NEET 2024 Question paper with answer key pdf S2 is available for download. NEET 2024 S2 question paper has been conducted by the NTA on May 5, 2024, in pen-paper mode. NEET 2024 question paper code S2 consists of 200 MCQs- 180 to be attempted in 200 minutes. Each of the 4 subjects (Zoology, Botany, Chemistry, Physics) in NEET S2 question paper 2023 have 50 MCQs (45 to be attempted). You can download NEET 2024 question paper with answer key with solutions PDF for S2 using the links given below.

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PHYSICS 
SECTION –A

Question 1:

A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block \( A \) as shown in the figure. The mass of blocks \( A \) and \( B \) are 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block \( A \) on block \( B \) is:


  • (1) \( 10 \) N
  • (2) \( 0 \)
  • (3) \( 4 \) N
  • (4) \( 6 \) N

Question 2:

In the nuclear emission process:

29082X → α + Z80P + β- + e+ + AYQ

The mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are:

  1. 288, 82
  2. 286, 81
  3. 280, 81
  4. 286, 80
Correct Answer: (2) 286, 81
View Solution

Question 3:

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer:
IV Quadrant
[A.] For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lie in the IV quadrant of the given graph.
[B.] In a reverse biased \( pn \) junction diode, the current measured in (\(\mu A\)), is due to majority charge carriers.

  • (1) Both A and B are incorrect
  • (2) A is correct but B is incorrect
  • (3) A is incorrect but B is correct
  • (4) Both A and B are correct

Question 4:

At any instant of time \( t \), the displacement of any particle is given by \( 2t - 1 \) (SI unit) under the influence of a force of \( 5 \) N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):

  • (1) \( 6 \)
  • (2) \( 10 \)
  • (3) \( 5 \)
  • (4) \( 7 \)

Question 5:

A wire of length \( l \) and resistance \( 100 \, \Omega \) is divided into \( 10 \) equal parts. The first \( 5 \) parts are connected in series while the next \( 5 \) parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

  • (1) \( 60 \, \Omega \)
  • (2) \( 26 \, \Omega \)
  • (3) \( 52 \, \Omega \)
  • (4) \( 55 \, \Omega \)

Question 6:

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle \( abcd \). The work done by the gas along the path \( bc \) is:


  • (1) \( -60 \) J
  • (2) \( Zero \)
  • (3) \( 30 \) J
  • (4) \( -90 \) J

Question 7:

A tightly wound 100-turns coil of radius \( 10 \) cm carries a current of \( 7 \) A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as \( 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \) SI units):

  • (1) \( 44 \) T
  • (2) \( 44 \) mT
  • (3) \( 4.4 \) T
  • (4) \( 4.4 \) mT

Question 8:

The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is \( 10 \) V and internal resistance \( 1 \, \Omega \), when connected through an external resistance of \( 4 \, \Omega \) as shown in the figure is:
Circuit Diagram

  • (1) \( 10 \) V
  • (2) \( 4 \) V
  • (3) \( 6 \) V
  • (4) \( 8 \) V

Question 9:

A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:

  • (1) Varying velocity and varying acceleration
  • (2) Constant velocity
  • (3) Constant acceleration
  • (4) Constant velocity but varying acceleration

Question 10:

A thin flat circular disc of radius \( 4.5 \) cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If the surface tension of water is \( 0.07 \) N m\(^{-1}\), then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:

  • (1) \( 99 \) N
  • (2) \( 19.8 \) mN
  • (3) \( 198 \) N
  • (4) \( 1.98 \) mN

Question 11:

The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

  • (1) Angular speed and stress
  • (2) Strain and angle
  • (3) Stress and angle
  • (4) Strain and arc

Question 12:

A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the following truth table:

A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 1
1 1 0

The expression for the output Y is:

  1. B
  2. ¬B
  3. AB + A
  4. ¬AB + A
Correct Answer: (2) ¬B
View Solution

Question 13:

A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points \( C \) and \( P \) (in V) shown in the figure is:


\text{(Take \frac{1{4\pi \varepsilon_0 = 9 \times 10^9 \text{ SI units)


  • (1) Zero
  • (2) \( 3 \times 10^5 \)
  • (3) \( 1 \times 10^5 \)
  • (4) \( 0.5 \times 10^5 \)

Question 14:

Match List I with List II.

List I

(Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for transitions from)

List II

(Wavelengths (nm))

n₂ = 3 to n₁ = 2 410.2 nm
n₂ = 4 to n₁ = 2 434.1 nm
n₂ = 5 to n₁ = 2 656.3 nm
n₂ = 6 to n₁ = 2 486.1 nm
  1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
View Solution

Question 18:

Match List-I with List-II.

List I (Material) List II (Susceptibility (χ))
A. Diamagnetic I. χ = 0
B. Ferromagnetic II. 0 > χ ≥ −1
C. Paramagnetic III. χ > 1
D. Non-magnetic IV. 0 < χ < ε (a small positive number)
  1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
View Solution

Question 16:

Two bodies \( A \) and \( B \) of same mass undergo completely inelastic one-dimensional collision. The body \( A \) moves with velocity \( v_1 \) while body \( B \) is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is \( v_2 \). The ratio \( v_1 : v_2 \) is:

  • (1) \( 1 : 4 \)
  • (2) \( 1 : 2 \)
  • (3) \( 2 : 1 \)
  • (4) \( 4 : 1 \)

Question 17:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges.

Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the \textit{most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 18:

If
\[ x = 5 \sin \left( \pi t + \frac{\pi}{3} \right) m \]

represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are:

  • (1) \( 5 \) m, \( 1 \) s
  • (2) \( 5 \) cm, \( 2 \) s
  • (3) \( 5 \) m, \( 2 \) s
  • (4) \( 5 \) cm, \( 1 \) s

Question 19:

The output (Y) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a


  • (1) AND gate
  • (2) NAND gate
  • (3) NOR gate
  • (4) OR gate

Question 20:

In a vernier callipers, \( (N + 1) \) divisions of the vernier scale coincide with \( N \) divisions of the main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:

  • (1) \( 10(N + 1) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{10N} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{100(N + 1)} \)
  • (4) \( 100N \)

Question 21:

A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of \( \omega \) rpm. The tension in the string is \( T \). If speed becomes \( 2\omega \) while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{2}T \)
  • (2) \( T \)
  • (3) \( 4T \)
  • (4) \( \frac{T}{4} \)

Question 22:

If \( c \) is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are:


[A.] The energy of a photon is \( E = h\nu \).
[B.] The velocity of a photon is \( c \).
[C.] The momentum of a photon, \( p = \frac{h\nu}{c} \).
[D.] In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.
[E.] Photon possesses positive charge.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, D and E only
  • (2) A and B only
  • (3) A, B, C and D only
  • (4) A, C and D only

Question 23:



In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:

  • (1) \( BA \) and \( DC \)
  • (2) \( AB \) and \( DC \)
  • (3) \( BA \) and \( CD \)
  • (4) \( AB \) and \( CD \)

Question 24:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The potential \( V \) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (\( r \)) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector \( \vec{P} \) of magnitude, \( 4 \times 10^{-6} \) C m, is \( \pm 9 \times 10^3 \) V.
\[ \left( Take \frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 SI units \right) \]

Reason R:
\[ V = \pm \frac{2P}{4\pi \varepsilon_0 r^2} \]

where \( r \) is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is false but R is true.
  • (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (4) A is true but R is false.

Question 25:

The mass of a planet is \( \frac{1}{10} \)th that of the Earth and its diameter is half that of the Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

  • (1) \( 3.92 m s^{-2} \)
  • (2) \( 19.6 m s^{-2} \)
  • (3) \( 9.8 m s^{-2} \)
  • (4) \( 4.9 m s^{-2} \)

Question 26:

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is
\[ \frac{N_P}{N_S} = \frac{1}{2} \]

The ratio \( V_S : V_P \) is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning):

  • (1) \( 1:4 \)
  • (2) \( 1:2 \)
  • (3) \( 2:1 \)
  • (4) \( 1:1 \)

Question 27:

If the monochromatic source in Young’s double-slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:

  • (1) All bright fringes will be of equal width
  • (2) Interference pattern will disappear
  • (3) There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
  • (4) There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes

Question 28:

The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young’s modulus, respectively, are \( 8 \times 10^8 \) N m\(^{-2}\) and \( 2 \times 10^{11} \) N m\(^{-2}\), is:

  • (1) \( 8 \) mm
  • (2) \( 4 \) mm
  • (3) \( 0.4 \) mm
  • (4) \( 40 \) mm

Question 29:

An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then:

  • (1) The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
  • (2) The reflected light will be partially polarised.
  • (3) The refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • (4) Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.

Question 30:

In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is \( 9.8 \times 10^{-6} \) kg m\(^2\). If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is \( x \times 10^{-5} \) Am\(^2\), then the value of ‘\( x \)’ is:


  • (1) \( 1280\pi^2 \)
  • (2) \( 5\pi^2 \)
  • (3) \( 128\pi^2 \)
  • (4) \( 50\pi^2 \)

Question 31:

A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at point \( P \) with the angle of incidence \( 30^\circ \) as shown in figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base \( BC \) and emerges along the face \( AC \). The refractive index of the prism is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\sqrt{5}}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{5}}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \)

Question 32:

The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid-point and perpendicular to the rod is 2400 g cm\(^2\). The length of the 400 g rod is nearly:

  • (1) \( 72.0 \) cm
  • (2) \( 8.5 \) cm
  • (3) \( 17.5 \) cm
  • (4) \( 20.7 \) cm

Question 33:

In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is:


  • (1) \( 4 \,\mu F \)
  • (2) \( 2 \,\mu F \)
  • (3) \( 1 \,\mu F \)
  • (4) \( 0.5 \,\mu F \)

Question 34:

A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is \( v \) in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct ( \( P \) and \( Q \) are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?

  • (1) Point \( P \) has zero speed
  • (2) Point \( P \) moves slower than point \( Q \)
  • (3) Point \( P \) moves faster than point \( Q \)
  • (4) Both the points \( P \) and \( Q \) move with equal speed

Question 35:

The graph which shows the variation of \( \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \) and its kinetic energy, \( E \), is (where \( \lambda \) is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):


Question 36:

A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is:

  • (1) \( 32 \)
  • (2) \( 34 \)
  • (3) \( 28 \)
  • (4) \( 17 \)

Question 37:

The following graph represents the \( T \)-\( V \) curves of an ideal gas (where \( T \) is the temperature and \( V \) the volume) at three pressures \( P_1, P_2 \) and \( P_3 \) compared with those of Charles’s law represented as dotted lines.





