NEET 2025 Question Paper with Solution (Available): Download NEET 2025 Answer Key 46

A physical quantity \(P\) is related to four observations \(a\), \(b\), \(c\), and \(d\) as follows: \(\)P = a^3 b^2 
The percentage errors of measurement in \(a\), \(b\), \(c\), and \(d\) are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity \(P\) is:

• (1) \( 2% \)
• (2) \( 13% \)
• (3) \( 15% \)
• (4) \( 10% \)

The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at \(22.5^\circ\) from the polarization axis of one of the polaroids (\(I_0\) is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):

• (1) \( \frac{I_0}{4} \)
• (2) \( \frac{I_0}{8} \)
• (3) \( \frac{I_0}{16} \)
• (4) \( \frac{I_0}{2} \)

A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be:

• (1) \( 1:2 \)
• (2) \( 2:1 \)
• (3) \( 4:1 \)
• (4) \( 1:4 \)

Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier Callipers. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least count in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at -0.1 cm when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed.
If the main scale reading for the diameter is \(M = 5\) cm and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction, is:

• (1) \( 5.08 cm \)
• (2) \( 4.98 cm \)
• (3) \( 5.09 cm \)
• (4) \( 5.18 cm \)

A photon and an electron (mass \(m\)) have the same energy \(E\). The ratio \( \frac{\lambda_{photon}}{\lambda_{electron}} \) of their de Broglie wavelengths is: (\(c\) is the speed of light)

• (1) \( c \sqrt{2mE} \)
• (2) \( \frac{c \sqrt{2m}}{E} \)
• (3) \( c \sqrt{\frac{E}{2m}} \)
• (4) \( \sqrt{\frac{E}{2m}} \)

De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the \(n = 2\) state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm):

• (1) \( 0.67 nm \)
• (2) \( 1.67 nm \)
• (3) \( 2.67 nm \)
• (4) \( 0.067 nm \)

An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then:

• (1) reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to \(30^\circ\)
• (2) both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and refraction close to \(60^\circ\) and \(30^\circ\), respectively
• (3) transmitted light is completely polarized and the angle of refraction is close to \(30^\circ\)
• (4) reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to \(60^\circ\)

The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying brakes, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If \(F_A\) and \(F_B\) are the forces applied by the brakes on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio \( \frac{F_A}{F_B} \) is:

• (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
• (4) \( \frac{4}{3} \)

A wire of resistance \(R\) is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces, two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is:

• (1) \( \frac{R}{32} \)
• (2) \( \frac{R}{4} \)
• (3) \( \frac{R}{8} \)
• (4) \( \frac{R}{6} \)

An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature \(27^\circ\)C. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to:
[Given, \(R = \frac{100}{12} J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\), and molecular mass of \(O_2 = 32 g/mol\), 1 atm pressure = \(1.01 \times 10^5 N/m^2\)]

• (1) \( 0.144 kg \)
• (2) \( 0.116 kg \)
• (3) \( 0.156 kg \)
• (4) \( 0.125 kg \)

In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to one lens will be, respectively:

• (1) \( 4p \) and \( m^4 \)
• (2) \( p \) and \( 4m \)
• (3) \( p \) and \( m^4 \)
• (4) \( 4p \) and \( 4m \)

AB is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference \(V_A - V_B\), at the instant when current \(i = 2\) A and is increasing at a rate of 1 amp/second is:

• (1) \( 6 volt \)
• (2) \( 9 volt \)
• (3) \( 10 volt \)
• (4) \( 5 volt \)

A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:

• (1) \( 27 N \)
• (2) \( 32 N \)
• (3) \( 36 N \)
• (4) \( 16 N \)

A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (\(D_1\)) and (\(D_2\)) is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage \(V_{in} = 220 \sin(100 \pi t)\) volt, then at \(t = 15\) msec:

• (1) \( D_1 \) is reverse biased, \( D_2 \) is forward biased
• (2) \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) both are forward biased
• (3) \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) both are reverse biased
• (4) \( D_1 \) is forward biased, \( D_2 \) is reverse biased

Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y. She notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.

• (1) \( 25 min, 100 km/h \)
• (2) \( 10 min, 90 km/h \)
• (3) \( 15 min, 120 km/h \)
• (4) \( 9 min, 40 km/h \)

The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.

