2 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{N}\)
  • (4) \(5 \times 10^3 \, \mathrm{N}\)

Question 38:

If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is \(\frac{x}{2}\) times its original time period. The value of \(x\) is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{3}\)

Question 39:

A small telescope has an objective of focal length \(140 \, \mathrm{cm}\) and an eyepiece of focal length \(5.0 \, \mathrm{cm}\). The magnifying power of the telescope for viewing a distant object is:

  • (1) \(28\)
  • (2) \(17\)
  • (3) \(32\)
  • (4) \(34\)

Question 40:

Two heaters \(A\) and \(B\) have power ratings of \(1 \, \mathrm{kW}\) and \(2 \, \mathrm{kW}\), respectively. The two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

  • (1) \(2 : 9\)
  • (2) \(1 : 2\)
  • (3) \(2 : 3\)
  • (4) \(1 : 1\)

Question 41:

A force defined by \(F = \alpha t^2 + \beta t\) acts on a particle at a given time \(t\). The factor which is dimensionless, if \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are constants, is:

  • (1) \(\frac{\alpha t}{\beta}\)
  • (2) \(\alpha \beta t\)
  • (3) \(\alpha \beta\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\beta t}{\alpha}\)

Question 42:

A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to:

A. Hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.

B. Hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.

C. Move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.

D. Move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar.

Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) A, C and D only
  • (3) C only
  • (4) B and D only

Question 43:

Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.


Question 44:

The velocity (\(v\)) – time (\(t\)) plot of the motion of a body is shown below:




The acceleration (\(a\)) – time (\(t\)) graph that best suits this motion is:


Question 45:

A \(10 \, \mu\mathrm{F}\) capacitor is connected to a \(210 \, \mathrm{V}\), \(50 \, \mathrm{Hz}\) source as shown in figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (\(\pi = 3.14\)):



  • (1) \(0.93 \, \mathrm{A}\)
  • (2) \(1.20 \, \mathrm{A}\)
  • (3) \(0.35 \, \mathrm{A}\)
  • (4) \(0.58 \, \mathrm{A}\)

Question 46:

The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave traveling in free space is that:

  • (1) The energy density in electric field is equal to the energy density in magnetic field
  • (2) They travel with a speed equal to \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \epsilon_0}}\)
  • (3) They originate from charges moving with uniform speed
  • (4) They are transverse in nature

Question 47:

The following graph represents the T-V curves of an ideal gas (where \(T\) is the temperature and \(V\) the volume) at three pressures \(P_1\), \(P_2\), and \(P_3\) compared with those of Charles's law represented as dotted lines.


  • (1) \(P_1 \(>\) P_3 \(>\) P_2\)
  • (2) \(P_2 \(>\) P_1 \(>\) P_3\)
  • (3) \(P_1 \(>\) P_2 \(>\) P_3\)
  • (4) \(P_3 \(>\) P_2 \(>\) P_1\)

Question 48:

The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass \(m\) from the surface of Earth of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) into a circular orbit at an altitude of \(2R\) from the surface is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2GmM}{3R}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{GmM}{2R}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{GmM}{3R}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5GmM}{6R}\)

Question 49:

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If \(I\) is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

  • (1) Displacement current of magnitude equal to \(I\) flows in the same direction as \(I\)
  • (2) Displacement current of magnitude equal to \(I\) flows in a direction opposite to that of \(I\)
  • (3) Displacement current of magnitude greater than \(I\) flows but can be in any direction
  • (4) There is no current

Question 50:

An iron bar of length \(L\) has magnetic moment \(M\). It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle \(60^\circ\) with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:

  • (1) \(\frac{M}{2}\)
  • (2) \(2M\)
  • (3) \(\frac{M}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (4) \(M\)

Question 51:

The compound that will undergo \( SN_1 \) reaction with the fastest rate is:



Question 52:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Both \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) and \([CoF_6]^{3-}\) complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behavior.