Then the correct relation is:

  • (1) \( P_1 > P_2 > P_3 \)
  • (2) \( P_3 > P_2 > P_1 \)
  • (3) \( P_1 > P_3 > P_2 \)
  • (4) \( P_2 > P_1 > P_3 \)

Question 38:

If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is \( \frac{x}{2} \) times its original time period. Then the value of \( x \) is:

  • (1) \( 4 \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{3} \)

Question 39:

Two heaters A and B have power ratings of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. These two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

  • (1) \( 2:3 \)
  • (2) \( 1:1 \)
  • (3) \( 2:9 \)
  • (4) \( 1:2 \)

Question 40:

A force defined by \( F = \alpha t^2 + \beta t \) acts on a particle at a given time \( t \). The factor which is dimensionless, if \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are constants, is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\alpha \beta}{t} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\beta t}{\alpha} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\alpha t}{\beta} \)
  • (4) \( \alpha \beta t \)

Question 41:

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then:


[A.] The charge stored in it increases.
[B.] The energy stored in it decreases.
[C.] Its capacitance increases.
[D.] The ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
[E.] The product of charge and voltage increases.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) A, B and E only
  • (3) A, C and E only
  • (4) B, D and E only

Question 42:

An iron bar of length \( L \) has magnetic moment \( M \). It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle \( 60^\circ \) with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:

  • (1) \( \frac{M}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (2) \( M \)
  • (3) \( \frac{M}{2} \)
  • (4) \( 2M \)

Question 43:

A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to:


[A.] Hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.
[B.] Hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.
[C.] Move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.
[D.] Move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar.


Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

  • (1) C only
  • (2) B and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) A, C and D only

Question 44:

A \(10 \, \mu F\) capacitor is connected to a \(210 \,V\), \(50 \,Hz\) source as shown in the figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (\(\pi = 3.14\)):


  • (1) \( 0.35 \,A \)
  • (2) \( 0.58 \,A \)
  • (3) \( 0.93 \,A \)
  • (4) \( 1.20 \,A \)

Question 45:

A metallic bar of Young’s modulus, \( 0.5 \times 10^{11} \,N \, m^{-2} \) and coefficient of linear thermal expansion \( 10^{-5} \,^{\circ}C^{-1} \), length \( 1 \,m \) and area of cross-section \( 10^{-3} \,m^2 \) is heated from \( 0^{\circ}C \) to \( 100^{\circ}C \) without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

  • (1) \( 2 \times 10^3 \, N \)
  • (2) \( 5 \times 10^3 \, N \)
  • (3) \( 50 \times 10^3 \, N \)
  • (4) \( 100 \times 10^3 \, N \)

Question 46:

The velocity (\( v \)) – time (\( t \)) plot of the motion of a body is shown below:





The acceleration (\( a \)) – time (\( t \)) graph that best suits this motion is:


Question 47:

Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.


Question 48:

The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that:

  • (1) They originate from charges moving with uniform speed
  • (2) They are transverse in nature
  • (3) The energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field
  • (4) They travel with a speed equal to \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}} \)

Question 49:

The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass \( m \) from the surface of earth of mass \( M \) and radius \( R \) in a circular orbit at an altitude of \( 2R \) from the surface of the earth is:

  • (1) \( \frac{GmM}{3R} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5GmM}{6R} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2GmM}{3R} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{GmM}{2R} \)

Question 50:

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If \( I \) is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

  • (1) Displacement current of magnitude greater than \( I \) flows but can be in any direction
  • (2) There is no current
  • (3) Displacement current of magnitude equal to \( I \) flows in the same direction as \( I \)
  • (4) Displacement current of magnitude equal to \( I \) flows in a direction opposite to that of \( I \)

Question 51:

Match List I with List II.

List I (Conversion) List II (Number of Faraday required)
A. 1 mol of H₂O to O₂ I. 3F
B. 1 mol of MnO₄⁻ to Mn²⁺ II. 2F
C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaCl₂ III. 1F
D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe₂O₃ IV. 5F

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  4. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-II

SECTION-B

Question 51:

Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence are:

    1.Reaction Sequence

  1. Reaction Sequence
  2. Reaction Sequence
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 52:

The highest number of helium atoms is in:

  • (1) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
  • (2) 4 mol of helium
  • (3) 4 u of helium
  • (4) 4 g of helium

Question 53:

Which plot of \( \ln k \) vs \( \frac{1}{T} \) is consistent with the Arrhenius equation?

Arrhenius Plots
Question 54:

For the reaction \( 2A \rightleftharpoons B + C \), \( K_C = 4 \times 10^{-3} \). At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is:
\[ [A] = [B] = [C] = 2 \times 10^{-3} M. \]

Then, which of the following is correct?

  • (1) Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
  • (2) Reaction is at equilibrium.
  • (3) Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
  • (4) Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.

Question 55:

Match List I with List II.

List I (Complex) List II (Type of Isomerism)
A. [Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]Cl₄ I. Solvate Isomerism
B. [Co(NH₃)₅(SO₄)]Br II. Linkage Isomerism
C. [Co(NH₃)₆][Cr(CN)₆] III. Ionization Isomerism
D. [Co(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ IV. Coordination Isomerism
  1. A-I, B-V, C-III, D-II
  2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  4. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Question 56:

A compound with a molecular formula of C\(_6\)H\(_{14}\) has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

  • (1) 2,2-dimethylbutane
  • (2) n-hexane
  • (3) 2-methylpentane
  • (4) 2,3-dimethylbutane

Question 57:

Match List I with List II.