• (1) \( 108 days \)
• (2) \( 115 days \)
• (3) \( 100 days \)
• (4) \( 54 days \)

The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by \(E_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^{10} t)\) V/m. Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field (\(B_y\)) is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field) is:

• (1) \( B_y = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^{10} t) T \)
• (2) \( B_y = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^{10} t) T \)
• (3) \( B_y = 60 \times 10^9 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^{10} t) T \)
• (4) \( B_y = -2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^{10} t) T \)

Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is \(q\) and the force of repulsion between them is \(F\). A third identical uncharged conducting sphere C is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with sphere B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radius of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that they can be considered as point charges) is best given as:

• (1) \( \frac{2F}{3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{F}{2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{3F}{8} \)
• (4) \( \frac{3F}{4} \)

An electric dipole with dipole moment \(p = 5 \times 10^{-6}\) Cm is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude \(E = 4 \times 10^5\) N/C. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of \(60^\circ\) with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:

• (1) \( 1.0 J \)
• (2) \( 1.2 J \)
• (3) \( 1.5 J \)
• (4) \( 0.8 J \)

A microscope has an objective of focal length \(f_o = 2\) cm and an eyepiece of focal length \(f_e = 4\) cm. The tube length of the microscope is \(L = 40\) cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is \(D = 25\) cm, the magnification in the microscope is:

• (1) \( 125 \)
• (2) \( 150 \)
• (3) \( 250 \)
• (4) \( 100 \)

The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a 2cm gate.

• (1) NAND
• (2) OR
• (3) NOR
• (4) AND

A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of \(60^\circ\) with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (take \(g = 10\) m/s\(^2\)):

• (1) \( 100 \sqrt{3} N \)
• (2) \( 200 N \)
• (3) \( 200 \sqrt{3} N \)
• (4) \( 100 N \)

The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:

• (1) \( 0.5 A \)
• (2) \( 2.5 A \)
• (3) \( 1.5 A \)
• (4) \( 2.0 A \)

A model for a quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field B states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is \( \phi = n h / e \) where \(n\) is an integer, \(h\) is Planck's constant and \(e\) is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be (\(m\) is the mass of the electron):

• (1) \( \frac{he}{4 \pi m} \)
• (2) \( \frac{he}{2 \pi m} \)
• (3) \( \frac{he}{2 m} \)
• (4) \( \frac{he}{4 m} \)

Which of the following options represent the variation of photoelectric current with the property of light shown on the x-axis?

• (1) A and C
• (2) A and D
• (3) B and D
• (4) A only

An electron (mass \(9 \times 10^{-31}\) kg and charge \(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\) C) moving with speed \(c/100\) (\(c\) = speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field of magnitude \(9 \times 10^{-4}\) T perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field \( \vec{E} \) together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. (speed of light \(c = 3 \times 10^8\) m/s):

• (1) \( \vec{E} \) is perpendicular to \( \vec{B} \) and its magnitude is \( 2.7 \times 10^2 \) V m\(^{-1} \)
• (2) \( \vec{E} \) is parallel to \( \vec{B} \) and its magnitude is \( 2.7 \times 10^2 \) V m\(^{-1} \)
• (3) \( \vec{E} \) is parallel to \( \vec{B} \) and its magnitude is \( 2.7 \times 10^6 \) V m\(^{-1} \)
• (4) \( \vec{E} \) is perpendicular to \( \vec{B} \) and its magnitude is \( 2.7 \times 10^6 \) V m\(^{-1} \)

Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at \(x = L\) and can be taken to be very wide in the z direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension \(S\) and density \( \rho \), the liquid surface makes angle \( \theta_0 \) (\( \theta_0 << 1 \)) with the x-axis at \(x = L\). If \(y(x)\) is the height of the surface then the equation for \(y(x)\) is: (take \(g\) as the acceleration due to gravity)

• (1) \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \frac{\rho g}{S} y \)
• (2) \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \sqrt{\frac{\rho g}{S}} y \)
• (3) \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \sqrt{\frac{S}{\rho g}} y \)
• (4) \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \frac{S}{\rho g} y \)

A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency \(f\) in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:

• (1) \( f \)
• (2) \( \frac{3}{4} f \)
• (3) \( 2f \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{2} f \)

A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:

• (1) constant between the plates and zero outside the plates
• (2) non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting peripheries of the plates
• (3) zero between the plates and non-zero outside
• (4) zero at all places

Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity 2K while that in the middle has thermal conductivity K. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature 3T and the right end at T. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is \(T_1\) and that at the right junction is \(T_2\). The ratio \(T_1 / T_2\) is

• (1) \( \frac{11}{9} \)
• (2) \( \frac{7}{5} \)
• (3) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
• (4) \( \frac{3}{2} \)

A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is :

• (1) \( 2.0 A \)
• (2) \( 2.5 A \)
• (3) \( 3.0 A \)
• (4) \( 1.5 A \)

In some appropriate units, time (t) and position (x) relation of a moving particle is given by \(t = \alpha x^2 + \beta x\). The acceleration of the particle is :

• (1) \( -2\alpha v^3 \)
• (2) \( 2\beta v^3 \)
• (3) \( -2\beta v^3 \)
• (4) \( -2\alpha \frac{v^3}{(2\alpha x + \beta)^2} \)

Two gases A and B are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radii \(r_A\) and \(r_B\) respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the cylinders, their pressures remain constant and their pistons are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm respectively. If the change in their internal energies is the same, then the ratio \(r_A / r_B\) is:

• (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \)
• (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{3}{4} \)

In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency ω(t) and average amplitude A(t) of the system change with time t. Which one of the following options schematically depicts these changes correctly?

