NEET 2025 Question Paper with Solution (Available): Download NEET 2025 Answer Key 47

The current passing through the battery in the given circuit is:
  (1) 1.5 A
  (2) 2.0 A
  (3) 0.5 A
  (4) 2.5 A

The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:
\( E_x = 60 \cos( (5x + 1.5 \times 10^9)t ) \, V/m \)

Then, the expression for the corresponding magnetic field is:

• (1) \( B_y = 60 \sin( (5x + 1.5 \times 10^9)t ) \, T \)
• (2) \( B_y = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos( (5x + 1.5 \times 10^9)t ) \, T \)
• (3) \( B_z = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos( (5x + 1.5 \times 10^9)t ) \, T \)
• (4) \( B_z = 60 \cos( (5x + 1.5 \times 10^9)t ) \, T \)

A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency \( f \) in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:

• (1) \( 2f \)
• (2) \( \frac{f}{2} \)
• (3) \( f \)
• (4) \( \frac{3f}{2} \)

An electron (mass \( 9 \times 10^{-31} \, kg \) and charge \( 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, C \)) moving with speed \( \frac{c}{100} \) (where \( c \) is the speed of light, \( c = 3 \times 10^8 \, m/s \)) is injected into a magnetic field \( \mathbf{B} \) of magnitude \( 9 \times 10^{-4} \, T \), perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply an electric field \( \mathbf{E} \) together with the uniform magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light \( c = 3 \times 10^8 \, m/s \)):

• (1) \( \mathbf{E} \) is parallel to \( \mathbf{B} \) and its magnitude is \( 27 \times 10^4 \, V/m \)
• (2) \( \mathbf{E} \) is perpendicular to \( \mathbf{B} \) and its magnitude is \( 27 \times 10^4 \, V/m \)
• (3) \( \mathbf{E} \) is perpendicular to \( \mathbf{B} \) and its magnitude is \( 27 \times 10^2 \, V/m \)
• (4) \( \mathbf{E} \) is parallel to \( \mathbf{B} \) and its magnitude is \( 27 \times 10^2 \, V/m \)

In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification \( m \) for each lens will be, respectively:

• (1) \( p^4 \) and \( m^4 \)
• (2) \( 4p \) and \( 4m \)
• (3) \( p^4 \) and \( 4m \)
• (4) \( 4p \) and \( m^4 \)

A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be:

• (1) 4:1
• (2) 1:4
• (3) 1:2
• (4) 2:1

A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is:
  (1) 3.0 A

• (2) 1.5 A
• (3) 2.0 A
• (4) 2.5 A

Two gases A and B are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius \( r_A \) and \( r_B \), respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant pressure, the pistons of gas A and B are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm, respectively. If the change in their internal energy is the same, then the ratio \( \frac{r_A}{r_B} \) is equal to:

• (1) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
• (3) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
• (4) \( \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \)

A container has two chambers of volumes \( V_1 = 2 \) liters and \( V_2 = 3 \) liters separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contain \( n_1 = 5 \) and \( n_2 = 4 \) moles of ideal gas at pressures \( p_1 = 1 \) atm and \( p_2 = 2 \) atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of:

• (1) 1.8 atm
• (2) 1.3 atm
• (3) 1.6 atm
• (4) 1.4 atm

The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?

• (1) 124 Earth days
• (2) 88 Earth days
• (3) 225 Earth days
• (4) 172 Earth days

To an AC power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of \( 20 \, \Omega \), a capacitor of reactance \( 45 \, \Omega \), and an inductor of reactance \( 45 \, \Omega \) are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage are, respectively:

• (1) 15.6 A and \( 30^\circ \)
• (2) 7.8 A and \( 30^\circ \)
• (3) 7.8 A and \( 45^\circ \)
• (4) 15.6 A and \( 30^\circ \)

A wire of resistance \( R \) is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces, two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of them together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is:

• (1) \( \frac{R}{8} \)
• (2) \( \frac{R}{64} \)
• (3) \( \frac{R}{32} \)
• (4) \( \frac{R}{16} \)

The output \( Y \) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an:

• (1) NOR
• (2) AND
• (3) NAND
• (4) OR

Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centers separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is \( q \) and the force of repulsion between them is \( F \). A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as:

• (1) \( \frac{3F}{8} \)
• (2) \( \frac{3F}{5} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2F}{3} \)
• (4) \( \frac{F}{2} \)

Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier calliper. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least division in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at \( x = 0.1 \, cm \) when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed. If the main scale reading for the diameter is \( M = 5 \) cm and the number of coinciding Vernier divisions is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction is:

• (1) 5.00 cm
• (2) 5.18 cm
• (3) 5.08 cm
• (4) 4.98 cm

In some appropriate units, time \( t \) and position \( x \) relation of a moving particle is given by \( t = x^2 + x \). The acceleration of the particle is:

• (1) \( \frac{2}{2x+1} \)
• (2) \( \frac{2}{x+2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2}{(2x+1)^2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{2}{(x+1)^3} \)

Which of the following options represent the variation of photoelectric current with the property of light shown on the x-axis?