Statement II: \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) is diamagnetic whereas \([CoF_6]^{3-}\) is paramagnetic.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 53:

Match List I with List II:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Question 54:

Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in:


Question 55:

In which of the following processes does entropy increase?

A. A liquid evaporates to vapor.

B. Temperature of a crystalline solid is lowered from 130 K to 0 K.

C. \( 2NaHCO_3 (s) \rightarrow Na_2CO_3 (s) + CO_2 (g) + H_2O (g) \)

D. \( Cl_2 (g) \rightarrow 2Cl(g) \)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and D
  • (2) A, C and D
  • (3) C and D
  • (4) A and C

Question 56:

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N.

  • (1) Li \(<\) B \(<\) Be \(<\) C \(<\) N
  • (2) Li \(<\) Be \(<\) C \(<\) B \(<\) N
  • (3) Li \(<\) Be \(<\) N \(<\) B \(<\) C
  • (4) Li \(<\) Be \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) N

Question 57:

In which of the following equilibria are \(K_p\) and \(K_c\) NOT equal?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{H_2(g) + I_2(g) \leftrightarrow 2HI(g)}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CO(g) + H_2O(g) \leftrightarrow CO_2(g) + H_2(g)}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{2BrCl(g) \leftrightarrow Br_2(g) + Cl_2(g)}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{PCl_5(g) \leftrightarrow PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g)}\)

Question 58:

Match List I with List II.



  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Question 59:

The most stable carbocation among the following is:



Question 60:

1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with \(25 \, \mathrm{mL}\) of \(0.75 \, \mathrm{M} \, \mathrm{HCl}\). The mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to:

  • (1) \(250 \, \mathrm{mg}\)
  • (2) \(0 \, \mathrm{mg}\)
  • (3) \(200 \, \mathrm{mg}\)
  • (4) \(750 \, \mathrm{mg}\)

Question 61:

The Henry's law constant (\(K_H\)) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are \(145 ,\ 2 \times 10^ {-5} and \ 35 \ \mathrm{kbar}\), \(2 \times 10^{-5} \, \mathrm{kbar}\), and \(35 \, \mathrm{kbar}\), respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follows the order:

  • (1) \(B \(>\) C \(>\) A\)
  • (2) \(A \(>\) C \(>\) B\)
  • (3) \(A \(>\) B \(>\) C\)
  • (4) \(B \(>\) A \(>\) C\)

Question 62:

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Si \(<\) C \(<\) O \(<\) N \(<\) F
  • (2) O \(<\) F \(<\) N \(<\) C \(<\) Si
  • (3) F \(<\) O \(<\) N \(<\) C \(<\) Si
  • (4) Si \(<\) C \(<\) N \(<\) O \(<\) F

Question 63:

Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show \(-2\) oxidation state?

  • (1) Se
  • (2) Te
  • (3) Po
  • (4) O

Question 64:

The \(E^\circ\) value for the \(\mathrm{Mn^{3+}/Mn^{2+}}\) couple is more positive than that of \(\mathrm{Cr^{3+}/Cr^{2+}}\) or \(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}/Fe^{2+}}\) due to change of:

  • (1) \(d^5 \to d^2\) configuration
  • (2) \(d^4 \to d^5\) configuration
  • (3) \(d^3 \to d^5\) configuration
  • (4) \(d^5 \to d^4\) configuration

Question 65:

Match List I with List II.

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 66:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follows the order \( H_2O \(>\) H_2Te \(>\) H_2Se \(>\) H_2S \).

Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, \( H_2O \) is expected to have a lower boiling point than the other members of the group, but due to the presence of extensive hydrogen bonding in \( H_2O \), it has a higher boiling point.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 67:

Which plot of \(\ln k\) vs \(\frac{1}{T}\) is consistent with the Arrhenius equation?