A sphere of radius R is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius 2R as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is :

• (1) \( \frac{7}{40} \)
• (2) \( \frac{7}{57} \)
• (3) \( \frac{7}{64} \)
• (4) \( \frac{7}{8} \)

The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by d. Two slabs of different dielectric constant \(K_1\) and \(K_2\) with thickness \(d/2\) and \(d/2\) respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. If \(K_1 = 1.25 K_2\), the value of \(K_2\) is :

• (1) \( 2.33 \)
  (2) \( 1.60 \)
  (3) \( 1.33 \)
  (4) \( 2.66 \)

There are two inclined surfaces of equal length inclined at an angle of \(45^\circ\) with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on the rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction (\(\mu_k\)) between the object and the rough surface is close to :

• (1) \( 0.80 \)
  (2) \( 0.25 \)
  (3) \( 0.75 \)
  (4) \( 0.5 \)

A bob of heavy mass \(m\) is suspended by a light string of length \(l\). The bob is given a horizontal velocity \(v_0\) as shown in figure. If the string gets slack at some point P making an angle \( \theta \) from the horizontal, the ratio of the speed \(v\) of the bob at point P to its initial speed \(v_0\) is :

• (1) \( \left( \frac{1}{2 + 3 \sin \theta} \right)^{1/2} \)
  (2) \( \left( \frac{\cos \theta}{2 + 3 \sin \theta} \right)^{1/2} \)
  (3) \( \left( \frac{\sin \theta}{2 + 3 \sin \theta} \right)^{1/2} \)
  (4) \( (\sin \theta)^{1/2} \)

A container has two chambers of volumes \(V_1 = 2\) litres and \(V_2 = 3\) litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contain \(n_1 = 2\) moles and \(n_2 = 3\) moles of ideal gas at pressures \(p_1 = 1\) atm and \(p_2 = 2\) atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of :

• (1) \( 1.6 atm \)
  (2) \( 1.4 atm \)
  (3) \( 1.8 atm \)
  (4) \( 1.3 atm \)

An AC power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 20\( \Omega \), a capacitor of reactance 25\( \Omega \) and an inductor of reactance 45\( \Omega \) are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively :

• (1) \( 7.8 A and 45^\circ \)
  (2) \( 15.6 A and 20^\circ \)
  (3) \( 15.6 A and 45^\circ \)
  (4) \( 7.8 A and 30^\circ \)

The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 1.5 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?

• (1) \( 225 Earth days \)
  (2) \( 172 Earth days \)
  (3) \( 124 Earth days \)
  (4) \( 88 Earth days \)

A balloon is made of a material of surface tension S and has a small outlet. It is filled with air of density \( \rho \). Initially the balloon is a sphere of radius R. When the gas is allowed to flow out slowly at a constant rate, its radius shrinks as \( r(t) \). Assume that the pressure inside the balloon is \( P(r) \) and is more than the outside pressure (\( P_0 \)) by an amount proportional to the surface tension and inversely proportional to the radius. The balloon bursts when its radius reaches \( r_0 \). Then the speed of gas coming out of the balloon at \( r = R \) is :

• (1) \( \sqrt{\frac{S}{\rho R}} \)
  (2) \( \sqrt{\frac{2S}{\rho R}} \)
  (3) \( \sqrt{\frac{4S}{\rho R}} \)
  (4) \( \sqrt{\frac{S}{2\rho R}} \)

A particle of mass \(m\) is moving around the origin with a constant speed \(v\) along a circular path of radius \(R\). When the particle is at \( (0, R) \), its velocity is \( \mathbf{v} = -v \hat{\mathbf{i}} \). The angular momentum of the particle with respect to the origin is :

• (1) \( mvR \hat{\mathbf{k}} \)
  (2) \( -mvR \hat{\mathbf{k}} \)
  (3) \( mvR \hat{\mathbf{j}} \)
  (4) \( -mvR \hat{\mathbf{j}} \)

Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants \(k_1\) and \(k_2\), respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum velocities are the same, the ratio of the amplitude of P to the amplitude of Q is :

• (1) \( \sqrt{\frac{k_2}{k_1}} \)
  (2) \( \sqrt{\frac{k_1}{k_2}} \)
  (3) \( \frac{k_2}{k_1} \)
  (4) \( \frac{k_1}{k_2} \)

A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 1.5 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is : (Take \(g = 9.8 \, m/s^2\))

• (1) \( 7 Ns \)
  (2) \( 0 Ns \)
  (3) \( 7 \sqrt{2} Ns \)
  (4) \( 21 \sqrt{2} Ns \)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.
Statement II: The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr 2+ ion (Z = 24) is the same as that of a Nd3+ ion (Z = 60).

