NEET 2025 Botany Question Paper with Solutions PDF is available for download. NEET 2025 Botany Question Paper comprises 45 MCQs. NEET 2025 has been conducted on May 4, 2025. You can download NEET 2025 Botany question paper with answer key and solutions PDF using the links given below.

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NEET 2025 Botany Question Paper with Solutions PDF

NEET 2025 Botany Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
NEET 2025 Question Paper

Question 1:

Match List - I with List - II:

A. Progesterone                                         I. Pars intermedia
B. Relaxin                                                   II. Ovary
C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone       III. Adrenal Medulla
D. Catecholamines                                    IV. Corpus luteum

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
View Solution

Question 2:

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce color in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.

Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I: The blue-colored colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid, and they are identified as recombinant colonies.
Statement II: The colonies without blue color have DNA insert in the plasmid, and are identified as recombinant colonies.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
View Solution

Question 3:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) A is true but R is false.
  • (3) A is false but R is true.
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer: (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Question 4:

Match List I with List II. 
A. Pteridophyte           I. Salvia
B. Bryophyte               II. Ginkgo
C. Angiosperm            III. Polytrichum
D. Gymnosperm          IV. Salvinia

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Question 5:

Match List - I with List - II:
A. Heart                                        I. Erythropoietin
B. Kidney                                     II. Aldosterone
C. Gastrointestina  Tract            III. Atrial natriuretic factor
D. Adrenal Cortex                       IV. Secretin

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
View Solution

Question 6:

Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

  • (1) Francis Crick
  • (2) Jacques Monod
  • (3) Franklin Stahl
  • (4) George Gamow
Correct Answer: (4) George Gamow
View Solution

Question 7:

Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

  • (1) KCal m\(^{-2}\)
  • (2) KCal m\(^{-2}\) yr\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) (KCal m\(^{-2}\)) yr\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) gm\(^{-2}\) yr\(^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (3) (KCal m\(^{-2}\)) yr\(^{-1}\)
View Solution

Question 8:

Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

  • (1) Datura
  • (2) Pea
  • (3) Chilli
  • (4) Petunia
Correct Answer: (2) Pea
View Solution

Question 9:

Match List I with List II:

A. The Evil Quartet                     I. Cryopreservation
B. Ex situ conservation             II. Alien species invasion
C. Lantana camara                    III. Causes of biodiversity losses
D. Dodo                                       IV. Extinction

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    %This option is repeated in original.
Correct Answer: (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View Solution

Question 10:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In an ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from the law of thermodynamics.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Correct Answer: (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
View Solution

Question 11:

The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

  • (1) Coenzyme
  • (2) Apoenzyme
  • (3) Prosthetic group
  • (4) Cofactor
Correct Answer: } (2) Apoenzyme
View Solution

Question 12:

Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

  • (1) They are fraternal twins.
  • (2) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
  • (3) They have 75% identical genetic content.
  • (4) They are monozygotic twins.
Correct Answer:(1) They are fraternal twins.
View Solution

Question 13:

After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like:

A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches

  • (1) A, B, C only
  • (2) E, A, B only
  • (3) C, D, E only
  • (4) B, C, D only
Correct Answer:(3) C, D, E only
View Solution

Question 14:

In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:

  • (1) Liver and kidney
  • (2) Kidney and intestine
  • (3) Kidney and lower part of body
  • (4) Liver and intestine
Correct Answer:(3) Kidney and lower part of body
View Solution

Question 15:

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) D and E only
  • (3) B and C only
  • (4) C and D only
Correct Answer: (4) C and D only
View Solution

Question 16:

With the help of the given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in the F\textsubscript{3} generation.


  • (1) 1/2
  • (2) 1/8
  • (3) Zero
  • (4) 1/4
Correct Answer: (4) 1/4
View Solution

Question 17:

Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

  • (1) Seeds are naked.
  • (2) Seeds are absent.
  • (3) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
  • (4) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
Correct Answer: (1) Seeds are naked.
View Solution

Question 18:

The first menstruation is called:

  • (1) Menarche
  • (2) Diapause
  • (3) Ovulation
  • (4) Menopause
Correct Answer: (1) Menarche
View Solution

Question 19:

In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following:

  • (1) Asexual reproduction
  • (2) Nutrient absorption
  • (3) Gaseous exchange
  • (4) Sexual reproduction
Correct Answer: (1) Asexual reproduction
View Solution

Question 20:

How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

  • (1) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
  • (2) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
  • (3) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
  • (4) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
Correct Answer: (2) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
View Solution

Question 21:

Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:

A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion

  • (1) A and C Only
  • (2) B and C Only
  • (3) B, D and E Only
  • (4) A and B Only
Correct Answer: (1) A and C Only
View Solution

Question 22:

Read the following statements on plant growth and development:

A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.