Question 68:

The highest number of helium atoms is in:

  • (1) 4 u of helium
  • (2) 4 g of helium
  • (3) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
  • (4) 4 mol of helium

Question 69:

The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are:


A. Tollen’s reagent

B. Schiff’s reagent

C. HCN

D. \(NH_2OH\)

E. \(NaHSO_3\)

Choose the correct options from the given below:

  • (1) A and D
  • (2) B and E
  • (3) E and D
  • (4) B and C

Question 70:

Match List I with List II.

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 71:

Match List I with List II.



  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 72:

Match List I with List II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 73:

A compound with a molecular formula of \(C_6H_{14}\) has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

  • (1) 2-methylpentane
  • (2) 2,3-dimethylbutane
  • (3) 2,2-dimethylbutane
  • (4) n-hexane

Question 74:

Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?


Question 75:

On heating, some solid substances change directly to vapor without passing through the liquid state. The purification method based on this principle is known as:

  • (1) Sublimation
  • (2) Distillation
  • (3) Chromatography
  • (4) Crystallization

Question 76:

The energy of an electron in the ground state (\(n = 1\)) for \(He^+\) ion is \(-x\) J. Then that for an electron in \(n = 2\) state for \(Be^{3+}\) ion in J is:

  • (1) \(\frac{x}{9}\)
  • (2) \(-4x\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{x}{9}\)
  • (4) \(-x\)

Question 77:

Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

  • (1) \(2KClO_3 + I_2 \to 2KIO_3 + Cl_2\)
  • (2) \(H_2 + Cl_2 \to 2HCl\)
  • (3) \(BaCl_2 + Na_2SO_4 \to BaSO_4 + 2NaCl\)
  • (4) \(Zn + CuSO_4 \to ZnSO_4 + Cu\)

Question 78:

Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of:

  • (1) Probability of collision
  • (2) Orientation of reactant molecules during collision
  • (3) Rate constant at two different temperatures
  • (4) Rate constant at standard temperature

Question 79:

Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.


  • (1) (i) \(BH_3\)
         (ii) \(H_2O_2/OH^-\)
         (iii) PCC
  • (2) (i) \(BH_3\)
         (ii) \(H_2O_2/OH^-\)
         (iii) alk. \(KMnO_4\)
         (iv) \(H_3O^+\)
  • (3) (i) \(H_2O/H^+\)
         (ii) PCC
  • (4) (i) \(H_2O/H^+\)
         (ii) \(CrO_3\)

Question 80:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order \(n\)-pentane \(>\) isopentane \(>\) neopentane.

Statement II: When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of a sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 81:

Fehling’s solution 'A' is:

  • (1) Alkaline copper sulfate
  • (2) Alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)
  • (3) Aqueous sodium citrate
  • (4) Aqueous copper sulfate

Question 82:

‘Spin only’ magnetic moment is the same for which of the following ions?


A. \(Ti^{3+}\)

B. \(Cr^{2+}\)

C. \(Mn^{2+}\)

D.\(Fe^{2+}\)

E. \(Sc^{3+}\)

  • (1) A and E only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) A and D only
  • (4) B and D only

Question 83:

For the reaction \(2A \rightleftharpoons B + C\), \(K_c = 4 \times 10^{-3}\). At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is: [A] = [B] = [C] = \(2 \times 10^{-3}\) M. Then, which of the following is correct?

  • (1) Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
  • (2) Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
  • (3) Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
  • (4) Reaction is at equilibrium.

Question 84:

Match List I with List II.

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Question 85:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.

Statement II: Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 86:

Identify the correct answer.

  • (1) BF\(_3\) has non-zero dipole moment
  • (2) Dipole moment of NF\(_3\) is greater than that of NH\(_3\)
  • (3) Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO\(_3^{2-}\) ion
  • (4) Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone

Question 87:

During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe\(^{2+}\) ion?

  • (1) Concentrated sulfuric acid
  • (2) Dilute nitric acid
  • (3) Dilute sulfuric acid
  • (4) Dilute hydrochloric acid

Question 88:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) is a homoleptic complex, whereas \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^+\) is a heteroleptic complex.