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

For the reaction A(g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2B(g), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K.

[Given: R = 0.0831 atm {–1} K{–1}]


K{p} for the reaction at 1000 K is:

• (1) \(2.077 \times 10^5\)
• (2) 0.033
• (3) 0.021
• (4) 83.1

Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula C\textsubscript{4}H\tex{8}O is:

• (1) 8
• (2) 10
• (3) 11
• (4) 6

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.

Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion:

​

The major product of the following reaction is:
 

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(i) CH\textsubscript{3MgBr (excess) \hspace{0.5cm (ii) H\textsuperscript{+/H\textsubscript{2O

• (1) \chemfig{Ph-CH(CH_3)-CH_2-COCH_3}
• (2) \chemfig{Ph-C(CH_3)(OH)-CH(CH_3)_2}
• (3) \chemfig{Ph-CO-CH_2CH_2CH_3}
• (4) \chemfig{Ph-CH(CH_3)-CH_2-CN}

If the molar conductivity (\(\Lambda_m\)) of a 0.050 mol L\textsuperscript{–1 solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm\textsuperscript{2 mol\textsuperscript{–1, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be:


[Assume: \(\Lambda^0\) = 349.6 S cm\textsuperscript{2 mol\textsuperscript{–1 and \(\Lambda^0_{acid}\) = 50.4 S cm\textsuperscript{2 mol\textsuperscript{–1]

• (1) 0.125
• (2) 0.225
• (3) 0.215
• (4) 0.115

Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to “Lassaigne's test”?

​

The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is:

​

Match List I with List II:

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?

• (1) \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]Cl\)
• (2) \([Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3\)
• (3) \([Co(NH_3)_5Cl]Cl\)
• (4) \([Co(NH_3)_3Cl_3]\)

Sugar ‘X’:


A. is found in honey.

B. is a keto sugar.

C. exists in \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) anomeric forms.

D. is laevorotatory.


‘X’ is:

• (1) D-Fructose
• (2) Sucrose
• (3) Maltose
• (4) D-Glucose

How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound?
CH_3-CH-CH_2-CH_3

• (1) 3
• (2) 6
• (3) 5
• (4) 2

Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?

• (1) 2-Methylhex-2-ene
• (2) 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane
• (3) 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane
• (4) Pent-1-ene

Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product?

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Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values \( K_1 \), \( K_2 \), and \( K_3 \), respectively, while \( K \) is the overall ionization constant.

Which of the following statements are true?

• (1) A and C only
• (2) B, C and D only
• (3) A, B and C only
• (4) A and B only

Among the following, choose the ones with an equal number of atoms.


A. 212 g of Na\textsubscript{2CO\textsubscript{3 (s) [molar mass = 106 g]

B. 248 g of NaNO\textsubscript{3 (s) [molar mass = 62 g]

C. 240 g of NaOH (s) [molar mass = 40 g]

D. 12 g of H\textsubscript{2 (g) [molar mass = 2 g]

E. 220 g of CO\textsubscript{2 (g) [molar mass = 44 g]


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, B, and D only
• (2) B, C, and D only
• (3) B, D, and E only
• (4) A, B, and C only

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.

Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Dalton’s Atomic Theory could not explain which of the following?

• (1) Law of constant proportion
• (2) Law of multiple proportion
• (3) Law of gaseous volume
• (4) Law of conservation of mass

The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is:

• (1) N-ethylmethanamine \(>\) ethanamine \(>\) benzenamine \(>\) N-methylaniline
• (2) N-ethylmethanamine \(>\) ethanamine \(>\) N-methylaniline \(>\) benzenamine
• (3) N-methylaniline \(>\) ethanamine \(>\) benzenamine \(>\) N-ethylmethanamine
• (4) N-methylaniline \(>\) N-ethylmethanamine \(>\) benzenamine \(>\) ethanamine

Which of the following statements are true?


A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point.

B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and C are not the same.

C. Ar, K+, Cl–, Ca2+ and S2– are all isoelectronic species.

D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si is Si \(>\) Al \(>\) Mg \(>\) Na.

E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) C and E only
• (2) C and D only
• (3) A, C, and E only
• (4) A, B, and E only

Match List I with List II:
​


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
• (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol, of Ba{2+} is:


Given: Standard heat of formation of SO₄²⁻(aq) = -216 kcal/mol, standard heat of crystallization of BaSO₄(s) = -4.5 kcal/mol, standard heat of formation of BaSO₄(s) = -349 kcal/mol.