List I (Quantum Number) List II (Information provided)
A. ml I. Shape of orbital
B. ms II. Size of orbital
C. l III. Orientation of orbital
D. n IV. Orientation of spin of electron
  1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-I
  2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Question 58:

‘Spin only’ magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions?

A. Ti\(^{3+}\) & [Ar] 3d\(^1\)

B. Cr\(^{2+}\) & [Ar] 3d\(^4\)

C. Mn\(^{2+}\) & [Ar] 3d\(^5\)

D. Fe\(^{2+}\) & [Ar] 3d\(^6\)

E. Sc\(^{3+}\) & [Ar] 3d\(^0\)


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) A and D only
  • (2) B and D only
  • (3) A and E only
  • (4) B and C only

Question 59:

Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?


Question 60:

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity:

N, O, F, C, Si

\te

  • (1)  F < O < N < C < Si
  • (2)  Si < C < N < O < F
  • (3) Si < C < O < N < F
  • (4)  O < F < N < C < Si

Question 61:

In which of the following processes entropy increases?


[A.] A liquid evaporates to vapour.
[B.] Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K.
[C.] \( 2NaHCO_3(s) \rightarrow Na_2CO_3(s) + CO_2(g) + H_2O(g) \)
[D.] \( Cl_2(g) \rightarrow 2Cl(g) \)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1)  C and D
  • (2) A and C
  • (3)  A, B and D
  • (4) A, C and D

Question 62:

The most stable carbocation among the following is:


Question 63:

The energy of an electron in the ground state (\(n = 1\)) for He\textsuperscript{+ ion is \( -x \) J, then that for an electron in \( n = 2 \) state for Be\textsuperscript{3+ ion in J is:

  • (1)  \( \frac{4}{9} x \)
  • (2) \( -x \)
  • (3)  \( \frac{x}{9} \)
  • (4)  \( -4x \)

Question 64:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order
\[ n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane \]

Statement II: When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of a sphere. This results in a smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1)  Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (2)  Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (3)  Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4)  Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 65:

Match List I with List II.

List I (Compound) & List II (Shape/geometry)

A. & \text{NH_3 & I. & \text{Trigonal Pyramidal}

B. & \text{BrF_5 & II. & \text{Square Planar}

C. & \text{XeF_4 & III. & \text{Octahedral}

D. & \text{SF_6 & IV. & \text{Square Pyramidal}

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1)  A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (2)  A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • (3)  A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4)  A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 66:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follows the order \[ H_2O > H_2Te > H_2Se > H_2S. \]

Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, H\(_2\)O is expected to have a lower boiling point than the other members of the group, but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H\(_2\)O, it has a higher boiling point.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (3)  Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Question 67:

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy:

Li, Be, B, C, N


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Li < Be < N < B < C
  • (2) Li < Be < B < C < N
  • (3)  Li < B < Be < C < N
  • (4)  Li < Be < C < B < N

Question 68:

Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \quad (i) \, H\(_2\)O / H\(^+\)
  • (2) \quad (i) \, H\(_2\)O / H\(^+\)
  • (3) \quad (i) \, BH\(_3\)
  • (4) \quad (i) \, BH\(_3\)

Question 69:

Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of

  • (1) \quad rate constant at two different temperatures
  • (2) \quad rate constant at standard temperature
  • (3) \quad probability of collision
  • (4) \quad orientation of reactant molecules during collision

Question 70:

On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as

  • (1) \quad Chromatography
  • (2) \quad Crystallization
  • (3) \quad Sublimation
  • (4) \quad Distillation

Question 71:

Among Group 16 elements, which one does \textbf{NOT} show -2 oxidation state?

  • (1) \quad Po
  • (2) \quad O
  • (3) \quad Se
  • (4) \quad Te

Question 72:

Match List I with List II.


List-I (Process) \hspace{4cm} List-II (Conditions)



\begin{tabular{|c|l|c|l|
\hline
List-I & Process & List-II & Conditions

\hline
A & Isothermal process & II & Carried out at constant temperature

B & Isochoric process & III & Carried out at constant volume

C & Isobaric process & IV & Carried out at constant pressure

D & Adiabatic process & I & No heat exchange

\hline
\end{tabular


Question 73:

Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?


Given reactions:



\begin{tabular{rl

  • (1) & BaCl\(_2\) + Na\(_2\)SO\(_4\) \(\rightarrow\) BaSO\(_4\) + 2NaCl
  • (2) & Zn + CuSO\(_4\) \(\rightarrow\) ZnSO\(_4\) + Cu
  • (3) & 2KClO\(_3\) + I\(_2\) \(\rightarrow\) 2KIO\(_3\) + Cl\(_2\)
  • (4) & H\(_2\) + Cl\(_2\) \(\rightarrow\) 2HCl
    \end{tabular}

Question 74:

The Henry’s law constant (K\(_H\)) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, 2 × 10\(^{-5}\) and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:

\begin{tabular{rl

  • (1) & A \(>\) B \(>\) C
  • (2) & B \(>\) A \(>\) C
  • (3) & B \(>\) C \(>\) A
  • (4) & A \(>\) C \(>\) B
    \end{tabular}

Question 75:

Match List I with List II.




Question 76:

In which of the following equilibria, \( K_p \) and \( K_c \) are NOT equal?