• (1) B and D
• (2) A only
• (3) A and C
• (4) A and D

A particle of mass \( m \) is moving around the origin with a constant force \( F \) pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius \( r \) of the \( n^{th} \) orbit and the particle's speed \( v \) in the orbit depend on \( n \) as:

• (1) \( r \propto n^{4/3}, \, v \propto n^{-1/3} \)
• (2) \( r \propto n^{1/3}, \, v \propto n^{1/3} \)
• (3) \( r \propto n^{1/3}, \, v \propto n^{2/3} \)
• (4) \( r \propto n^{2/3}, \, v \propto n^{1/3} \)

A bob of mass \( m \) is suspended by a light string of length \( l \). The bob is given a horizontal velocity \( v_0 \) as shown in the figure. If the string gets slack at some point \( P \) making an angle \( \theta \) from the horizontal, the ratio of the speed \( v \) of the bob at point \( P \) to its initial speed \( v_0 \) is:

• (1) \( \left( \frac{\sin \theta}{2 + 3 \sin \theta} \right)^{1/2} \)
• (2) \( (\sin \theta)^{1/2} \)
• (3) \( \left( \frac{2 + 3 \sin \theta}{\sin \theta} \right)^{1/2} \)
• (4) \( \left( \frac{2 + 3 \sin \theta}{\cos \theta} \right)^{1/2} \)

A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) is shown in the figure. If the input supply voltage \( V_{in} = 220 \sin(100 \pi t) \) volt, then at \( t = 15 \, msec \):

• (1) \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) both are reverse biased.
• (2) \( D_1 \) is forward biased, \( D_2 \) is reverse biased.
• (3) \( D_1 \) is reverse biased, \( D_2 \) is forward biased.
• (4) \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) both are forward biased.

A balloon is made of a material of surface tension \( S \) and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in) has small area \( A \). It is filled with a gas of density \( \rho \) and takes a spherical shape of radius \( R \). When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius \( r \) changes from \( R \) to 0 (zero) in time \( T \). If the speed \( v(r) \) of gas coming out of the balloon depends on \( r \) as \( v \propto r^\alpha \) and \( T \propto r^\beta \rho^\gamma S^\delta R^\epsilon \), then the relations for \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma, \delta, \epsilon \) are:

• (1) \( \alpha = \frac{1}{2}, \, \beta = \frac{1}{2}, \, \gamma = -\frac{1}{2}, \, \delta = \frac{7}{2} \)
• (2) \( \alpha = 1, \, \beta = -1, \, \gamma = 1, \, \delta = 3 \)
• (3) \( \alpha = \frac{1}{2}, \, \beta = -1, \, \gamma = 1, \, \delta = 5/2 \)
• (4) \( \alpha = \frac{1}{2}, \, \beta = -1, \, \gamma = \frac{1}{2}, \, \delta = 2 \)

A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm, and tube length of 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of the eye is 25 cm, the magnification in the microscope is:

• (1) 250
• (2) 100
• (3) 125
• (4) 150

Two identical point masses \( P \) and \( Q \), suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants \( k_1 \) and \( k_2 \), respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio \( \frac{A_Q}{A_P} \) of the amplitude \( A_Q \) of mass \( Q \) to the amplitude \( A_P \) of mass \( P \) is:

• (1) \( \frac{k_1}{k_2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{k_2}{k_1} \)
• (3) \( \frac{k_1}{k_2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{k_2}{k_1} \)

A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:

• (1) zero between the plates and non-zero outside.
• (2) zero at all places.
• (3) constant between the plates and zero outside the plates.
• (4) non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting the peripheries of the plates.

An electric dipole with dipole moment \( 5 \times 10^{-6} \, Cm \) is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude \( 3 \times 10^5 \, N/C \). The dipole is then rotated through an angle of \( 60^\circ \) with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:

• (1) 1.5 J
• (2) 0.8 J
• (3) 1.0 J
• (4) 1.2 J

There are two inclined surfaces of equal length \( L \) and the same angle of inclination \( 45^\circ \) with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on the rough surface as on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction \( \mu_k \) between the object and the rough surface is close to:

• (1) 0.75
• (2) 0.25
• (3) 0.40
• (4) 0.5

De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the \( n = 2 \) state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius \( r_0 = 0.052 \, nm \)):

• (1) 2.67 nm
• (2) 0.067 nm
• (3) 0.67 nm
• (4) 1.67 nm

The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.