• (1) 133.0
• (2) 133.0 + 133.0
• (3) 220.5
• (4) -128.5

Among the given compounds I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of the C-H bond marked with is:

• (1) I \(>\) II \(>\) III
• (2) III \(>\) II \(>\) I
• (3) II \(>\) I \(>\) III
• (4) I \(>\) III \(>\) II

Predict the major product \( P \) in the following sequence of reactions:


(i) HBr, benzoyl peroxide

(ii) KCN

(iii) Na(Hg), C\textsubscript{2}H\textsubscript{5}OH

• (1) C_6H_5-CH_2-CH_3}
• (2) {C_6H_5-CH_2-NH_2}
• (3) \{C_6H_5-CH_2-CN}
• (4) {C_6H_5-NH_2}

Match List I with List II:

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He\(^+\) and Li\(^2+\) are:
Given: \( R_H = 2.18 \times 10^{-18} \, J, a_0 = 52.9 \, pm \)

• (1) \( E_n (Li^{2+}) = -8.72 \times 10^{-18} \, J, r_n (Li^{2+}) = 26.4 \, pm, E_n (He^{+}) = -19.62 \times 10^{-18} \, J, r_n (He^{+}) = 9.6 \, pm \)
• (2) \( E_n (Li^{2+}) = -19.62 \times 10^{-16} \, J, r_n (Li^{2+}) = 17.6 \, pm, E_n (He^{+}) = -8.72 \times 10^{-16} \, J, r_n (He^{+}) = 26.4 \, pm \)
• (3) \( E_n (Li^{2+}) = -8.72 \times 10^{-16} \, J, r_n (Li^{2+}) = 17.6 \, pm, E_n (He^{+}) = -19.62 \times 10^{-16} \, J, r_n (He^{+}) = 26.4 \, pm \)
• (4) \( E_n (Li^{2+}) = -19.62 \times 10^{-18} \, J, r_n (Li^{2+}) = 17.5 \, pm, E_n (He^{+}) = -8.72 \times 10^{-18} \, J, r_n (He^{+}) = 26.4 \, pm \)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): I\(^-\) undergoes SN\(_2\) reaction faster than Cl\(^-\).

Reason (R): Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (2) A is true but R is false.
• (3) A is false but R is true.
• (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

If the half-life (\(t_{1/2}\)) for a first-order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is closest to:

• (1) 4 minutes
• (2) 5 minutes
• (3) 10 minutes
• (4) 2 minutes

Which of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit the highest boiling point?

• (1) 0.01M KNO₃
• (2) 0.01M H₂SO₄
• (3) 0.01M C₆H₁₂O₆
• (4) 0.01M Urea

Higher yield of NO in the reaction

N\(_2\) (g) + O\(_2\) (g) \(\rightarrow\) 2NO (g)

can be obtained at [\(\Delta H\) of the reaction = +180.7 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)]

• (1) B, C only
• (2) B, C, D only
• (3) A, C, D only
• (4) A, D only

Match List I with List II:

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes n = 2 \(\rightarrow\) n = 3 and n = 4 \(\rightarrow\) n = 6 transitions, respectively, is:

• (1) 1 : 9
• (2) 1 : 36
• (3) 1 : 4
• (4) 1 : 25

The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is:


A. \([ Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)

B. \([ Co(CN)_6]^{3-}\)

C. \([ Cu(H_2O)_4]^{2+}\)

D. \([ Ti(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B \(<\) A \(<\) C \(<\) D
• (2) C \(<\) D \(<\) A \(<\) B
• (3) C \(<\) A \(<\) D \(<\) B
• (4) B \(<\) D \(<\) A \(<\) C

Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned:


A. H\(_2\)O \(>\) NH\(_3\) \(>\) CHCl\(_3\) - dipole moment

B. XeF\(_4\) \(>\) XeO\(_3\) \(>\) XeF\(_2\) - number of lone pairs on central atom

C. O–H \(>\) C–H \(>\) N–O - bond length

D. N\(_2\) > O\(_2\) > H\(_2\) - bond enthalpy


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B, D only
• (2) A, C only
• (3) B, C only
• (4) A, D only

Match List I with List II:

​


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-II

If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s\(^{-1}\), how much time does it take for a 7.2 mol L\(^{-1}\) concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L\(^{-1}\)?

(Given: log 2 = 0.301)

• (1) 23.1 s
• (2) 210 s
• (3) 21.0 s
• (4) 69.3 s

Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?


A. [Ne]3s\(^1\)

B. [Ar]3d\(^3\)4s\(^2\)

C. [Kr]4d\(^5\)3s\(^2\)5p\(^5\)

D. [Ar]3d\(^10\)4s\(^1\)

E. [Rn]5f\(^7\)6d\(^2\)7s\(^2\)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A and C only
• (2) D and E only
• (3) A, C, and D only
• (4) B and E only

Match List I with List II:

​


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapor pressure of 70 torr. The vapor pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr, respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?