  • (1) & \( 2BrCl_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons Br_2{(g)} + Cl_2{(g)} \)
  • (2) & \( PCl_5{(g)} \rightleftharpoons PCl_3{(g)} + Cl_2{(g)} \)
  • (3) & \( H_2{(g)} + I_2{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2HI_{(g)} \)
  • (4) & \( CO{(g)} + H_2O{(g)} \rightleftharpoons CO_2{(g)} + H_2{(g)} \)

Question 77:

Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in



Question 78:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Both [Co(NH\textsubscript{3)\textsubscript{6]\textsuperscript{3+ and [CoF\textsubscript{6]\textsuperscript{3- complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour.

Statement II: [Co(NH\textsubscript{3)\textsubscript{6]\textsuperscript{3+ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF\textsubscript{6]\textsuperscript{3- is paramagnetic.


Question 79:

The compound that will undergo S\textsubscript{N}1 reaction with the fastest rate is:



Question 80:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.

Statement II: Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.


Question 81:

1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to:

  • (A) \( 200 \) mg
  • (B) \( 750 \) mg
  • (C) \( 250 \) mg
  • (D) \( Zero mg \)

Question 82:

The \( E^\circ \) value for the \( Mn^{3+}/Mn^{2+} \) couple is more positive than that of \( Cr^{3+}/Cr^{2+} \) or \( Fe^{3+}/Fe^{2+} \) due to change of:

  • (A) \( d^3 to d^5 \) configuration
  • (B) \( d^5 to d^4 \) configuration
  • (C) \( d^5 to d^2 \) configuration
  • (D) \( d^4 to d^5 \) configuration

Question 83:

The reagents with which glucose does \textbf{not} react to give the corresponding tests/products are:

  • (A) Tollen’s reagent
  • (B) Schiff’s reagent
  • (C) HCN
  • (D) \( NH_2OH \)
  • (E) \( NaHSO_3 \)
    Choose the correct options from the given below:
  • (1) E and D
  • (2) B and C
  • (3) A and D
  • (4) B and E

Question 84:

Match List I with List II.
List I (Molecule) & List II (Number and types of bonds between two carbon atoms)

A. & Ethane & I. & One \(\sigma\)-bond and two \(\pi\)-bonds

B. & Ethene & II. & Two \(\pi\)-bonds

C. & Carbon molecule, C\(_2\) & III. & One \(\sigma\)-bond

D. & Ethyne & IV. & One \(\sigma\)-bond and one \(\pi\)-bond

 

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) \textbf{A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I}

Question 85:

Fehling’s solution ‘A’ is

  • (1) Aqueous sodium citrate
  • (2) \textbf{Aqueous copper sulphate}
  • (3) Alkaline copper sulphate
  • (4) Alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)

Question 86:

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI.




A. \( Al^{3+} \)
B. \( Cu^{2+} \)
C. \( Ba^{2+} \)
D. \( Co^{2+} \)
E. \( Mg^{2+} \)

  • (A) \( E, A, B, C, D \)
  • (B) \( B, A, D, C, E \)
  • (C) \( B, C, A, D, E \)
  • (D) \( E, C, D, B, A \)

Question 87:

Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence are:


Question 88:

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from \(27^\circ C\) to \(57^\circ C\). Calculate the energy of activation.
\( R = 8.314 \) J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\)
\(\log 4 = 0.6021\)

  • (1) \(3804\) kJ/mol
  • (2) \(\mathbf{38.04}\) kJ/mol
  • (3) \(380.4\) kJ/mol
  • (4) \(3.80\) kJ/mol

Question 89:

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is (Given: Molar mass of Cu = 63 g mol\(^{-1}\), 1 F = 96487 C).

  • (1) \(0.0315\) g
  • (2) \(3.15\) g
  • (3) \(\mathbf{0.315}\) g
  • (4) \(31.5\) g

Question 90:

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:

  • (1) \(\alpha\)-bromobutanoic acid
  • (2) \(\mathbf{propylamine}\)
  • (3) butylamine
  • (4) butanamide

Question 91:

The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at \( 25^\circ C \) from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is
% Given data
Given:
\( R = 2.0 \) cal K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\)

  • (1) \(100\) calories
  • (2) \(0\) calorie
  • (3) \(\mathbf{-413.14}\) calories
  • (4) \(413.14\) calories

Question 92:

Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of
N_2 = 3.0 \times 10^{-3 M, \quad \text{O_2 = 4.2 \times 10^{-3 M, \quad \text{NO = 2.8 \times 10^{-3 M.
2\text{NO_{(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{N_2{(g) + \text{O_2{(g)
If \(0.1\) mol L\(^{-1\) of NO\(_{(g)}\) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be the degree of dissociation (\(\alpha\)) of NO\(_{(g)}\) at equilibrium?

  • (1) \(0.717\)
  • (2) \(0.00889\)
  • (3) \(0.0889\)
  • (4) \(0.8889\)

Question 93:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) is a homoleptic complex whereas \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^{+}\) is a heteroleptic complex.

\smallskip

Statement II: Complex \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) has only one kind of ligand but \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^{+}\) has more than one kind of ligand.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \quad Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (2) \quad Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (3) \quad Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (4) \quad Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Question 94:

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is:

  • (1) \quad \(Pm^{3+}\) and \(Sm^{3+}\)
  • (2) \quad \(Ce^{4+}\) and \(Yb^{2+}\)
  • (3) \quad \(Ce^{3+}\) and \(Eu^{2+}\)
  • (4) \quad \(Gd^{3+}\) and \(Eu^{3+}\)

Question 95:

During the preparation of Mohr’s salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acids is added to prevent hydrolysis of \(Fe^{2+}\) ion?