• (1) 108 days
• (2) 100 days
• (3) 105 days
• (4) 115 days

A physical quantity \( P \) is related to four observations \( a, b, c, d \) as follows: \[ P = a^3 b^2 / c d^n \]
The percentage errors of measurement in \( a, b, c, d \) are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4%, respectively. The percentage error in the quantity \( P \) is:

• (1) 15%
• (2) 10%
• (3) 2%
• (4) 13%

The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by \( d \). Two slabs of different dielectric constant \( K_1 \) and \( K_2 \) with thickness \( \frac{3}{8}d \) and \( \frac{d}{2} \), respectively, are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. If \( K_1 = 1.33 \), \( K_2 = 2.66 \), the value of \( K_1 \) is:

• (1) 1.33
• (2) 2.66
• (3) 2.33
• (4) 1.60

A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take \( g = 9.8 \, m/s^2 \)):

• (1) 84 N·s
• (2) 21 N·s
• (3) 7 N·s
• (4) 0 N·s

Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every \( T \) min. A girl is driving a scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period \( T \) of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.

• (1) 15 min, 120 km/h
• (2) 9 min, 40 km/h
• (3) 25 min, 100 km/h
• (4) 10 min, 90 km/h

An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature 27°C. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to:

• (1) 0.156 kg
• (2) 0.125 kg
• (3) 0.144 kg
• (4) 0.116 kg

AB is part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference \( V_A - V_B \), at the instant when current \( i = 2 \, A \) and is increasing at a rate of 3 A/sec, is:

• (1) 10 V
• (2) 5 V
• (3) 6 V
• (4) 9 V

In an oscillating spring-mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency \( \omega(t) \) and average amplitude \( A(t) \) of the system change with time \( t \). Which one of the following options schematically depicts these changes correctly?

A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field \( B \) states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is \( n \Phi_0 \), where \( n \) is an integer, \( h \) is Planck's constant and \( e \) is the magnitude of the electron's charge. According to this model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be \( \mu \), where \( m \) is the mass of the electron:

• (1) \( \frac{h e B}{2nm} \)
• (2) \( \frac{h e}{2nm} \)
• (3) \( \frac{h e}{nm} \)
• (4) \( \frac{he B}{nm} \)

A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:

• (1) 36 N
• (2) 16 N
• (3) 27 N
• (4) 32 N

Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at \( x = L \) and can be taken to be very wide in the \( z \)-direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension \( S \) and density \( \rho \), the liquid surface makes angle \( \theta_0 \) (\( \theta_0 \ll 1 \)) with the \( x \)-axis at \( x = L \). If \( y(x) \) is the height of the surface, then the equation for \( y(x) \) is:

• (1) \( \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{\rho S x}{g} \)
• (2) \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \frac{\rho S x}{g} \)
• (3) \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \frac{\rho S}{g} \)
• (4) \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \frac{\rho S}{g x} \)

The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at \( 22.5^\circ \) from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is ( \( I_0 \) is the intensity of polarized light after passing through the first polaroid):

• (1) \( \frac{I_0}{16} \)
• (2) \( \frac{I_0}{2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{I_0}{8} \)
• (4) \( I_0 \)

A photon and an electron (mass \( m \)) have the same energy \( E \). The ratio \( \frac{\lambda_{photon}}{\lambda_{electron}} \) of their de-Broglie wavelengths is: ( \( c \) is the speed of light)

• (1) \( \frac{1}{c} \sqrt{\frac{E}{2m}} \)
• (2) \( \sqrt{\frac{E}{2m}} \)
• (3) \( \sqrt{\frac{2m}{E}} \)
• (4) \( \sqrt{\frac{2mE}{c}} \)

An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then:

• (1) transmitted light is completely polarized with angle of refraction close to \( 30^\circ \) and the angle of reflection is close to \( 60^\circ \).
• (2) reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to \( 30^\circ \).
• (3) reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to \( 30^\circ \).
• (4) both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and refraction close to \( 60^\circ \) and \( 30^\circ \), respectively.

A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of \( 60^\circ \) with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (take \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \)):

• (1) \( 100 \sqrt{3} \, N \)
• (2) \( 100 \, N \)
• (3) \( 200 \, N \)
• (4) \( 200 \sqrt{3} \, N \)

Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity \( 2K \) while that in the middle has thermal conductivity \( K \). The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature \( 3T \) and the right end at \( T \). The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is \( T_1 \) and that at the right junction is \( T_2 \). The ratio \( T_1 / T_2 \) is:

• (1) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
• (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are \( 100 \, J \) and \( 225 \, J \), respectively. On applying breaks, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If \( F_A \) and \( F_B \) are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio \( F_A / F_B \) is:

• (1) \( 1 \)
• (2) \( 2 \)
• (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

A sphere of radius \( R \) is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius \( 2R \) as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the \( Y \)-axis is:

• (1) \( \frac{7}{8} \)
• (2) \( \frac{7}{4} \)
• (3) \( \frac{5}{7} \)
• (4) \( \frac{7}{57} \)

If the molar conductivity \( \Lambda_m \) of a 0.050 mol L\(^{-1}\) solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\), its extent (degree) of dissociation will be:

• (1) 0.215
• (2) 0.115
• (3) 0.125
• (4) 0.225

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.

Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes \( n = 2 \to n = 3 \) and \( n = 4 \to n = 6 \) transitions, respectively, is:

• (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
• (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
• (4) \( 1 \)

The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is:

A. \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \)

B. \( [Co(CN)_6]^{3-} \)

C. \( [Cu(H_2O)_4]^{2+} \)

D. \( [Ti(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) C < A < D < B
• (2) B < A < D < C
• (3) B < A < D < C
• (4) C < A < D < B

If the rate constant \( k \) of a reaction is 0.03 s\(^{-1}\), how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L\(^{-1}\) concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L\(^{-1}\)? (Given: \( \log 2 = 0.301 \))

• (1) 21.0 s
• (2) 69.3 s
• (3) 23.1 s
• (4) 210 s

Match List I with List II

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II (Method of Separation)

I. \( Aniline + water \) \hspace{1cm I. Distillation under reduced pressure

II. \( Crude oil + petroleum industry \) \hspace{1cm II. Steam distillation

III. \( Glycerol from spent-lye \) \hspace{1cm III. Fractional distillation

IV. \( NH_4 \) \hspace{1cm IV. Simple distillation


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

The major product of the following reaction is:

Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?

• (1) 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane
• (2) Pent-1-ene
• (3) 2-Methylhex-2-ene
• (4) 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane

Among the following, choose the ones with equal number of atoms:

A. 212 g of \( Na_2CO_3 (s) \) [molar mass = 106 g/mol]

B. 248 g of \( Na_2O \) [molar mass = 62 g/mol]

C. 240 g of \( NaOH \) [molar mass = 40 g/mol]

D. 12 g of \( H_2 \) [molar mass = 2 g/mol]

E. 220 g of \( CO_2 \) [molar mass = 44 g/mol]


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B, D, and E only
• (2) A, B, and C only
• (3) A, B, and D only
• (4) B, C, and D only

Among the given compounds I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of C–H bond marked with * is:

• (1) II > III > I
• (2) II > I > III
• (3) I > II > III
• (4) III > II > I

The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol of \( Ba^{2+} \), is:
[Given: standard heat of formation of \( SO_4^{2-} \) ion (aq) = -216 kcal/mol, standard heat of crystallization of \( BaSO_4 \) (s) = -4.5 kcal/mol, standard heat of formation of \( BaSO_4 \) (s) = -349 kcal/mol]

• (1) 220.5
• (2) 128.5
• (3) -133.0
• (4) 133.0

Consider the following compounds: \( K_2O, H_2O_2, H_2SO_4 \)
The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively:

• (1) +4, +1, and +6
• (2) +1, +1, and +6
• (3) +2, -1, and +6
• (4) +1, -2, and +4

Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?

• (1) \( [Co(NH_3)_5]^{3+} \)Cl
• (2) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \)Cl
• (3) \( [Co(NH_3)_4]^{2+} \)Cl
• (4) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \)Cl_3

Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product?

Which of the following are paramagnetic?

A. \( [NiCl_4]^{2-} \)

B. \( Ni(CO)_4 \)

C. \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \)

D. \( [Ni(H_2O)_6]^{2+} \)

E. \( Ni(PPh_3)_4 \)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, D, and E only
• (2) A and C only
• (3) B and E only
• (4) A and D only

Which one of the following compounds does not decolorize bromine water?

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.

Statement II: The number of unpaired electrons in a \( Cu^{2+} \) ion (Z = 24) is the same as that of a \( Nd^{3+} \) ion (Z = 60).


In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

If the half-life (\( t_{1/2} \)) for a first-order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is closest to:

• (1) 10 minutes
• (2) 2 minutes
• (3) 4 minutes
• (4) 5 minutes

The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is:

A. \( benzamine > ethanamine \)

B. \( N-methylamine > N-ethylamine \)

C. \( N-ethylamine > N-methylamine \)

D. \( N-methylamine > N-ethylaniline \)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, D, and E only
• (2) A and C only
• (3) B and E only
• (4) A and D only

Match List I with List II

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II (Group Number in Cation Analysis)

A. \( Co^{2+} \) \hspace{1cm I. Group-I

B. \( Mn^{2+} \) \hspace{1cm II. Group-III

C. \( Pb^{2+} \) \hspace{1cm III. Group-IV

D. \( Al^{3+} \) \hspace{1cm IV. Group-VI


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values \( K_a1, K_a2, K_a3 \), respectively, while \( K \) is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true?

• (1) \( \log K_1 = \log K_a1 + \log K_a2 + \log K_a3 \)
• (2) \( H_3PO_4 \) is a stronger acid than \( H_2PO_4^- \)
• (3) \( K_a1 > K_a2 > K_a3 \)
• (4) \( K_a3 \) is the overall ionization constant.

Which of the following statements are true?
A. Unlike \( Ga \) that has a very high melting point, \( Cs \) has a very low melting point.

B. On the Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of \( Na \), \( Mg \), \( Al \), and \( Cl \) are not the same.