Statement II: Complex \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) has only one kind of ligands but \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^+\) has more than one kind of ligands.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 89:

Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are:


Question 90:

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:


  • (1) Butylamine
  • (2) Butanamide
  • (3) \(\alpha\)-bromobutanoic acid
  • (4) Propylamine

Question 91:

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is (Given: Molar mass of Cu: 63 g mol\(^{-1}\), 1 F = 96487 C):

  • (1) 0.315 g
  • (2) 31.5 g
  • (3) 0.0315 g
  • (4) 3.15 g

Question 92:

For the given reaction:
'P' is


Question 93:

Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of N\(_2\) = \(3.0 \times 10^{-3}\) M, O\(_2\) = \(4.2 \times 10^{-3}\) M, and NO = \(2.8 \times 10^{-3}\) M.
\[ 2NO(g) \rightleftharpoons N_2(g) + O_2(g) \]
If 0.1 mol L\(^{-1}\) of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be the degree of dissociation (\(\alpha\)) of NO(g) at equilibrium?

  • (1) 0.0889
  • (2) 0.8889
  • (3) 0.717
  • (4) 0.00889

Question 94:

The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are:
\[ 3ROH + PCl_3 \to 3RCl + A \] \[ ROH + PCl_5 \to RCl + HCl + B \]

  • (1) POCl\(_3\) and H\(_3\)PO\(_4\)
  • (2) H\(_3\)PO\(_4\) and POCl\(_3\)
  • (3) H\(_3\)PO\(_3\) and POCl\(_3\)
  • (4) POCl\(_3\) and H\(_3\)PO\(_3\)

Question 95:

The plot of osmotic pressure (\(\Pi\)) vs concentration (mol L\(^{-1}\)) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol\(^{-1}\). The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is (Use \(R = 0.083 \, L bar mol^{-1} K^{-1}\)):

  • (1) 310°C
  • (2) 25.73°C
  • (3) 12.05°C
  • (4) 37°C

Question 96:

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is:

  • (1) Ce\(^{3+}\) and Eu\(^{2+}\)
  • (2) Gd\(^{3+}\) and Eu\(^{3+}\)
  • (3) Pm\(^{3+}\) and Sm\(^{3+}\)
  • (4) Ce\(^{4+}\) and Yb\(^{2+}\)

Question 97:

The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is (Given \(R = 2.0 \, cal mol^{-1} \, K^{-1}\)):

  • (1) -413.14 calories
  • (2) 413.14 calories
  • (3) 100 calories
  • (4) 0 calorie

Question 98:

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI.

A. Al\(^{3+}\)

B. Cu\(^{2+}\)

C. Ba\(^{2+}\)

D. Co\(^{2+}\)

E. Mg\(^{2+}\)

  • (1) B, C, A, D, E
  • (2) E, C, D, B, A
  • (3) E, A, B, C, D
  • (4) B, A, D, C, E

Question 99:

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation. Given \(R = 8.314 \, J K^{-1} \, mol^{-1}\), \(log_4\) = 0.6021

  • (1) 380.4 kJ/mol
  • (2) 3.80 kJ/mol
  • (3) 3804 kJ/mol
  • (4) 38.04 kJ/mol

Question 100:

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and the remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is: (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)

  • (1) \(ABC_3\)
  • (2) \(AB_2C_2\)
  • (3) \(ABC_4\)
  • (4) \(A_2BC_2\)

Question 101:

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

  • (1) Metaphase
  • (2) Anaphase
  • (3) Telophase
  • (4) Prophase

Question 102:

Bulliform cells are responsible for

  • (1) Protecting the plant from salt stress.
  • (2) Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
  • (3) Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
  • (4) Inward curling of leaves in monocots.