  • (1) \quad dilute sulphuric acid
  • (2) \quad dilute hydrochloric acid
  • (3) \quad concentrated sulphuric acid
  • (4) \quad dilute nitric acid

Question 96:

The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are:


3ROH + PCl_3 \rightarrow 3RCl + A


ROH + PCl_5 \rightarrow RCl + HCl + B

  • (1) \quad \( H_3PO_3 \) and \( POCl_3 \)
  • (2) \quad \( POCl_3 \) and \( H_3PO_3 \)
  • (3) \quad \( POCl_3 \) and \( H_3PO_4 \)
  • (4) \quad \( H_3PO_4 \) and \( POCl_3 \)

Question 97:

For the given reaction:



Question 98:

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and the remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is:


% Given Atomic Masses
Given: Atomic masses of elements:

A = 64, \quad B = 40, \quad C = 32 \text{ u

  • (1) \quad \( ABC_4 \)
  • (2) \quad \( A_2BC_2 \)
  • (3) \quad \( ABC_3 \)
  • (4) \quad \( AB_2C_2 \)

Question 99:

The plot of osmotic pressure (\(\Pi\)) vs concentration (mol L\(^{-1}\)) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol\(^{-1}\). The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is:


% Given Constant
Given:

R = 0.083 \text{ L bar mol^{-1 \text{ K^{-1

  • (1) \quad \( 12.05^\circ C \)
  • (2) \quad \( 37^\circ C \)
  • (3) \quad \( 310^\circ C \)
  • (4) \quad \( 25.73^\circ C \)

Question 100:

Identify the \textbf{correct} answer.

  • (1) \quad Three canonical forms can be drawn for \( CO_3^{2-} \) ion.
  • (2) \quad Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.
  • (3) \quad \( BF_3 \) has non-zero dipole moment.
  • (4) \quad Dipole moment of \( NF_3 \) is greater than that of \( NH_3 \).

Question 101:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue.

Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms.

  • (1) \quad Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) \quad Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) \quad Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) \quad Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Question 102:

Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates.


  • (1) \quad D
  • (2) \quad A
  • (3) \quad B
  • (4) \quad C

Question 103:

Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?

  • (1) \quad Fruiting body
  • (2) \quad Morphology of mycelium
  • (3) \quad Mode of nutrition
  • (4) \quad Mode of spore formation

Question 104:

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because


A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.

B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.

C. More solar energy is available in tropics.

D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.

E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) \quad A, B and D only
  • (2) \quad A, C, D and E only
  • (3) \quad A and B only
  • (4) \quad A, B and E only

Question 105:

Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?

  • (1) \quad Sesbania
  • (2) \quad Datura
  • (3) \quad Cassia
  • (4) \quad Pisum

Question 106:

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

  • (1) \quad Telophase
  • (2) \quad Prophase
  • (3) \quad Metaphase
  • (4) \quad Anaphase

Question 107:

The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called

  • (1) \quad Sustainable development
  • (2) \quad in-situ conservation
  • (3) \quad Biodiversity conservation
  • (4) \quad Semi-conservative method

Question 108:

Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for

  • (1) \quad Maturation
  • (2) \quad Differentiation
  • (3) \quad Redifferentiation
  • (4) \quad Dedifferentiation

Question 109:

Identify the set of correct statements:

A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar.

B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated by water.

C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.

D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like.

E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) \quad B, C, D and E only
  • (2) \quad C, D and E only
  • (3) \quad A, B, C and D only
  • (4) \quad A, C, D and E only

Question 110:

A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and downstream end;

  • (1) \quad Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
  • (2) \quad Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
  • (3) \quad Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
  • (4) \quad Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene

Question 111:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage.

Statement II: The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 112:

The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

  • (A) Somatic hybridization
  • (B) Totipotency
  • (C) Micropropagation
  • (D) Differentiation

Question 113:

In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?


  • (A) B
  • (B) C
  • (C) D
  • (D) A

Question 114:

Match List I with List II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 115:

Match List I with List II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 116:

List of endangered species was released by

  • (A) IUCN
  • (B) GEAC
  • (C) WWF
  • (D) FOAM

Question 117:

The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of

  • (A) Polymerase
  • (B) Beta-galactosidase
  • (C) Acetylase
  • (D) Permease

Question 118:

The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

  • (A) Haem
  • (B) Zinc
  • (C) Niacin
  • (D) Flavin

Question 119:

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

  • (A) Carbohydrates
  • (B) Amino acids
  • (C) Phospholipids
  • (D) Glycerides

Question 120:

Match List I with List II

\[ \begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \textbf{List I (Microorganism)} & \textbf{List II (Product)}
\hline A. Clostridium butylicum & I. Ethanol
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae & II. Streptokinase
C. Trichoderma polysporum & III. Butyric acid
D. Streptococcus sp. & IV. Cyclosporin-A
\hline \end{array} \]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 121:

Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b):


  • (A) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
  • (B) (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
  • (C) (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
  • (D) (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous

Question 122:

Bulliform cells are responsible for:

  • (A) Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
  • (B) Inward curling of leaves in monocots.
  • (C) Protecting the plant from salt stress.
  • (D) Increased photosynthesis in monocots.

Question 123:

In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

  • (A) BB/Bb
  • (B) BB
  • (C) bb
  • (D) Bb

Question 124:

Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin

  • (A) can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
  • (B) promotes apical dominance.
  • (C) promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
  • (D) does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.