C. \( K^+, Ca^{2+}, S^{2-} \) are all isoelectronic species.

D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of \( Na \), \( Mg \), \( Al \), and \( Cl \) is \( Si > Al > Mg > Na \).

E. The atomic radius of \( Cs \) is greater than that of \( Li \) and \( Rb \).


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, C, and E only
• (2) A and C only
• (3) B and E only
• (4) C and D only

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsenic pentoxide.

Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.


In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Which of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit the highest boiling point?

• (1) 0.015 M \( C_6 H_{12} O_6 \)
• (2) 0.01 M Urea
• (3) 0.01 M KNO\(_3\)
• (4) 0.01 M Na\(_2\)SO\(_4\)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Benzene diazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273 - 278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.

Statement II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzene diazonium salt with KI.


In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion:

• (1) \( H_2 \)/ Pd-BaSO\(_4\)
• (2) \( LiAlH_4 \), \( H_2O \)
• (3) \( AlH_3(Bu_2) \), \( H_2O \)
• (4) \( NaBH_4 \), \( H_2O \)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Iodine undergoes \( S_N2 \) reaction faster than \( Cl^- \).

Reason (R): Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.


In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A is false but R is true
• (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
• (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
• (4) A is true but R is false

The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is:


%Options
A. \( HCOOH > (CH_3)_2COOH > (CH_3)_3COOH > CH_3COOH \)

B. \( (CH_3)_2COOH > (CH_3)_3COOH > CH_3COOH > HCOOH \)

C. \( CH_3COOH > (CH_3)_2COOH > HCOOH > (CH_3)_3COOH \)

D. \( (CH_3)_3COOH > (CH_3)_2COOH > HCOOH > CH_3COOH \)

Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to "Lassaigné's test"?

• (1) \( CuO + C \to 2Cu + CO_2 \)
• (2) \( Na + C \to NaCN \)
• (3) \( 2Na + S \to Na_2S \)
• (4) \( Na + X \to NaX \)

How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound?

\[ CH_3 CH_2 CH_2 CH_3 \]

• (1) 6
• (2) 2
• (3) 3
• (4) 5

Sugar 'X'
A. is found in honey.

B. is a keto sugar.

C. exists in \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \)-anomeric forms.

D. is laevorotatory.


'X' is:

• (1) Sucrose
• (2) D-Glucose
• (3) D-Fructose
• (4) Maltose

Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?

• (1) Law of gases volume
• (2) Law of conservation of mass
• (3) Law of constant proportion
• (4) Law of multiple proportion

Higher yield of \( NO_2 \) in \( N_2 (g) + O_2 (g) \to 2 NO_2 (g) \) can be obtained at:
[ \( \Delta H \) of the reaction = +180.7 kJ/mol ]

• (1) Higher temperature
• (2) Lower temperature
• (3) Higher concentration of \( N_2 \)
• (4) Higher concentration of \( O_2 \)

Match List I with List II

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. \( XeO_3 \) \hspace{0.5cm I. \( sp^2 \): linear

B. \( XeF_2 \) \hspace{0.5cm II. \( sp^3 \): pyramidal

C. \( XeO_4 \) \hspace{0.5cm III. \( sp^3 \): distorted octahedral

D. \( XeF_6 \) \hspace{0.5cm IV. \( sp^3d^2 \): square pyramidal


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Match List I with List II

List I (Example) \hspace{0.5cm List II (Type of Solution)

A. Humidity \hspace{0.5cm I. Solid in solid

B. Alloys \hspace{0.5cm II. Liquid in gas

C. Amalgams \hspace{0.5cm III. Solid in gas

D. Smoke \hspace{0.5cm IV. Liquid in solid


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of \( He^+ \) and \( Li^{2+} \) are:

Given \( R_H = 2.18 \times 10^{-18} \, J \), \( a_0 = 52.9 \, pm \)

• (1) \( E_n (Li^{2+}) = 17.6 \, pm \)
• (2) \( E_n (Li^{2+}) = 19.62 \times 10^{-18} \, J \)
• (3) \( E_n (Li^{2+}) = 17.6 \, J \)
• (4) \( E_n (Li^{2+}) = 19.62 \times 10^{-16} \, J \)

Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?

A. \( [Ne] 3s^1 \)

B. \( [Ar] 3d^3 4s^2 \)

C. \( [Kr] 4d^{10} 5s^2 5p^1 \)

D. \( [Ar] 3d^10 4s^1 \)

E. \( [Rn] 5f^6 6d^7 7s^2 \)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, C, and D only
• (2) B and E only
• (3) A and C only
• (4) D and E only

Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction? \[ C(s) + 2H_2(g) \rightarrow CH_4(g) \quad \Delta H = -74.8 \, kJ mol^{-1} \]

Predict the major product 'P' in the following sequence of reactions:

Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned:
A. \( H_2O > NH_3 > CH_3Cl \) – dipole moment

B. \( XeF_4 > XeO_3 > XeF_2 \) – number of lone pairs on central atom

C. \( O-H > C-H > N-O \) – bond length

D. \( N_2 O_2 > H_2 \) – bond enthalpy


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B, C only
• (2) A, D only
• (3) B and E only
• (4) C and D only

Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula \( C_4H_8O \) is:

• (1) 8
• (2) 6
• (3) 3
• (4) 10

For the reaction \( A(g) \rightleftharpoons B(g) \), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K.