• (1) The solution shows negative deviation.
• (2) The solution is ideal.
• (3) The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.
• (4) The solution shows positive deviation.

C(s) + 2H\(_2\)(g) \(\rightarrow\) CH\(_4\)(g); \(\Delta H = -74.8 \, kJ mol^{-1}\)

Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction?

• (1)​
  
• (2)
  ​
• (3)
  ​
• (4)
  ​

Correct Answer: (3) ​
View Solution

Which one of the following compounds does not decolorize bromine water?

• (1) Phenol
• (2) CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)
• (3) NH\(_2\)
• (4) Cyclohexane

Consider the following compounds:

\text{K\(_2\)O\(_2\), H\(_2\)O\(_2\), and H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)

The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively:

• (1) +2, -2, and +6
• (2) +1, -2, and +4
• (3) +4, -4, and +6
• (4) +1, -1, and +6

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Benzendiazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273-278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.

Statement II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzendiazonium salt with KI.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Which of the following are paramagnetic?


A. [NiCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)

B. Ni(CO)\(_4\)

C. [Ni(CN)\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)

D. [Ni(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{2+}\)

E. Ni(PPh\(_3\))\(_4\)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B and E only
• (2) A and D only
• (3) A, D, and E only
• (4) A and C only

Match List - I with List - II:

List - I   List - II

A. Progesterone   I. Pars intermedia

B. Relaxin  II. Ovary

C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone III. Adrenal Medulla

D. Catecholamines   IV. Corpus luteum

• (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce color in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.

Given below are two statements about this method:

Statement I: The blue-colored colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid, and they are identified as recombinant colonies.

Statement II: The colonies without blue color have DNA insert in the plasmid, and are identified as recombinant colonies.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.

Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.

• (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
• (2) A is true but R is false.
• (3) A is false but R is true.
• (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Match List I with List II.

List I   List II

A. Pteridophyte  I. Salvia

B. Bryophyte   II. Ginkgo

C. Angiosperm   III. Polytrichum

D. Gymnosperm  IV. Salvinia

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Match List - I with List - II:

List I   List II

A. Heart   I. Erythropoietin

B. Kidney  II. Aldosterone

C. Gastrointestina  Tract III. Atrial natriuretic factor

D. Adrenal Cortex    IV. Secretin

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

• (1) Francis Crick
• (2) Jacques Monod
• (3) Franklin Stahl
• (4) George Gamow

Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

• (1) KCal m\(^{-2}\)
• (2) KCal m\(^{-2}\) yr\(^{-1}\)
• (3) (KCal m\(^{-2}\)) yr\(^{-1}\)
• (4) gm\(^{-2}\) yr\(^{-1}\)

Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

• (1) Datura
• (2) Pea
• (3) Chilli
• (4) Petunia

Match List I with List II:

List I   List II

A. The Evil Quartet   I. Cryopreservation

B. Ex situ conservation  II. Alien species invasion


C. Lantana camara  III. Causes of biodiversity losses

D. Dodo   IV. Extinction

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  %This option is repeated in original.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In an ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.

Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from the law of thermodynamics.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

• (1) Coenzyme
• (2) Apoenzyme
• (3) Prosthetic group
• (4) Cofactor

Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

• (1) They are fraternal twins.
• (2) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
• (3) They have 75% identical genetic content.
• (4) They are monozygotic twins.

After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like:

A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches

• (1) A, B, C only
• (2) E, A, B only
• (3) C, D, E only
• (4) B, C, D only

In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:

• (1) Liver and kidney
• (2) Kidney and intestine
• (3) Kidney and lower part of body
• (4) Liver and intestine

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase

• (1) A and B only
• (2) D and E only
• (3) B and C only
• (4) C and D only

With the help of the given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in the F\textsubscript{3} generation.


​

• (1) 1/2
• (2) 1/8
• (3) Zero
• (4) 1/4

Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

• (1) Seeds are naked.
• (2) Seeds are absent.
• (3) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
• (4) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.

The first menstruation is called:

• (1) Menarche
• (2) Diapause
• (3) Ovulation
• (4) Menopause

In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following:

• (1) Asexual reproduction
• (2) Nutrient absorption
• (3) Gaseous exchange
• (4) Sexual reproduction

How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

• (1) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
• (2) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
• (3) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
• (4) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:

A. Respiration and Locomotion

B. Excretion and Locomotion

C. Capture and transport of food

D. Digestion and Respiration

E. Digestion and Excretion

• (1) A and C Only
• (2) B and C Only
• (3) B, D and E Only
• (4) A and B Only

Read the following statements on plant growth and development:

A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.