Question 125:

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

  • (A) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.
  • (B) Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in \(F_2\) generation.
  • (C) Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
  • (D) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.
  • (E) The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) A, B, C, D and E
  • (2) A, B and C only
  • (3) A, C, D and E only
  • (4) B, C and D only

Question 126:

Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

  • (1) Enzyme activation
  • (2) Cofactor inhibition
  • (3) Feedback inhibition
  • (4) Competitive inhibition

Question 127:

What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?

  • (A) The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
  • (B) It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
  • (C) It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
  • (D) The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.
  • (E) It shows ability to replicate.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) A and E only
  • (2) A and B only
  • (3) D and E only
  • (4) B and C only

Question 128:

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

  • (A) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
  • (B) Only red flowered plants
  • (C) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
  • (D) Only pink flowered plants

Question 129:

These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:

A. Over exploitation

B. Co-extinction

C. Mutation

D. Habitat loss and fragmentation

E. Migration


Choose the correct option:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B and E only

Question 130:

Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

A. Light

B. Chlorophyll

C. CO\(_2\)

D. ATP

E. NADPH


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) D and E only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) C, D and E only

Question 131:

Match List I with List II

131
  • C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 132:

Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:

  • (A) 10 bp
  • (B) 8 bp
  • (C) 6 bp
  • (D) 4 bp

Question 133:

The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is \[ \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left[ \frac{K-N}{K} \right]. \]
From this equation, K indicates:

  • (A) Population density
  • (B) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
  • (C) Biotic potential
  • (D) Carrying capacity

Question 134:

How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO\(_2\) fixed in the Calvin cycle?

  • (A) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • (B) 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
  • (C) 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • (D) 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

Question 135:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.

Statement II: Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

SECTION-B

Question 136:

Match List-I with List-II
136
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 137:

Match List I with List II
137
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-II, C-II, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 138:

Match List I with List II
138
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 139:

Match List I with List II
139
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (D) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 140:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In C\textsubscript{3 plants, some O\textsubscript{2 binds to RuBisCO, hence CO\textsubscript{2 fixation is decreased.
Statement II: In C\textsubscript{4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 141:

Match List I with List II
141
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-I

Question 142:

In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is \(100x\) (kcal \(m^{-2}\) \(yr^{-1}\)), what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?

  • (A) \( \frac{100x}{3} \, (kcal m^{-2} yr^{-1}) \)
  • (B) \( \frac{x}{10} \, (kcal m^{-2} yr^{-1}) \)
  • (C) \( x \, (kcal m^{-2} yr^{-1}) \)
  • (D) \( 10x \, (kcal m^{-2} yr^{-1}) \)

Question 143:

Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.

  • (A) Isocitrate \( \rightarrow \) α-ketoglutaric acid
  • (B) Malic acid \( \rightarrow \) Oxaloacetic acid
  • (C) Succinic acid \( \rightarrow \) Malic acid
  • (D) Succinyl-CoA \( \rightarrow \) Succinic acid

Question 144:

The DNA present in chloroplast is:

  • (A) Circular, single stranded
  • (B) Linear, double stranded
  • (C) Circular, double stranded
  • (D) Linear, single stranded

Question 145:

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
In the members of Phaeophyceae,
A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.
B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.
C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.
D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.
E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C and E only
  • (B) A, B, C and D only
  • (C) B, C, D and E only
  • (D) A, C, D and E only

Question 146:

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E. coli?

  • (A) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5' \(\to\) 3' direction
  • (B) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3' \(\to\) 5'
  • (C) The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5' \(\to\) 3'
  • (D) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5' \(\to\) 3' as well as 3' \(\to\) 5' direction

Question 147:

Match List I with List II
147
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 148:

Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators, increases the length of stem, thus, increasing the yield?

  • (A) Abscisic acid
  • (B) Auxin
  • (C) Gibberellin
  • (D) Cytokinin

Question 149:

Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

  • (A) Pollens
  • (B) Callus
  • (C) Somatic embryos
  • (D) Protoplasts

Question 150:

Identify the correct description about the given figure:

  • (A) Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy
  • (B) Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens.
  • (C) Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
  • (D) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.

Question 151:

Match List I with List II:
151
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 152:

Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

  • (A) Ampulla
  • (B) Uterine fundus
  • (C) Isthmus
  • (D) Infundibulum

Question 153:

The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for:

  • (A) Temperature independent plasmid
  • (B) Tumour inhibiting plasmid
  • (C) Tumor independent plasmid
  • (D) Tumor inducing plasmid

Question 154:

Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

  • (A) Constant gene pool
  • (B) Genetic recombination
  • (C) Genetic drift
  • (D) Gene migration

Question 155:

Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:

  • (A) AV bundle
  • (B) Purkinje fibres
  • (C) AV node
  • (D) Bundle branches
  • (E) SA node
    Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below:
  • (A) E-A-D-B-C
  • (B) E-C-A-D-B
  • (C) A-E-C-B-D
  • (D) B-D-E-C-A

Question 156:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.

Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:

  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 157:

Match List I with List II:
157

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 158:

Given below are some stages of human evolution.

Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent)

A. Homo habilis

B. Homo sapiens

C. Homo neanderthalensis

D. Homo erectus

Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:

  • (A) A-D-C-B
  • (B) D-A-C-B
  • (C) B-A-D-C
  • (D) C-B-D-A

Question 159:

The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of

  • (A) Divergent evolution
  • (B) Adaptive radiation
  • (C) Natural selection
  • (D) Convergent evolution

Question 160:

Match List I with List II:
160

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 161:

Match List I with List II:
161
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 162:

Match List I with List II:
162
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 163:

Which one is the correct product of DNA dependent RNA polymerase to the given template?