Given: \( R = 0.0831 \, L atm mol^{-1} K^{-1} \), \( K_p \) for the reaction at 1000 K is:

• (1) 0.021
• (2) 83.1
• (3) \( 2.077 \times 10^5 \)
• (4) 0.033

5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapor pressure of 70 torr. The vapor pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?

• (1) The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.
• (2) The solution shows positive deviation.
• (3) The solution shows negative deviation.
• (4) The solution is ideal.

Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

• (1) \( Kcal m^{-2} yr^{-1} \)
• (2) \( gm^{-2} \)
• (3) \( Kcal m^{-2} \)
• (4) \( Kcal m^{-3} \)

The first menstruation is called:

• (1) Ovulation
• (2) Menopause
• (3) Menarche
• (4) Diapause

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A is false but R is true
• (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
• (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
• (4) A is true but R is false

Genes \( R \) and \( Y \) follow independent assortment.
If \( RRYy \) produce round yellow seeds and \( rryy \) produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

• (1) Phenotypic ratio = 9:3:3:1
• (2) Phenotypic ratio = 1:2:2:1
• (3) Phenotypic ratio = 3:1
• (4) Phenotypic ratio = 9:3:3:1

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.

Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

• (1) To regulate cell growth
• (2) To separate the chromosomes
• (3) To synthesize new DNA
• (4) To repair damaged DNA

How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

• (1) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
• (2) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
• (3) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
• (4) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

A. Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at the C-terminus of antibody molecules.

B. Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.

C. The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.

D. Antigen binding site is located at the C-terminal region of antibody molecules.

• (1) A is correct
• (2) B is correct
• (3) C is correct
• (4) D is correct

Consider the following:

A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.

B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.

C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.

D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B and C are true
• (2) A and C are true
• (3) A and B are true
• (4) B and D are true

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.

Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.


In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) A is false but R is true
• (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
• (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
• (4) A is true but R is false

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce color in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.

Given below are two statements about this method:

Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.

Statement II: The colonies without blue color have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

• (1) Gaseous exchange
• (2) Sexual reproduction
• (3) Asexual reproduction
• (4) Nutrient absorption

Match List I with List II

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. Adenosine \hspace{0.5cm I. Nitrogen base

B. Adenylic acid \hspace{0.5cm II. Nucleotide

C. Adenine \hspace{0.5cm III. Nucleoside

D. Alanine \hspace{0.5cm IV. Amino acid


Choose the option with all correct matches:

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

With the help of the given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.

• (1) Zero
• (2) 1/4
• (3) 1/2
• (4) 1/8

Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:

A. It causes pupillary constriction

B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone

C. It causes piloerection

D. It increases strength of heart contraction


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, C, and D only
• (2) C and D only
• (3) B, C and D only
• (4) A, C and D only

Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

• (1) Chilli
• (2) Petunia
• (3) Datura
• (4) Pea

Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

• (1) Franklin Stahl
• (2) George Gamow
• (3) Francis Crick
• (4) Jacques Monod

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy from sun producers to consumers.

Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
• (2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
• (3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
• (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

• (1) Analogy, divergent
• (2) Analogy, convergent
• (3) Homology, divergent
• (4) Homology, convergent

All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

• (1) Ectoparasite
• (2) Free living
• (3) Endoparasite
• (4) Symbiotic

Histones are enriched with -

• (1) Phenylalanine & Arginine
• (2) Lysine & Arginine
• (3) Leucine & Lysine
• (4) Phenylalanine & Leucine

Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

• (1) \( \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( 1 - \frac{N}{K} \right) \)
• (2) \( \frac{dN}{dt} = r \left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right) \)
• (3) \( \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right) \)
• (4) \( \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( N-K \right) \)

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.

Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.


In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A is false but R is true
• (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
• (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
• (4) A is true but R is false

Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

• (1) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
• (2) It is actively only in the dark.
• (3) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
• (4) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.

Match List I with List II

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. Progesterone \hspace{0.5cm I. Pars intermedia

B. Relaxin \hspace{0.5cm II. Ovary

C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone \hspace{0.5cm III. Adrenal Medulla

D. Catecholamines \hspace{0.5cm IV. Corpus luteum


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

• (1) Prosthetic group
• (2) Cofactor
• (3) Coenzyme
• (4) Aponenzyme

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

A. Restriction enzymes

B. DNA ligase

C. DNA polymerase

D. DNA recombinase

E. DNA polymerase


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B and C only
• (2) C and D only
• (3) A and B only
• (4) D and E only

Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

• (1) Humoral Immunity
• (2) Acquired Immunity
• (3) Innate Immunity
• (4) Cell-mediated Immunity

Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

• (1) \( \gamma \) (gamma)
• (2) \( \alpha \) (alpha)
• (3) \( \sigma \) (sigma)
• (4) \( \rho \) (rho)

Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

• (1) Adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
• (2) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
• (3) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
• (4) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?