• (1) A, C, E only
• (2) A, D, E only
• (3) B, D, E only
• (4) A, B, C only

Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

• (1) Innate Immunity
• (2) Cell-mediated Immunity
• (3) Humoral Immunity
• (4) Acquired Immunity

Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

• (1) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract.
• (2) Because of structural variation.
• (3) Its bioavailability will be increased.
• (4) Human body will elicit strong immune response.

Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

• (1) dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K
• (2) dN/dt = rN(N-K)/K
• (3) dN/dt = rN(K+N)/K
• (4) dN/dt = rN(K-N)/N

Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of:

• (1) Inhibitory ssRNA
• (2) Complementary dsRNA
• (3) Non-complementary ssRNA
• (4) Complementary dsRNA
  %This option appears twice in the original question

Match List I with List II.

List I   List II

A. Adenosine  I. Nitrogen base

B. Adenylic acid   II. Nucleotide

C. Adenine   III. Nucleoside

D. Alanine  IV. Amino acid

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.

• (1) The statement is true for both the environment.
• (2) The statement is false for water but true for land.
• (3) The statement is false for both the environment.
• (4) The statement is true for water but false for land.

All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

• (1) Endoparasite
• (2) Symbiotic
• (3) Ectoparasite
• (4) Free living

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

• (1) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
• (2) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
• (3) Constant regions of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
• (4) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.

Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.

• (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (2) A is true but R is false.
• (3) A is false but R is true.
• (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Consider the following:

A. The reductive division for human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of male gametogenesis.

B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.

C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.

D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.

• (1) A and C are true
• (2) B and D are true
• (3) B and C are true
• (4) A and B are true

Match List I with List II:

List I   List II

A. Scutellum   I. Persistent nucellus

B. Non-albuminous seed   II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed

C. Epiblast   III. Groundnut

D. Perisperm   IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

• (1) To synthesize new DNA
• (2) To repair damaged DNA
• (3) To regulate cell growth
• (4) To separate the chromosomes

Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

• (1) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
• (2) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
• (3) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
• (4) It is active only in the dark.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in the construction of recombinant DNA.

Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near the anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.

• (1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
• (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
• (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

• (1) \(\sigma\) (sigma)
• (2) \(\rho\) (rho)
• (3) \(\gamma\) (gamma)
• (4) \(\alpha\) (alpha)

Consider the following statements regarding the function of adrenal medullary hormones:

A. It causes pupillary constriction.

B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone.

C. It causes piloerection.

D. It increases the strength of heart contraction.

• (1) B, C and D Only
• (2) A, C and D Only
• (3) D Only
• (4) C and D Only

Histones are enriched with:

• (1) Leucine \& Lysine
• (2) Phenylalanine \& Leucine
• (3) Phenylalanine \& Arginine
• (4) Lysine \& Arginine

Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

• (1) Phenotypic ratio – 3:1
• (2) Phenotypic ratio – 9:3:3:1
• (3) Phenotypic ratio – 9:7
• (4) Phenotypic ratio – 1:2:1

Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

• (1) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
• (2) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
• (3) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
• (4) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Reason (R): The members of subphylum Vertebrata possess a notochord during the embryonic period; the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

• (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (2) A is true but R is false.
• (3) A is false but R is true.
• (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.

Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit a mutual relationship as the fig wasp completes its life cycle in the fig fruit and the fig fruit gets pollinated by the fig wasp.

• (1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
• (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
• (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

• (1) Homology, divergent
• (2) Homology, convergent
• (3) Analogy, divergent
• (4) Analogy, convergent

Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?

A. Aspergillus niger

B. Lactobacillus

C. Trichoderma polysporum

D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

E. Propionibacterium sharmanii

• (1) A and C only
• (2) C and D only
• (3) C and E only
• (4) A and B only

Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.

​

• (1) B
• (2) D
• (3) C
• (4) A

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyzes the following reaction:
\[ S - G + S^{\prime} \rightarrow S + S^{\prime} - G \]
Where \( G \) represents a group other than hydrogen, \( S \) is a substrate, and \( S^{\prime} \) is another substrate.

• (1) Lyase
• (2) Transferase
• (3) Ligase
• (4) Hydrolase

Match List I with List II:
 List I                                   List II
A. Chlorophyll a   I. Yellow-green
B. Chlorophyll b   II. Yellow
C. Xanthophylls   III. Blue-green
D. Carotenoids   IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange
 
Choose the option with all correct matches.

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
• (3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is:

A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.

B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.

C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.

D. Formation of sporophyte.

E. Release148of antherozoids into water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) B, E, A, C, D
• (2) B, E, A, D, C
• (3) D, E, A, B, C
• (4) D, E, A, C, B

Match List I with List II:
List I         List II
A. Centromere   I. Mitochondrion
B. Cilium   II. Cell division
C. Cristae   III. Cell movement
D. Cell membrane   IV. Phospholipid Bilayer


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Find the correct statements:

A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.

B. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.

C. In human pregnancy, heart is formed after one month of gestation.

D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.

E. In human pregnancy, the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B and C Only
• (2) B, C, D and E Only
• (3) A, C, D and E Only
• (4) A and E Only

Each of the following characteristics represents a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.

A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.

B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.

C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.

D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.

E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) C, E, A, D, B
• (2) A, C, E, D, B
• (3) C, E, A, B, D
• (4) C, E, A, C, B

Which are correct?

A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.

B. Chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.

C. \( \alpha \)-interferon activates the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.

D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.

E. In the case of leukemia, blood cell counts are decreased.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) D and E only
• (2) C and D only
• (3) A and C only
• (4) B and D only

Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

• (1) Yeast
• (2) Virus
• (3) Phage
• (4) Bacterium

What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

• (1) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
• (2) Autosomal dominant pattern
• (3) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
• (4) Mendelian inheritance pattern

Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?

(A) Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.

(B) Removal of introns and joining of exons.

(C) Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.

(D) Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.

(E) Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B, C, D only
• (2) B, C, E only
• (3) C, D, E only
• (4) A, B, C only

Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

• (1) Abscisic acid
• (2) Gibberellin
• (3) Cytokinin
• (4) Ethylene

Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

• (1) Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
• (2) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
• (3) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
• (4) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

Match List I with List II:
List I                             List II 
A. Emphysema  I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca^{++} in body fluid
B. Angina Pectoris   II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface
C. Glomerulonephritis III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle
D. Tetany   IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

• (1) Mutualism
• (2) Predation
• (3) Amensalism
• (4) Commensalism

Match List I with List II:
List-I                         List-II 
A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase   IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation
B. Euchromatin  III. Loosely packed and light-stained
C. Frederick Griffith   I. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Heterochromatin   II. Densely packed and dark-stained


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

• (1) Chromosome Y
• (2) Chromosome 1
• (3) Chromosome 10
• (4) Chromosome X

What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?

A. High fatality risk to mother

B. Expensive instruments and reagents

C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors

D. Less adoption of orphans

E. Not available in India

F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, C, D, F only
• (2) A, B, C, D only
• (3) A, B, C, E, F only
• (4) B, D, F only

Match List I with List II:
List-I                    List-II
A. Head   IV. Genetic material
B. Middle piece   III. Energy
C. Acrosome   I. Enzymes
D. Tail   II. Sperm motility

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

From the statements given below, choose the correct option:

(A) The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

(B) Each ribosome has two sub-units.

(C) The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

(D) The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.

(E) The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, B, D are true
• (2) A, B, E are true
• (3) B, D, E are true
• (4) A, B, C are true

Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

• (1) Brandy
• (2) Beer
• (3) Rum
• (4) Whisky

Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

• (1) Ramdeo Misra
• (2) Ram Udar
• (3) Birbal Sahni
• (4) S. R. Kashyap

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:

• (1) Coleorhiza
• (2) Integument
• (3) Aleurone layer
• (4) Coleoptile

Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

• (1) First digit of hind limb
• (2) Second digit of fore limb
• (3) First digit of the fore limb
• (4) First and second digit of fore limb

A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication, and respiration is:

• (1) Chromatophores
• (2) Cristae
• (3) Endoplasmic Reticulum
• (4) Mesosome

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.

Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

• (1) Pulmonary artery
• (2) Pulmonary vein
• (3) Vena cava
• (4) Aorta

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.

Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repair mechanisms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

• (1) Wildlife Sanctuary
• (2) Zoos and botanical gardens
• (3) Protected areas
• (4) National Park

Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Heme' as the prosthetic group?

• (1) Carbonic anhydrase
• (2) Succinate dehydrogenase
• (3) Catalase
• (4) Rubisco

Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.

A. Prothallus stage

B. Meiosis in spore mother cells

C. Fertilisation

D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte

E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B, A, E, C, D
• (2) D, E, C, A, B
• (3) E, D, C, B, A
• (4) B, A, D, E, C

Which of the following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter

B. Oscillatoria

C. Anabaena

D. Volvox

E. Nostoc

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) D only
• (2) B only
• (3) E only
• (4) A only

While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelom of that animal?

• (1) Pseudocoelomate
• (2) Schizocoelomate
• (3) Spongocoelomate
• (4) Acoelomate

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a floral formula, \( \oplus \) stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and \( G \) stands for the interior ovary.

Statement II: In a floral formula, \( \oplus \) stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower, and \( G \) stands for the superior ovary.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.

Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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Last Minute Tips for NEET from Toppers

Based on expert analysis of NEET previous year papers, expert opinions, the NEET 2025 Question Paper is expected to be of a moderate difficulty level.