Question 103:

The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

  • (1) Micropropagation
  • (2) Differentiation
  • (3) Somatic hybridization
  • (4) Totipotency

Question 104:

A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and downstream ends;

  • (1) Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
  • (2) Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
  • (3) Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
  • (4) Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene

Question 105:

Match List I with List II





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 106:

Match List I with List II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 107:

Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence, and it consists of:

  • (1) 6 bp
  • (2) 4 bp
  • (3) 10 bp
  • (4) 8 bp

Question 108:

In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

  • (1) bb
  • (2) Bb
  • (3) BB/Bb
  • (4) BB

Question 109:

These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:

A. Over exploitation

B. Co-extinction

C. Mutation

D. Habitat loss and fragmentation

E. Migration

Choose the correct option:

  • (1) A, B, C and D only
  • (2) A, B and E only
  • (3) A, B and D only
  • (4) A, C and D only

Question 110:

How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO₂ fixed in the Calvin cycle?

  • (1) 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • (2) 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
  • (3) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • (4) 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

Question 111:

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

A. Out of one pair of factors, one is dominant and the other is recessive.

B. Alleles do not show any expression, and both the characters appear as such in F2 generation.

C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.

D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.

E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, C, D and E only
  • (2) B, C and D only
  • (3) A, B, C, D and E
  • (4) A, B and C only

Question 112:

List of endangered species was released by

  • (1) WWF
  • (2) FOAM
  • (3) IUCN
  • (4) GEAC

Question 113:

Tropical regions show the greatest level of species richness because

A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.

B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.

C. More solar energy is available in tropics.

D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.

E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) A, B and E only
  • (3) A, B and D only
  • (4) A, C, D and E only

Question 114:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Question 115:

Which of the following is an example of an actinomorphic flower?

  • (1) Cassia
  • (2) Pisum
  • (3) Sesbania
  • (4) Datura

Question 116:

Identify the set of correct statements:

A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar.

B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated by water.

C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.

D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon-like.

E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C and D only
  • (2) A, C, D and E only
  • (3) B, C, D and E only
  • (4) C, D and E only

Question 117:

What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only the gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?

  • (A) The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
    (B) It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
    (C) It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
    (D) The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of the chromosome.
    (E) It shows the ability to replicate.

Question 118:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parenchyma is living, but collenchyma is dead tissue.

Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels, but the presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 119:

Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example of

  • (1) Redifferentiation
  • (2) Dedifferentiation
  • (3) Maturation
  • (4) Differentiation

Question 120:

Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?

  • (1) Mode of nutrition
  • (2) Mode of spore formation
  • (3) Fruiting body
  • (4) Morphology of mycelium

Question 121:

The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

  • (1) Niacin
  • (2) Flavin
  • (3) Haem
  • (4) Zinc

Question 122:

Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin

  • (1) promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
  • (2) does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
  • (3) can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
  • (4) promotes apical dominance.

Question 123:

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

  • (1) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
  • (2) Only pink flowered plants
  • (3) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
  • (4) Only red flowered plants

Question 124:

Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
A. Light

B. Chlorophyll

C. CO₂

D. ATP

E. NADPH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, C and D only
  • (2) C, D and E only
  • (3) D and E only
  • (4) A, B and C only

Question 125:

Match List I with List II







Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Question 126:

The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of

  • (1) Acetylase
  • (2) Permease
  • (3) Polymerase
  • (4) Beta-galactosidase

Question 127:

The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is \[ \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( 1 - \frac{N}{K} \right) \]
From this equation, \( K \) indicates:

  • (1) Biotic potential
  • (2) Carrying capacity
  • (3) Population density
  • (4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

Question 128:

Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

  • (1) Feedback inhibition
  • (2) Competitive inhibition
  • (3) Enzyme activation
  • (4) Cofactor inhibition

Question 129:

The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special settings where they can be protected and given special care is called

  • (1) Biodiversity conservation
  • (2) Semi-conservative method
  • (3) Sustainable development
  • (4) In-situ conservation

Question 130:

Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla, and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)


  • (1) (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
  • (2) (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
  • (3) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
  • (4) (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous

Question 131:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.

Statement II: Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect, the inactive protoxin gets converted into the active form due to the acidic pH of the insect gut.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 132:

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

  • (1) Phospholipids
  • (2) Glycerides
  • (3) Carbohydrates
  • (4) Amino acids

Question 133:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during the leptotene stage.