• (1) Aspergillus niger
• (2) Lactobacillus
• (3) Trichoderma polyspermum
• (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.

Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
• (2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
• (3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
• (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:

A. Respiration and Locomotion

B. Excretion and Locomotion

C. Capture and transport of food

D. Digestion and Respiration

E. Digestion and Excretion


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B, D, and E only
• (2) A and B only
• (3) A and C only
• (4) B and C only

After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/ tissue(s) like:

A. Thymus

B. Bone marrow

C. Spleen

D. Peyer's patches


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) C, D, E only
• (2) B, C only
• (3) A, B, C only
• (4) E, A, B only

Match List I with List II:

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. The Evil Quartet \hspace{0.5cm I. Cryopreservation

B. Ex situ conservation \hspace{0.5cm II. Alien species invasion

C. Lantana camara \hspace{0.5cm III. Causes of biodiversity losses

D. Dodo \hspace{0.5cm IV. Extinction


Choose the option with all correct matches:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Read the following statements on plant growth and development.

A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.

B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.

C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.

D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.

E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B, D, E only
• (2) A, B, C only
• (3) A, C, E only
• (4) A, D, E only

Match List I with List II

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. Pteridophyte \hspace{0.5cm I. Salvia

B. Bryophyte \hspace{0.5cm II. Ginkgo

C. Angiosperm \hspace{0.5cm III. Polythricum

D. Gymnosperm \hspace{0.5cm IV. Salvina


Choose the option with all correct matches:

• (1) A-IV, B-II, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

• (1) Its bioavailability will be increased
• (2) Human body will elicit strong immune response
• (3) It will be digested in the Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
• (4) Because of structural variation

Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

• (1) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction
• (2) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
• (3) Seeds are naked.
• (4) Seeds are absent.

Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

• (1) The statement is false for both the environment
• (2) The statement is true for water but false for land
• (3) The statement is true for both the environment
• (4) The statement is false for water but true for land

Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

• (1) Non-complementary ssRNA
• (2) Complementary dsRNA
• (3) Inhibitory ssRNA
• (4) Complementary tRNA

Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

• (1) They have 75% identical genetic content.
• (2) They are monozygotic twins.
• (3) They are fraternal twins.
• (4) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.

Match List I with List II:

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. Scutellum \hspace{0.5cm I. Persistent nucleus

B. Non-albuminous seed \hspace{0.5cm II. Cotyledon of monocot seed

C. Epiblast \hspace{0.5cm III. Groundnut

D. Perisperm \hspace{0.5cm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon


Choose the option with all correct matches:

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-II

In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:

• (1) Kidney and lower part of body
• (2) Liver and intestine
• (3) Liver and kidney
• (4) Kidney and intestine

Match List I with List II

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. Heart \hspace{0.5cm I. Erythropoietin

B. Kidney \hspace{0.5cm II. Aldosterone

C. Gastro-intestinal tract \hspace{0.5cm III. Atrial natriuretic factor

D. Adrenal Cortex \hspace{0.5cm IV. Secretin


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:

• (1) A, B and D Only
• (2) A, B and C Only
• (3) A, B, C and D
• (4) A, C and D Only

Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for:

• (1) Removing clots from blood vessels
• (2) Curd production
• (3) Ethanol production
• (4) Liver disease treatment

Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

• (1) Birbal Sahni
• (2) S. R. Kashyap
• (3) Ramdeo Misra
• (4) Ram Udar

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm ovule at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.

Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A is false but R is true
• (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
• (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
• (4) A is true but R is false

Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:

• (1) A. Mass of proliferating cells
• (2) B. Rapid growth of cells
• (3) C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
• (4) D. Those confined to original location
  Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
• (1) B, C only
• (2) A, B only
• (3) A, B, C only
• (4) A, D only

Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.

• (1) E, D, C, B, A
• (2) B, A, C, D, E
• (3) B, A, E, C, D
• (4) B, E, A, D, C

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.

Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A is false but R is true
• (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
• (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
• (4) A is true but R is false

Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?

• (1) Catalase
• (2) RuBisCO
• (3) Carbonic anhydrase
• (4) Succinate dehydrogenase

Match List I with List II:

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. Emphysema \hspace{0.5cm I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca\(^{2+}\) in body fluid

B. Angina Pectoris \hspace{0.5cm II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface

C. Glomerulonephritis \hspace{0.5cm III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle

D. Tetany \hspace{0.5cm IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

• (1) Phloem parenchyma is absent.
• (2) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
• (3) Vascular bundles are scattered.
• (4) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.

Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

• (1) First digit of the fore limb
• (2) First and second digit of fore limb
• (3) First digit of hind limb
• (4) Second digit of fore limb

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.

Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
• (2) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
• (3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
• (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

Identify the part of a bioreactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.

• (1) C
• (2) B
• (3) A
• (4) D

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

• (1) \( 2N^2 \)
• (2) \( N^2 \)
• (3) \( 2^n \)
• (4) \( 2n + 1 \)

Match List I with List II:

List I \hspace{0.5cm List II

A. Head \hspace{0.5cm I. Enzymes

B. Middle piece \hspace{0.5cm II. Sperm motility

C. Acrosome \hspace{0.5cm III. Energy

D. Tail \hspace{0.5cm IV. Genetic material


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a floral formula, \( \bigstar \) stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower and \( G \) stands for inferior ovary.

Statement II: In a floral formula, \( \bigcirc \) stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and \( G \) stands for superior ovary.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

From the statements given below, choose the correct option:

A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.

C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S, while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 30S, and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.

E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S, and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.

• (1) B, D, E are true
• (2) A, B, C are true
• (3) A, B, D are true
• (4) A, B, E are true

Each of the following characteristics represents a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.

A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.

B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/system level of body organization.

C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.

D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ system level of body organization.

E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) C, E, A, B, D
• (2) A, C, E, B, D
• (3) C, E, A, D, B
• (4) A, C, E, D, B

The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is:

A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.

B. Attachment of gametophyte to substrate.

C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.

D. Formation of sporophyte.

E. Release of antherozoids into water.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) D, E, A, B, C
• (2) E, A, C, B, D
• (3) B, E, A, C, D
• (4) B, E, A, D, C

Which are correct:

A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.

B. Chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.

C. Interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.

D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.

E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B and C only
• (2) B and D only
• (3) D and E only
• (4) C and D only

Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

• (1) Rum
• (2) Whisky
• (3) Brandy
• (4) Beer

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.

Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanisms.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.

Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron?

• (1) Diagram 1
• (2) Diagram 2
• (3) Diagram 3
• (4) Diagram 4

What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

• (1) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
• (2) Mendelian inheritance pattern
• (3) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
• (4) Autosomal dominant pattern

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:

• (1) Aleurone layer
• (2) Coleoptile
• (3) Coleorhiza
• (4) Integument

Match List I with List II:

List I | List II

A. Chlorophyll a | I. Yellow-green

B. Chlorophyll b | II. Yellow

C. Xanthophylls | III. Blue-green

D. Carotenoids | IV. Yellow to yellow-orange


Choose the option with all correct matches:

• (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

• (1) Phage
• (2) Bacterium
• (3) Yeast
• (4) Virus

Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?

A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.

B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.

C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA.

D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA.

E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) C, D, E only
• (2) A, B, C only
• (3) B, C, D only
• (4) B, C, E only

Match List I with List II:

List I | List II

A. Centromere | I. Mitochondrion

B. Cilium | II. Cell division

C. Cristae | III. Cell movement

D. Cell membrane | IV. Phospholipid Bilayer


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-I, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Match List I with List II:

List I | List II

A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase | I. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Euchromatin | II. Densely packed and dark-stained

C. Frederick Griffith | III. Loosely packed and light-stained

D. Heterochromatin | IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-II

Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

• (1) Chromosome 6
• (2) Chromosome 7
• (3) Chromosome 4
• (4) Chromosome 1

What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?

A. High fatality risk to mother

B. Expensive instruments and reagents

C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors

D. Less adoption in India

E. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, B, C, E, F only
• (2) B, D only
• (3) A, B, C, D only
• (4) A, B, C, D, E only

Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

• (1) Protected areas
• (2) National Park
• (3) Wildlife Sanctuary
• (4) Zoos and botanical gardens

A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:

• (1) Endoplasmic Reticulum
• (2) Mesosome
• (3) Chromatophores
• (4) Cristae

In the above presented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

• (1) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
• (2) Using ampicillin & tetracycline containing medium plates.
• (3) Blue color colonies will be selected.
• (4) White color colonies will be selected.

What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

• (1) Vena cava
• (2) Aorta
• (3) Pulmonary artery
• (4) Pulmonary vein

Which of the following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?

A. Azotobacter

B. Oscillatoria

C. Anabaena

D. Volvox

E. Nostoc


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) E only
• (2) A only
• (3) D only
• (4) B only

While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the elementary canal. What could be the possible coelom of that animal?

• (1) Spongocoelom
• (2) Acoelomate
• (3) Pseudocoelomate
• (4) Schizocoelomate

Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

• (1) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
• (2) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
• (3) Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
• (4) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

• (1) Amensalism
• (2) Commensalism
• (3) Mutualism
• (4) Predation

Which one of the following hormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

• (1) Cytokinin
• (2) Ethylene
• (3) Abscisic acid
• (4) Gibberellin

The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as:

• (1) NADH dehydrogenase
• (2) Cytochrome bc1
• (3) Succinate dehydrogenase
• (4) Cytochrome c oxidase