3'TACATGGCAAATATTCATTC5'

  • (1) 5'ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3'
  • (2) 5'AUGUACCGUUUAUAAGUAAGU3'
  • (3) 5'AUGUAAGUUUAUGUAAGU3'
  • (4) 5'AUGUACCGUUUAGGGAAGU3'

Question 164:


\hline \end{array} \]

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View Solution

By matching the correct names of the species with their respective classifications:


- \text{Pterophyllum is the Angel fish (III)

- \text{Myxine is the Hag fish (I)

- \text{Pristis is the Saw fish (II)

- \text{Exocoetus is the Flying fish (IV)


Thus, the correct sequence is A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV. Quick Tip: Knowing the common names of different fish species helps in understanding their classification within the broader categories.


Question 165:

Consider the following statements:

\text{A. Annelids are true coelomates.

\text{B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates.

\text{C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates.

\text{D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) D only
  • (2) B only
  • (3) A only
  • (4) C only

Question 166:

Match List I with List II:
166
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-I
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 167:

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (1) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, and foam control system
  • (2) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product
  • (3) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
  • (4) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures

Question 168:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is false but R is true
  • (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (4) A is true but R is false

Question 169:

Following are the stages of cell division:
A. Gap 2 phase

B. Cytokinesis

C. Synthesis phase

D. Karyokinesis phase

E. Gap 1 phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below:

  • (1) E-C-A-D-B
  • (2) C-E-D-A-B
  • (3) E-B-D-A-C
  • (4) B-D-E-A-C

Question 170:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.

Statement II: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 171:

Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

  • (1) Vaults
  • (2) Coitus interruptus
  • (3) Periodic abstinence
  • (4) Lactational amenorrhea

Question 172:

Match List I with List II :


Question 173:

The following diagram showing restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ genes :

  1. The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
  2. Gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and ‘Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
  3. The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
  4. The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.

Question 174:

Which of the following factors are favorable for the formation of oxyhemoglobin in alveoli?

  1. Low pCO₂ and High H⁺ concentration
  2. Low pCO₂ and High temperature
  3. High pO₂ and High pCO₂
  4. High pO₂ and Lesser H⁺ concentration

Question 175:

In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on:

  • (1) 11th segment
  • (2) 5th segment
  • (3) 10th segment
  • (4) 8th and 9th segment

Question 176:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 177:

Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 178:

Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  • (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 179:

Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?

A. Myasthenia gravis

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Gout

D. Muscular dystrophy

E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. B, C & E only
  2. C, D & E only
  3. A, B & D only
  4. A, B & E only

Question 180:

Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Question 181:

Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

  • (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 182:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby.
Reason R: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A is not correct but R is correct

  • (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (4) A is correct but R is not correct

Question 183:

Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in the human body:

Name of muscle/location:
(1) (a) Involuntary – Nose tip

  • (b) Skeletal – Bone
  • (c) Cardiac – Heart
    (2) (a) Smooth – Toes
  • (b) Skeletal – Legs
  • (c) Cardiac – Heart
    (3) (a) Skeletal – Triceps
  • (b) Smooth – Stomach
  • (c) Cardiac – Heart
    (4) (a) Skeletal – Biceps
  • (b) Involuntary – Intestine
  • (c) Smooth – Heart

Question 184:

Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

  • (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 185:

Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?
(1) Glucagon

  • (2) Cortisol
  • (3) Testosterone
  • (4) Progesterone

Question 186:

Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps:
A. Substrate enzyme complex formation.
B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.
C. Release of products.
D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.
E. Substrate binding to active site.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) E, D, C, B, A

  • (2) E, A, D, C, B
  • (3) A, E, B, D, C
  • (4) B, A, C, D, E

Question 187:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Question 188:

Match List I with List II :
188
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  • (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 189:

Match List I with List II:
189
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 190:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum.
Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebrum.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Question 191:

Match List I with List II:
191
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 192:

Match List I with List II:

List I List II
A. Mesozoic Era I. Lower invertebrates
B. Proterozoic Era II. Fish & Amphibia
C. Cenozoic Era III. Birds & Reptiles
D. Paleozoic Era IV. Mammals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 193:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both are double membrane bound organelles.
Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to chloroplast.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Question 194:

Match List I with List II related to the digestive system of cockroach:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

  • (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 195:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.
Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Question 196:

The following are the statements about non-chordates:
A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
B. Notochord is absent.
C. Central nervous system is dorsal.
D. Heart is dorsal if present.
E. Post anal tail is absent.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
   (1) B, C \& D only
   
(2) A \& C only
   (3) A, B \& D only
   (4) B, D \& E only


Question 197:

As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+. Their respective genotype can be:

A. IBi / IAi / ii

B. IBIB / IAIA / ii

C. IAIB / IAi / IBi

D. IAi / IBi / IAi

E. ii / IAi / IAIB

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. C & B only
  2. D & E only
  3. A only
  4. B only

Question 198:

Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.

  • (1) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
  • (2) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
  • (3) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
  • (4) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.

Question 199:

Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.

  • (1) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
  • (2) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis.
  • (3) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
  • (4) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.

Question 200:

Match List I with List II:
 

List I List II
A. P wave I. Heart muscles are electrically silent.
B. QRS complex II. Depolarisation of ventricles.
C. T wave III. Depolarisation of atria.
D. T-P gap IV. Repolarisation of ventricles.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-III
  3. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  4. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I



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