  • (1) A, C, E only
  • (2) A, D, E only
  • (3) B, D, E only
  • (4) A, B, C only
Correct Answer: (4) A, B, C only
View Solution

Question 23:

Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

  • (1) Innate Immunity
  • (2) Cell-mediated Immunity
  • (3) Humoral Immunity
  • (4) Acquired Immunity
Correct Answer: (1) Innate Immunity
View Solution

Question 24:

Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

  • (1) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract.
  • (2) Because of structural variation.
  • (3) Its bioavailability will be increased.
  • (4) Human body will elicit strong immune response.
Correct Answer: (1) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract.
View Solution

Question 25:

Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

  • (1) dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K
  • (2) dN/dt = rN(N-K)/K
  • (3) dN/dt = rN(K+N)/K
  • (4) dN/dt = rN(K-N)/N
Correct Answer: (1) dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K
View Solution

Question 26:

Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of:

  • (1) Inhibitory ssRNA
  • (2) Complementary dsRNA
  • (3) Non-complementary ssRNA
  • (4) Complementary dsRNA
    %This option appears twice in the original question
Correct Answer: (2/4) Complementary dsRNA
View Solution

Question 27:

Match List I with List II.

A. Adenosine                     I. Nitrogen base
B. Adenylic acid                II. Nucleotide
C. Adenine                         III. Nucleoside
D. Alanine                          IV. Amino acid

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
View Solution

Question 28:

Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.

  • (1) The statement is true for both the environment.
  • (2) The statement is false for water but true for land.
  • (3) The statement is false for both the environment.
  • (4) The statement is true for water but false for land.
Correct Answer: (1) The statement is true for both environments.
View Solution

Question 29:

All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

  • (1) Endoparasite
  • (2) Symbiotic
  • (3) Ectoparasite
  • (4) Free living
Correct Answer: (3) Ectoparasite
View Solution

Question 30:

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

  • (1) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
  • (2) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
  • (3) Constant regions of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
  • (4) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
Correct Answer: (2) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
View Solution

Question 31:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) A is true but R is false.
  • (3) A is false but R is true.
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer: (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Question 32:

Consider the following:

A. The reductive division for human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.

  • (1) A and C are true
  • (2) B and D are true
  • (3) B and C are true
  • (4) A and B are true
Correct Answer: (4) A and B are true
View Solution

Question 33:

Match List I with List II:

A. Scutellum                                  I. Persistent nucellus
B. Non-albuminous seed             II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed
C. Epiblast                                    III. Groundnut
D. Perisperm                                 IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Correct Answer: (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
View Solution

Question 34:

What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

  • (1) To synthesize new DNA
  • (2) To repair damaged DNA
  • (3) To regulate cell growth
  • (4) To separate the chromosomes
Correct Answer: (4) To separate the chromosomes
View Solution

Question 35:

Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

  • (1) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
  • (2) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
  • (3) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
  • (4) It is active only in the dark.
Correct Answer: (3) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
View Solution

Question 36:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in the construction of recombinant DNA.
Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near the anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
Correct Answer: (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
View Solution

Question 37:

Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

  • (1) \(\sigma\) (sigma)
  • (2) \(\rho\) (rho)
  • (3) \(\gamma\) (gamma)
  • (4) \(\alpha\) (alpha)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\rho\) (rho)
View Solution

Question 38:

Consider the following statements regarding the function of adrenal medullary hormones:

A. It causes pupillary constriction.
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone.
C. It causes piloerection.
D. It increases the strength of heart contraction.

  • (1) B, C and D Only
  • (2) A, C and D Only
  • (3) D Only
  • (4) C and D Only
Correct Answer: (1) B, C and D Only
View Solution

Question 39:

Histones are enriched with:

  • (1) Leucine \& Lysine
  • (2) Phenylalanine \& Leucine
  • (3) Phenylalanine \& Arginine
  • (4) Lysine \& Arginine
Correct Answer: (4) Lysine \& Arginine
View Solution

Question 40:

Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

  • (1) Phenotypic ratio – 3:1
  • (2) Phenotypic ratio – 9:3:3:1
  • (3) Phenotypic ratio – 9:7
  • (4) Phenotypic ratio – 1:2:1
Correct Answer: (2) Phenotypic ratio – 9:3:3:1
View Solution

Question 41:

Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

  • (1) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
  • (2) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • (3) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
  • (4) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Correct Answer: (1) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
View Solution

Question 42:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R): The members of subphylum Vertebrata possess a notochord during the embryonic period; the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) A is true but R is false.
  • (3) A is false but R is true.
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer: (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Question 43:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit a mutual relationship as the fig wasp completes its life cycle in the fig fruit and the fig fruit gets pollinated by the fig wasp.

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
Correct Answer: (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
View Solution

Question 44:

Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

  • (1) Homology, divergent
  • (2) Homology, convergent
  • (3) Analogy, divergent
  • (4) Analogy, convergent
Correct Answer: (4) Analogy, convergent
View Solution

Question 45:

Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?

A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) C and D only
  • (3) C and E only
  • (4) A and B only
Correct Answer: (3) C and E only
View Solution


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