Statement II: The beginning of the diplotene stage is recognized by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 134:

Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form the root when the seed germinates.


  • (1) B
  • (2) C
  • (3) D
  • (4) A

Question 135:

In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?


  • (1) D
  • (2) A
  • (3) B
  • (4) C

Question 136:

Match List-I with List-II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 137:

Match List I with List II





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 138:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Question 139:

Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators increases the length of stem, thus, increasing the yield?

  • (1) Gibberellin
  • (2) Cytokinin
  • (3) Abscisic acid
  • (4) Auxin

Question 140:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 141:

In an ecosystem, if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of the first trophic level is 100x (kcal m–2 yr–1), what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?

  • (1) \( x \, kcal m^{-2} \, yr^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 10x \, kcal m^{-2} \, yr^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 100x \, kcal m^{-2} \, yr^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 10x \, kcal m^{-2} \, yr^{-1} \)

Question 142:

Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.

  • (1) Succinic acid → Malic acid
  • (2) Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
  • (3) Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid
  • (4) Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid

Question 143:

Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

  • (1) Somatic embryos
  • (2) Protoplasts
  • (3) Pollens
  • (4) Callus

Question 144:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Question 145:

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:

In the members of Phaeophyceae,

A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.
B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.
C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.
D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.
E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, C, D and E only
  • (2) A, C, D and E only
  • (3) A, B, C and E only
  • (4) A, B, C and D only

Question 146:

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E. coli?

  • (1) The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5’ → 3’
  • (2) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ as well as 3’ → 5’ direction
  • (3) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ direction
  • (4) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3’ → 5’

Question 147:

The DNA present in chloroplast is:

  • (1) Circular, double-stranded
  • (2) Linear, single-stranded
  • (3) Circular, single-stranded
  • (4) Linear, double-stranded

Question 148:

Identify the correct description about the given figure:


  • (1) Water-pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
  • (2) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
  • (3) Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy
  • (4) Wind-pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well-exposed stamens.

Question 149:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In C3 plants, some O2 binds to RuBisCO, hence CO2 fixation is decreased.

Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 150:

Match List I with List II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 151:

Three types of muscles are given as a, b, and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in the human body:




Name of muscle/location

  • (1) (a) Skeletal - Triceps
          (b) Smooth – Stomach
         (c) Cardiac – Heart
  • (2) (a) Skeletal - Biceps
         (b) Involuntary – Intestine
         (c) Smooth – Heart
  • (3) (a) Involuntary – Nose tip
         (b) Skeletal – Bone
        (c) Cardiac – Heart
  • (4) (a) Smooth - Toes
        (b) Skeletal – Legs
        (c) Cardiac – Heart

Question 152:

Following are the stages of the pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:
A. AV bundle \quad B. Purkinje fibres \quad C. AV node \quad D. Bundle branches \quad E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of the pathway from the options given below:

  • (1) A-E-C-B-D
  • (2) B-D-E-C-A
  • (3) E-A-D-B-C
  • (4) E-C-A-D-B

Question 153:

Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

  • (1) Genetic drift
  • (2) Gene migration
  • (3) Constant gene pool
  • (4) Genetic recombination

Question 154:

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (1) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
  • (2) Bio-reactors are used to produce small-scale bacterial cultures
  • (3) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, and foam control system
  • (4) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product

Question 155:

Which one is the correct product of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase to the given template?
3’TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5’

  • (1) 5’AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3’
  • (2) 5’AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU3’
  • (3) 5’ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3’
  • (4) 5’AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3’

Question 156:

Match List I with List II

 



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 157:

Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?

A. Myasthenia gravis

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Gout

D. Muscular dystrophy

E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B & E only
  • (2) B, C & E only
  • (3) C, D & E only
  • (4) A, B & D only

Question 158:

Match List I with List II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 159:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.

Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 160:

Match List I with List
II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Question 161:

Match List I with List II:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 162:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 163:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Question 164:

Following are the stages of cell division:

A. Gap 2 phase

B. Cytokinesis

C. Synthesis phase

D. Karyokinesis

E. Gap 1 phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below:

  • (1) E-B-D-A-C
  • (2) B-D-E-A-C
  • (3) E-C-A-D-B
  • (4) C-E-D-A-B

Question 165:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 166:

Match List I with List II:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 167:

Match List I with List II:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 168:

Match List I with List II:







Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Question 169:

The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of:

  • (1) Natural selection
  • (2) Convergent evolution
  • (3) Divergent evolution
  • (4) Adaptive radiation

Question 170:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby.

Reason R: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the newborn baby.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (3) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 171:

Which of the following is not a component of the Fallopian tube?

  • (1) Isthmus
  • (2) Infundibulum
  • (3) Ampulla
  • (4) Uterine fundus

Question 172:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 173:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Question 174:

Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent)
A. Homo habilis

B. Homo sapiens

C. Homo neanderthalensis

D. Homo erectus
Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:

  • (1) B-A-D-C
  • (2) C-B-D-A
  • (3) A-D-C-B
  • (4) D-A-C-B

Question 175:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.

Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 176:

Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

  • (1) Testosterone
  • (2) Progesterone
  • (3) Glucagon
  • (4) Cortisol

Question 177:

Consider the following statements:

A. Annelids are true coelomates.

B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates.

C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates.

D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A only
  • (2) C only
  • (3) D only
  • (4) B only

Question 178:

Match List I with List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 179:

Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

  • (1) High pO2 and Lesser H+ concentration
  • (2) Low pCO2 and High H+ concentration
  • (3) Low pCO2 and High temperature
  • (4) High pO2 and High pCO2

Question 180:

In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on:

  • (1) 10th segment
  • (2) 8th and 9th segment
  • (3) 11th segment
  • (4) 5th segment

Question 181:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 182:

The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for:

  • (1) Tumor independent plasmid
  • (2) Tumor inducing plasmid
  • (3) Temperature independent plasmid
  • (4) Tumor inhibiting plasmid

Question 183:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.

Reason R: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 184:

The following diagram shows restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ genes:


  • (1) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
  • (2) The gene ‘X’ is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and ‘Y’ for resistance to antibiotics.
  • (3) Gene ’X’ is responsible for recognition sites and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
  • (4) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.

Question 185:

Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

  • (1) Periodic abstinence
  • (2) Lactational amenorrhea
  • (3) Vaults
  • (4) Coitus interruptus

Question 186:

Match List I with List II:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 187:

Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.


  • (1) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
  • (2) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.
  • (3) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
  • (4) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis.

Question 188:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both are double-membrane bound organelles.

Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to chloroplast.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 189:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.

Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Question 190:

Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps:

A. Substrate-enzyme complex formation.

B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.

C. Release of products.

D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.

E. Substrate binding to active site.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, E, B, D, C
  • (2) B, A, C, D, E
  • (3) E, D, C, B, A
  • (4) E, A, D, C, B

Question 191:

Match List I with List II:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Question 192:

Match List I with List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 193:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a nerve tract known as corpus callosum.

Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 194:

Match List I with List II related to digestive system of cockroach:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 195:

Match List I with List II:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Question 196:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide microenvironments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 197:

Match List I with List II:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Question 198:

Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron:

  • (1) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
  • (2) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
  • (3) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
  • (4) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.

Question 199:

As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+. Their respective genotype can be:


  • (1) B only
  • (2) C \& B only
  • (3) D \& E only
  • (4) A only

Question 200:

The following are the statements about non-chordates:

A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.

B. Notochord is absent.

C. Central nervous system is dorsal.

D. Heart is dorsal if present.

E. Post anal tail is absent.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B & D only
  • (2) B, D & E only
  • (3) B, C & D only
  • (4) A & C only


NEET Previous Year Question Papers with Answer Keys

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